Techniques I - Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

Normal body temperature is:

A

98.6 F or 37 C

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2
Q

Normal adult blood pressure is:

A

120/80 mmHg

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3
Q

Normal adult heart rate is:

A

60-100

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4
Q

Normal adult respiratory rate is:

A

12-20

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5
Q

Part of the stethoscope may be used for low-pitched sounds such as the heart:

A

Bell

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6
Q

High heart rate is termed:

A

Tachycardia

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7
Q

Low blood pressure is termed:

A

Hypotension

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8
Q

This is the temporary cessation of breathing:

A

Apnea

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9
Q

This term is used to describe the middle, or near the middle:

A

Medial

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10
Q

This is the creaking or grating sound that occurs when the pleural surfaces become inflamed and rub together:

A

Pleural friction rub

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11
Q

This term refers to normal breath sounds:

A

Vesicular

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12
Q

This is high pitched crowing noise heard mostly on inspiration:

A

Stridor

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13
Q

How do you test a stethoscope for proper function prior to auscultation of the lungs?

A

Tap the diaphragm

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14
Q

What is the common drug administered in the hospital?

A

Oxygen

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15
Q

A RR < 12 is termed:

A

Bradypnea

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16
Q

A RR > 20 is termed:

A

Tachypnea

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17
Q

A HR > 100 is termed

A

Tachycardia

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18
Q

A HR < 60 is termed:

A

Bradycardia

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19
Q

The #1 body response to hypoxemia is:

A

Tachycardia

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20
Q

Bronchial breath sounds over the lung periphery indicates

A

Consolidation

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21
Q

The regulating agency controls and recommends manufacturer and safe use of compressed medical gases

A

DOT

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22
Q

The agency that recommends color coding of cylinders

A

CGA

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23
Q

The regulating agency which regulates guidelines for safe use in the hospital setting

A

OSHA

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24
Q

The regulating agency which regulates certain purity for O2 99% or >

A

FDA

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25
Q

The regulating agency which sets the standards for storage of cylinders

A

NFPA

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26
Q

This symbol indicates a cylinder may be overfilled by 10%

A

+ sign

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27
Q

Gas cylinder color of Oxygen

A

Green

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28
Q

Gas cylinder of Helium

A

Brown

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29
Q

Gas cylinder of Air

A

Yellow

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30
Q

This method is the least expensive and most common way to manufacture O2

A

Fractional distillation

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31
Q

Heliox is available in which 2 mixtures

A

70/30 or 80/20

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32
Q

Disadvantages of heliox therapy includes

A

Expensive, administer with a mask, distorts vocal cords

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33
Q

Cylinder size (factor) of D cylinder

A

0.16

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34
Q

Cylinder size (factor) of E cylinder

A

0.28

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35
Q

Cylinder size (factor) of G cylinder

A

2.41

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36
Q

Cylinder size (factor) of H cylinder

A

3.14

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37
Q

You have an H cylinder with 1500 psi running at a liter flow of 3 Lpm, how long will you cylinder last?

A

26.1
3.14x1500 divided by 3 =1570 min = 26.1 hrs

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38
Q

Standard working pressure form a station outlet is ___ psi

A

50

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39
Q

Pin index safety system marking for oxygen are

A

2 and 5

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40
Q

A device that controls the flow of gas is called

A

Flow meter

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41
Q

A device that controls both the pressure and the flow is called

A

Regulator

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42
Q

To transport a patient by cart to the X-ray department in the supine position which type of device would you use

A

Bourdan gauge

43
Q

In the face of a back pressure, the Bourdon Gauge will read higher or lower

A

Higher

44
Q

You have a 40L liquid reserve with a gauge reading of 3/4 full, powering a 28% venture mask at 6 Lpm. How long will your tank last

A

4300 minutes or 71.1 hours
40x860x.75 divided by 6 = 4300 min = 71.6 hrs

45
Q

A LOX cylinder weighing 66 Lbs running at 3.5 lpm will last how long

A

6486 minutes or 108 hrs
66x860x1 divided by 2.5 = 22704, 22704 divided by 3.5 = 6486.8 min = 108.1 hrs

46
Q

The RCP opens the valve of an E cylinder which has a regulator attached and hears a loud hissing noise, the flow meter is turned off. What may correct the problem

A

Tighten the regulator, or change the washer

47
Q

An arterial blood oxygen level that is below normal is termed

A

Hypoxemia

48
Q

Normal PaO2 is

A

80 to 100 torr

49
Q

Decreased oxygen tension below normal at tissue level is termed

A

Hypoxia

50
Q

When the body has hypoxemia or hypoxia, the body compensates in three way

A
  1. Increased HR
  2. Increased RR
  3. Increased CO
51
Q

The volume of blood ejected from the heart (left ventricle) per unit of time is termed

A

Cardiac output

52
Q

Normal cardiac output is

A

4-8 LPM

53
Q

How is CO calculated

A

CO = SV x HR

54
Q

A normal individual breathes to blow off their CO2. This is called a

A

Hypercapnic Drive

55
Q

A person with chronic lung disease who has CO2 retention, can no longer breathe to blow off CO2, they are used to lower levels of O2, and they breathe to increase their O2 levels this is called the

A

Hypoxic Drive

56
Q

Patients with chronic hypercapnia should be maintained at concentrations of

A

24 to 28% or 1-2 LPM

57
Q

Calculate VE if the RR is 12 and the VT is 800 mL

A

9.6 L

58
Q

Liter flow of a nasal cannula is

A

1 to 6 Lpm

59
Q

A bubbler may be added for comfort and are always added for flows greater than

A

4 LPM

60
Q

Liter flow range of a simple mask is _____ to _____ lpm. A minimum liter flow of _____ lpm is needed to flush out CO2

A

5, 10, 5

61
Q

Liter flow range of a partial re-breather mask is ___ to ____ lpm. As the patient exhales, the first 1/3 of the gas is exhaled into the bag, increasing the FiO2. Provides FiO2 capabilities up to ___% If the bag deflates on inspiration, you should _____. It has ____ valves

A

5, 10, 40-70, increase flow, 1

62
Q

Liter flow range for the non-rebreather mask is ____ to ____ lpm. FiO2 capabilities of this mask is _____%

A

10-15 LPM, 60-80%

63
Q

Cam tents can provide a FiO2 of _____ to ____%

A

21-50%

64
Q

Oxy hoods can provide a FiO2 of ____ to ___% and should have a minimum flow of ____ lpm to prevent CO2 build up

A

21-100%, 7Lpm

65
Q

High flow systems differ from low flow systems in the provide or do not provide all the flow needs of the patient. One of the most common air entrainment devices is the Venturi mask. This mask can provide a FiO2 of ____ to _____%. If the entrainment port is covered the FiO2 will increase or decrease and may cause ______ in copd patients

A

24-50%, O2 induced hypoventilation

66
Q

If an air entrainment device delivering 50% FiO2 running at 15 lpm, what is the total flow the patient is receiving? (Magic Box)

A

40.8 L
Box numbers = 1.72:1 = 1.72+1 = 2.72, 2.72x15 = 40.8

67
Q

If an analyzer drifts during calibration the most likely causes are

A

New battery, fuel cell

68
Q

A nasal cannula running at 5 lpm (assuming normal breathing pattern) provides an approximate FiO2 of

A

41%

69
Q

Hazards of oxygen therapy include

A

ROP/RLF, O2 toxicity, O2 induced hypoventilation, denitrogenation absorption atelectasis

70
Q

Nebulizers can be powered with

A

Air or O2

71
Q

To power a nebulizer flow should be

A

6-9 Lpm

72
Q

During a nebulizer treatment HR should not increase by more than ___ bpm, if this occurs tx, treatment should be stopped, pt monitored, RN notified and thorough documentation

A

20

73
Q

The addition of dead space has what effect on CO2

A

Increases

74
Q

The primary or most common side effect of HHN is ____

A

Tachycardia

75
Q

Normal peak flows: Adult

A

300-600 Lpm

76
Q

How would you instruct your patient to perform a peak-expiratory flow?

A

Big deep breath in and then out hard and fast

77
Q

What medication should always be given with a bronchodilator

A

Acetylcysteine

78
Q

What is the main purpose of performing a PEF?

A

Determine reversibility of obstruction

79
Q

A medication contains 10mg/ml. The physician orders 2.5mg. How many mL/s of the medication will you give?

A

2.5/10 = .25 mL

80
Q

You have a 10% mucomyst solution. The physician orders 2ml of a 20% solution. How many ml’s of the 10% solution will you give?

A

4 mL (Multiply by 2 or divide by 2)

81
Q

Primary goal of humidity therapy is to maintain normal physiologic conditions in the lower airway to maintain the mucociliary transport (True or False)

A

True

82
Q

Recommended Heat and Humidity for Nose/mouth

A

20-22 degree C, 50%

83
Q

Recommended Heat and Humidity for Hypopharynx

A

29-32 degrees C, 95%

84
Q

Recommended Heat and Humidity for Trachea

A

32-35 degrees C, 100%

85
Q

The component of the cascade humidifier responsible for altering the RH by increasing the surface area is the _____

A

Grid

86
Q

As gas is heated, what changes in RH will be noted?

A

Increase

87
Q

Regulating pressure of the SPAG should be set at _____ PSI

A

26

88
Q

If the mist disappears from the tubing when a patient inhales while wearing an air entrainment aerosol mask what is the appropriate action?

A

Increase flow

89
Q

What devices deliver the highest % of body humidity?

A

Heated

90
Q

The major factors affecting the efficiency of a humidifier is:

A

Temperature, contact time, surface area

91
Q

While caring for an infant on a continuous heated aerosol you note that the H2O is low, what other changes to the system would you expect to find, if any

A

Higher temperature

92
Q

As flow rate of a gas through a humidifier increases what happens to relative humidity?

A

Decreases (less contact time)

93
Q

Contraindications of PD include all the following

A

Recent food consumption, intracranial hypertension, untreated pneumothorax

94
Q

If the manometer fails to reach the desired setting during a PEP treatment you should

A

Increase pressure setting

95
Q

Components of the PEP device include all the following

A

Pressure manometer, one way valve, mask or mouthpiece

96
Q

Hazards and complications of CPT include all the following

A

Fractured ribs, hypoxemia, dyspnea

97
Q

Flutter therapy combines ____ with _____ the weight of the ball serves as an EPAP device ___ to ___ cmH2O at ____ Hz

A

PEP with high frequency oscillation, 10 to 25, 15 Hz

98
Q

Percussion is performed during

A

Both inspiration and expiration

99
Q

Percussion should be performed by ____ wrist action with cupped hands

A

Relaxed

100
Q

Percussion should be performed over each specified area for

A

2-5 minutes

101
Q

Indications for PD and percussion include all the following

A

Retention of secretions, atelectasis, prophylactic care

102
Q

Postural drainage uses which of the following to accomplish its primary goal?

A

Positioning and gravity

103
Q

Is vibration and shaking on expiration or inspiration or both

A

Expiration