Techniques I - Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

Normal body temperature is:

A

98.6 F or 37 C

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2
Q

Normal adult blood pressure is:

A

120/80 mmHg

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3
Q

Normal adult heart rate is:

A

60-100

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4
Q

Normal adult respiratory rate is:

A

12-20

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5
Q

Part of the stethoscope may be used for low-pitched sounds such as the heart:

A

Bell

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6
Q

High heart rate is termed:

A

Tachycardia

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7
Q

Low blood pressure is termed:

A

Hypotension

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8
Q

This is the temporary cessation of breathing:

A

Apnea

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9
Q

This term is used to describe the middle, or near the middle:

A

Medial

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10
Q

This is the creaking or grating sound that occurs when the pleural surfaces become inflamed and rub together:

A

Pleural friction rub

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11
Q

This term refers to normal breath sounds:

A

Vesicular

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12
Q

This is high pitched crowing noise heard mostly on inspiration:

A

Stridor

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13
Q

How do you test a stethoscope for proper function prior to auscultation of the lungs?

A

Tap the diaphragm

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14
Q

What is the common drug administered in the hospital?

A

Oxygen

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15
Q

A RR < 12 is termed:

A

Bradypnea

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16
Q

A RR > 20 is termed:

A

Tachypnea

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17
Q

A HR > 100 is termed

A

Tachycardia

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18
Q

A HR < 60 is termed:

A

Bradycardia

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19
Q

The #1 body response to hypoxemia is:

A

Tachycardia

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20
Q

Bronchial breath sounds over the lung periphery indicates

A

Consolidation

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21
Q

The regulating agency controls and recommends manufacturer and safe use of compressed medical gases

A

DOT

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22
Q

The agency that recommends color coding of cylinders

A

CGA

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23
Q

The regulating agency which regulates guidelines for safe use in the hospital setting

A

OSHA

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24
Q

The regulating agency which regulates certain purity for O2 99% or >

A

FDA

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25
The regulating agency which sets the standards for storage of cylinders
NFPA
26
This symbol indicates a cylinder may be overfilled by 10%
+ sign
27
Gas cylinder color of Oxygen
Green
28
Gas cylinder of Helium
Brown
29
Gas cylinder of Air
Yellow
30
This method is the least expensive and most common way to manufacture O2
Fractional distillation
31
Heliox is available in which 2 mixtures
70/30 or 80/20
32
Disadvantages of heliox therapy includes
Expensive, administer with a mask, distorts vocal cords
33
Cylinder size (factor) of D cylinder
0.16
34
Cylinder size (factor) of E cylinder
0.28
35
Cylinder size (factor) of G cylinder
2.41
36
Cylinder size (factor) of H cylinder
3.14
37
You have an H cylinder with 1500 psi running at a liter flow of 3 Lpm, how long will you cylinder last?
26.1 3.14x1500 divided by 3 =1570 min = 26.1 hrs
38
Standard working pressure form a station outlet is ___ psi
50
39
Pin index safety system marking for oxygen are
2 and 5
40
A device that controls the flow of gas is called
Flow meter
41
A device that controls both the pressure and the flow is called
Regulator
42
To transport a patient by cart to the X-ray department in the supine position which type of device would you use
Bourdan gauge
43
In the face of a back pressure, the Bourdon Gauge will read higher or lower
Higher
44
You have a 40L liquid reserve with a gauge reading of 3/4 full, powering a 28% venture mask at 6 Lpm. How long will your tank last
4300 minutes or 71.1 hours 40x860x.75 divided by 6 = 4300 min = 71.6 hrs
45
A LOX cylinder weighing 66 Lbs running at 3.5 lpm will last how long
6486 minutes or 108 hrs 66x860x1 divided by 2.5 = 22704, 22704 divided by 3.5 = 6486.8 min = 108.1 hrs
46
The RCP opens the valve of an E cylinder which has a regulator attached and hears a loud hissing noise, the flow meter is turned off. What may correct the problem
Tighten the regulator, or change the washer
47
An arterial blood oxygen level that is below normal is termed
Hypoxemia
48
Normal PaO2 is
80 to 100 torr
49
Decreased oxygen tension below normal at tissue level is termed
Hypoxia
50
When the body has hypoxemia or hypoxia, the body compensates in three way
1. Increased HR 2. Increased RR 3. Increased CO
51
The volume of blood ejected from the heart (left ventricle) per unit of time is termed
Cardiac output
52
Normal cardiac output is
4-8 LPM
53
How is CO calculated
CO = SV x HR
54
A normal individual breathes to blow off their CO2. This is called a
Hypercapnic Drive
55
A person with chronic lung disease who has CO2 retention, can no longer breathe to blow off CO2, they are used to lower levels of O2, and they breathe to increase their O2 levels this is called the
Hypoxic Drive
56
Patients with chronic hypercapnia should be maintained at concentrations of
24 to 28% or 1-2 LPM
57
Calculate VE if the RR is 12 and the VT is 800 mL
9.6 L
58
Liter flow of a nasal cannula is
1 to 6 Lpm
59
A bubbler may be added for comfort and are always added for flows greater than
4 LPM
60
Liter flow range of a simple mask is _____ to _____ lpm. A minimum liter flow of _____ lpm is needed to flush out CO2
5, 10, 5
61
Liter flow range of a partial re-breather mask is ___ to ____ lpm. As the patient exhales, the first 1/3 of the gas is exhaled into the bag, increasing the FiO2. Provides FiO2 capabilities up to ___% If the bag deflates on inspiration, you should _____. It has ____ valves
5, 10, 40-70, increase flow, 1
62
Liter flow range for the non-rebreather mask is ____ to ____ lpm. FiO2 capabilities of this mask is _____%
10-15 LPM, 60-80%
63
Cam tents can provide a FiO2 of _____ to ____%
21-50%
64
Oxy hoods can provide a FiO2 of ____ to ___% and should have a minimum flow of ____ lpm to prevent CO2 build up
21-100%, 7Lpm
65
High flow systems differ from low flow systems in the provide or do not provide all the flow needs of the patient. One of the most common air entrainment devices is the Venturi mask. This mask can provide a FiO2 of ____ to _____%. If the entrainment port is covered the FiO2 will increase or decrease and may cause ______ in copd patients
24-50%, O2 induced hypoventilation
66
If an air entrainment device delivering 50% FiO2 running at 15 lpm, what is the total flow the patient is receiving? (Magic Box)
40.8 L Box numbers = 1.72:1 = 1.72+1 = 2.72, 2.72x15 = 40.8
67
If an analyzer drifts during calibration the most likely causes are
New battery, fuel cell
68
A nasal cannula running at 5 lpm (assuming normal breathing pattern) provides an approximate FiO2 of
41%
69
Hazards of oxygen therapy include
ROP/RLF, O2 toxicity, O2 induced hypoventilation, denitrogenation absorption atelectasis
70
Nebulizers can be powered with
Air or O2
71
To power a nebulizer flow should be
6-9 Lpm
72
During a nebulizer treatment HR should not increase by more than ___ bpm, if this occurs tx, treatment should be stopped, pt monitored, RN notified and thorough documentation
20
73
The addition of dead space has what effect on CO2
Increases
74
The primary or most common side effect of HHN is ____
Tachycardia
75
Normal peak flows: Adult
300-600 Lpm
76
How would you instruct your patient to perform a peak-expiratory flow?
Big deep breath in and then out hard and fast
77
What medication should always be given with a bronchodilator
Acetylcysteine
78
What is the main purpose of performing a PEF?
Determine reversibility of obstruction
79
A medication contains 10mg/ml. The physician orders 2.5mg. How many mL/s of the medication will you give?
2.5/10 = .25 mL
80
You have a 10% mucomyst solution. The physician orders 2ml of a 20% solution. How many ml's of the 10% solution will you give?
4 mL (Multiply by 2 or divide by 2)
81
Primary goal of humidity therapy is to maintain normal physiologic conditions in the lower airway to maintain the mucociliary transport (True or False)
True
82
Recommended Heat and Humidity for Nose/mouth
20-22 degree C, 50%
83
Recommended Heat and Humidity for Hypopharynx
29-32 degrees C, 95%
84
Recommended Heat and Humidity for Trachea
32-35 degrees C, 100%
85
The component of the cascade humidifier responsible for altering the RH by increasing the surface area is the _____
Grid
86
As gas is heated, what changes in RH will be noted?
Increase
87
Regulating pressure of the SPAG should be set at _____ PSI
26
88
If the mist disappears from the tubing when a patient inhales while wearing an air entrainment aerosol mask what is the appropriate action?
Increase flow
89
What devices deliver the highest % of body humidity?
Heated
90
The major factors affecting the efficiency of a humidifier is:
Temperature, contact time, surface area
91
While caring for an infant on a continuous heated aerosol you note that the H2O is low, what other changes to the system would you expect to find, if any
Higher temperature
92
As flow rate of a gas through a humidifier increases what happens to relative humidity?
Decreases (less contact time)
93
Contraindications of PD include all the following
Recent food consumption, intracranial hypertension, untreated pneumothorax
94
If the manometer fails to reach the desired setting during a PEP treatment you should
Increase pressure setting
95
Components of the PEP device include all the following
Pressure manometer, one way valve, mask or mouthpiece
96
Hazards and complications of CPT include all the following
Fractured ribs, hypoxemia, dyspnea
97
Flutter therapy combines ____ with _____ the weight of the ball serves as an EPAP device ___ to ___ cmH2O at ____ Hz
PEP with high frequency oscillation, 10 to 25, 15 Hz
98
Percussion is performed during
Both inspiration and expiration
99
Percussion should be performed by ____ wrist action with cupped hands
Relaxed
100
Percussion should be performed over each specified area for
2-5 minutes
101
Indications for PD and percussion include all the following
Retention of secretions, atelectasis, prophylactic care
102
Postural drainage uses which of the following to accomplish its primary goal?
Positioning and gravity
103
Is vibration and shaking on expiration or inspiration or both
Expiration