Post Term Test 2 - Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

how do neoplastic cells BEHAVE BADLY (6)

A

expansion
tissue injury
pain
invasion
metastasis
secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hyperplastic vs Benign vs Malignant - Cellular Differentiation

A

Hyperplastic: normal gradient/cells
Benign: usually well differentiated
Malignant: poorly differentiated, anaplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hyperplastic vs Benign vs Malignant - Mitotic Activity

A

Hyperplastic: variable; typically low
Benign: usually low
Malignant: often high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hyperplastic vs Benign vs Malignant - Rate of growth/Reversible or irreversible

A

Hyperplastic: reversible
Benign: slow, irreversible
Malignant: rapid, irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hyperplastic vs Benign vs Malignant - Necrosis

A

Hyperplastic: none
Benign: usually minimal
Malignant: often high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hyperplastic vs Benign vs Malignant -Tissue demarcation

A

Hyperplastic: blends with normal
Benign: expansive, discrete
Malignant: poorly demarcated; locally invasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hyperplastic vs Benign vs Malignant - Heterogeneity

A

Hyperplastic: none
Benign: minimal
Malignant: more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hyperplastic vs Benign vs Malignant - Aneuploidy

A

Hyperplastic: none
Benign: low
Malignant: more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hyperplastic vs Benign vs Malignant - paraneoplastic syndrome

A

Hyperplastic: none
Benign: variable
Malignant: variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hyperplastic vs Benign vs Malignant - recurrence after removal

A

Hyperplastic: none
Benign: rare
Malignant: frequent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hyperplastic vs Benign vs Malignant - Propensity to progress if not removed

A

Hyperplastic: none
Benign: low
Malignant: high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

name some examples of local injury

A

ulceration, infection, perforation, hemmorrhage, nerve damage, restricted motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F invasion and local spread is always malignant

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is one way that cancerous cells can change phenotype and why is it beneficial

A

epithelial to mesenchymal -> the latter has fewer cell-cell junctions/contact inhibition and more ECM matrix adhesion/protease expression -> better invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the fertile soil concept of tumor metastasis

A

going from one region of the organ to another because it can grow well there (ex. from one ovary to the other via the peritoneal cavity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Uterine carcinoma tends to produce what characteristic that can be appreciated grossly

A

Secretes growth factors (ex. TGFβ) that induce fibrosis; tumors are schirrhous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is paraneoplastic syndrome

A

when tumours produce excessive amounts of functional proteins in an unregulated manner (think endocrine disease-causing tumours)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is elevated with some paraneoplastic syndromes and can indicate neoplasia

A

elevated Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What underpins neoplastic behaviour on a molecular level (7)

A
  • activated oncogenes
  • functional harmful molecules
  • matrix proteinases
  • angiogenic factors
  • ECM factors (ex. TGFβ -> scarring)
  • cell adhesion molecules
  • resistance factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F necrotic tumors are easier to kill than non-necrotic tumours

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

a tumor that outgrew its own blood supply takes on what gross appearance

A

umbilicated; has a central, red depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

name two examples of angiogenic growth factors

A

VEGF, bFGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sutent (Sunitinib) does what

A

inhibits angiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the 6 hallmarks of cancer

A

sustained proliferative signalling
evade growth suppressors
activate invasion and metastasis
evade cell death
induce angiogenesis
enable replicative immortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are two enabling characteristics of cancer

A

genome instability and mutation
tumor promoting inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

oncogenes are __________ in cancers whereas TSGs are _____________in cancers

A

activated; inactivated

27
Q

oncogenes

A

mutated genes that produce proteins with increased growth stimulatory or cell survival functions

28
Q

tumor suppressor genes

A

genes typically involved in genomic stability and apoptosis, or that counteract oncogenes, that become mutated

29
Q

what is c-kit

A

a membrane receptor for growth factors; targeted in some cancer therapies

30
Q

what are two examples of oncogenes

A

mutated c-kit; mutated tyrosine kinase receptors

31
Q

Herceptin (Trastumuzab) targets

A

ErbB2 receptor (tyrosine kinase)

32
Q

Lapatinib targets

A

downstream tyrosine phosphorylation of the ErbB2 receptor

33
Q

T/F oncogenes may undergo translocations to become activated

A

T

34
Q

what is the classic example of oncogene translocations in cancer

A

chronic myeloid/myelogenous leukemia (CML)

35
Q

what goes Gleevec (imatinib) target (3)

A

tyrosine kinase domain of abl, c-kit, and PDGF-R

36
Q

what is a classic tumor suppressor gene product

A

p53 (involved in cell cycle checkpoints and initiation of apoptosis)

37
Q

patients with DNA mismatch repair defects are susceptible to

A

colon polyps -> cancer

38
Q

how does heterozygosity play a role in oncogenesis

A

if people are born heterozygous for a TSG allele and then lose that copy, they are more prone to progress to malignancy

39
Q

how does PTEN work as a TSG

A

it dephosphorylates tyrosine kinase receptors (ex. c-Met), which inhibits downstream signalling

40
Q

what is a key factor for combating colon carcinogenesis

A

remove the polyp before it becomes malignant; if malignant you will leave cells behind

41
Q

transition of a large colon adenoma to a carcinoma is mediated by what molecular factor

A

p53 mutation and loss of 18q

42
Q

___________heterogeneity leads to ____________ heterogeneity

A

genotypic; phenotypic

43
Q

heterogeneity leads to what practical problems (4)

A

diagnostic markers
chemotherapeutic regimens (drug resistance)
mutation-specific drugs
evasion of immune system

44
Q

how can we identify poorly differentiated tumors? how can this be a problem?

A

immunohistochemistry; can be an issue if the tumor is heterogeneous for expression of markers

45
Q

what is an endothelial cell marker

A

CD31

46
Q

what are the two ways that cancer cells can sustain proliferative signalling

A
  1. do not require GF for signalling
  2. make their own GF
47
Q

what is a marker for cancer stem cells

A

CD133

48
Q

T/F tumours require cancer stem cells to form a new tumour

A

T

49
Q

what are 2 key factors that make cancer stem cells hard to treat

A
  1. low proliferation rate
  2. low uptake of drugs

Consequence: drug and radiation resistant

50
Q

T/F cancer stem cells express unique stem cell markers

A

F; often express normal markers

51
Q

how can giving anti-oxidants actually increase the incidence of cancer

A

cancer cells produce high ROS, which can kill them; antioxidants produced by the cell deal with this but only partially balance the oxidative stress, which means the cancer cells survive and have more ROS-mediated mutagenic events

52
Q

most cancer mortality is due to

A

metastasis

53
Q

T/F for some cancers there are primary tumor gene expression signatures that can predict their likelihood to metastasize

A

T

54
Q

what is the term for spread into body cavities by entering the pleural, peritoneal, pericardial or subarachnoid spaces

A

transcelomoic

55
Q

what are the 8 steps in the metastatic cascade

A
  1. detach (from primary tumor)
  2. invade (local stroma)
  3. intravasate (go into local lymphatics/bvs)
  4. survive (in circulation)
  5. arrest (in capillaries or venules)
  6. extravasate (go into parenchyma)
  7. adapt to or subvert (environment)
  8. proliferate (to form new tumor)
56
Q

why is inflammation associated with cancer (4)

A
  1. cytokines
  2. angiogenic factors
  3. high proliferation
  4. produce ROS - predisposes to mutation
57
Q

how do cancer cells avoid immune destruction (3)

A
  1. stop producing antigen in a subset of cells (immuno-editing)
  2. mutate or stop expressing MHC
  3. produce immunosuppressive cytokines
58
Q

list whether the following factors increase or decrease the risk of cancer:
- decreasing age
- high calorie, low fibre diets
- obesity
- reproductive status (spayed/neutered)
- exposure to chemical carcinogens
- ionizing and UV radiation

A
  • decreases
  • increases
  • increases
  • decreases
  • increases
  • increases
59
Q

what are 4 oncogenic viruses

A

papillomaviruses
herpesviruses
hepadnaviruses
retroviruses

60
Q

avian leukosis virus causes

A

bursa lymphoma

61
Q

marek’s disease (herpesvirus) causes

A

lymphoma infiltrate in liver

62
Q

T/F there can be transmission of live neoplastic cells

A

T (can occur in tasmanian devils, in dogs)

63
Q

T/F after a tumor has undergone treatment, it cannot be reliably graded but can be reliably staged

A

F; cannot be reliably graded OR staged