Technical Subject Areas Flashcards
1
Q
When should a student pilot obtain a medical certificate?
A
Prior to beginning training, but needed prior to solo flight
2
Q
What is a Statement of Demonstrated Ability (SODA)?
A
Granted to a person whose disqualifying condition is not progressive, and does not impact airman duties
3
Q
What are some medical conditions which might prevent the issuance of a medical certificate?
A
Clinical diabetes Coronary heart disease/heart attack Epilepsy Disturbance of consciousness Alcoholism Drug dependence Psychosis
4
Q
Can a pilot act as PIC while having a known disqualifying medical deficiency?
A
No
5
Q
What is the minimum medical certificate requirement for a practical test?
A
Third class
6
Q
Is there a relationship between a person’s physical/mental health and his/her vision?
A
Yes, even minor illness can affect vision
7
Q
What are some external factors that can degrade a pilot’s vision?
A
Smoke, haze, dust, rain
Windshield conditions
Light reflected off clouds, water, snow, desert terrain
Dim illumination (difficult to read charts)
Dark adaptation (20-30 minutes)
8
Q
What are some optical illusions a pilot can experience in flight?
A
The “leans”-entering a bank slowly can create the illusion of banking in the opposite direction
Runway width illusion-narrow, aircraft appears high; wide, aircraft appears low
Runway/terrain slope illusion-upslope, aircraft appears high; downslope, aircraft appears low
Featureless terrain illusion-water/darkened terrain, aircraft appears high
9
Q
Explain “see and avoid.”
A
Each person operating aircraft has responsibility to be vigilant for traffic, regardless of VFR/IFR rules
10
Q
How much time should be spent looking outside the airplane versus inside the cockpit?
A
2/3-3/4 outside, 1/4-1/3 inside
11
Q
Describe a good visual scanning technique.
A
Series of short (1 second), regularly spaced intervals of 10 degrees
12
Q
What are the 4 dynamic forces that act on an airplane?
A
Lift-upward acting
Weight-gravity, downward acting
Thrust-forward acting
Drag-rearward acting
13
Q
Define Bernoulli’s Principle.
A
Pressure of a fluid decreases with an increase in speed
14
Q
Define Newton’s Third Law.
A
For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction
15
Q
Define airfoil.
A
Surface designed to generate lift from the air in which it moves
16
Q
Define angle of attack.
A
Angle formed by the chord line of the wing and the relative wind
17
Q
Define angle of incidence.
A
Angle formed by the chord line of the wing and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
18
Q
Define camber.
A
Curvature of an airfoil from leading edge to trailing edge
19
Q
Define chord line.
A
Line drawn from leading edge to trailing edge of a wing
20
Q
Define wing planform.
A
Shape of a wing when viewed from above
21
Q
What is the relationship of forces acting on an airplane in straight and level, unaccelerated flight?
A
Lift = Weight, Thrust = Drag
22
Q
What causes an airplane to turn?
A
Horizontal component of lift
23
Q
Define static stability.
A
Initial tendency that the airplane displays after equilibrium is disturbed
24
Q
Define dynamic stability.
A
Overall tendency the airplane displays after equilibrium is disturbed
25
How does wing downwash affect longitudinal stability?
Wing downwash passes over the horizontal stabilizer, producing downward pressure which balances the nose's heaviness
26
Explain torque effect, as it relates to left-turning tendencies.
Rotation of the engine/propeller to the right causes the airplane to roll/yaw to the left
27
Explain the gyroscopic effect of the propeller.
A force acting on a spinning propeller will be deflected 90 degrees ahead of the rotation
28
Explain the corkscrewing effect of propeller slipstream.
Spiraling slipstream from the propeller strikes the left side of the vertical stabilizer, pushing the tail to the right and the nose to the left
29
Explain asymmetrical loading of the propeller (P-factor)
Descending propeller blade has a higher angle of attack, generating more lift, and pushing the nose to the left
30
What are the effects of speed on load factor?
The greater the speed, the greater the load capacity
| At slow speeds, even abrupt control maneuvers or wind gusts can cause excessive loads
31
Explain the relationship between center of lift (CL) and center of gravity (CG).
CL is typically behind CG, making nose feel heavy
| Horizontal stabilizer has a slight negative angle of attack to create a downward force to balance the airplane
32
What are the 2 types of drag?
Induced drag-product of lift
| Parasite drag-created from the form/shape of airplane
33
Define mean aerodynamic chord (MAC).
Average distance from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing
34
What are some preflight actions/considerations for night flight?
Weather briefing (temp/dewpoint spread, possible fog)
Calculate wind directions and speeds (drift harder to detect)
Mark lighted checkpoints on chart
Check personal equipment (flashlights, handheld radios, etc.)
Thorough preflight of aircraft (all lights)
Check ground for obstructions before taxiing
35
What are some guidelines to follow when starting engine and taxiing at night?
Use lights/beacon prior to startup to alert persons in the area
Avoid high-draw equipment (landing light) during taxi to conserve battery
Taxi slowly
36
What are some guidelines to follow during takeoff and departure at night?
Use distant runway edge lights + landing light area to keep airplane on the centerline
Reference AI and VSI for positive rate of climb
Do not initiate turns until safe maneuvering altitude is reached
37
What procedures should be followed during approach and landing at night?
Allow plenty of time for pre-landing checklist
Maintain recommended speeds in pattern
Avoid a long, low final
Keep glidepath high enough to stay well clear of obstacles
Make sure DG is aligned with compass/use DG heading bug
Verify altimeter settings
Use VASI or ILS to help maintain approach path
38
What are the regulations concerning supplemental oxygen?
12500'-14000' MSL-crew required to use O2 after 30 minutes
Above 14000' MSL-crew required to use O2 the entire time
Above 15000' MSL-every occupant must be provided O2
39
Define/explain pressurized aircraft.
Cabin, flight compartment, baggage compartments are sealed, capable of containing air at higher pressure than atmospheric
Turbine engines-use bleed air from compressor
Piston engines-use air from turbocharger through sonic venturi
40
What are the 3 types of common oxygen systems?
Diluter demand-supplies oxygen only when user inhales through mask
Pressure demand-like diluter demand, but O2 is pressurized above 34000'
Continuous flow-reservoir bag which collects O2 during exhale, typically provided to passengers
41
Can medical or welding oxygen be substituted for aviator's breathing oxygen?
No, they contain water which could freeze at high altitudes
| Aviator's breathing oxygen-99.5% pure, no more than 2mL/L water
42
Describe explosive decompression.
Cabin pressure decreases faster than lungs can decompress
Less than 1/2 second
Caused by structural/material failure or door popping open
43
Describe rapid decompression.
Change in cabin pressure where lungs decompress faster than cabin
No likelihood of lung damage
Caused by leak, or malfunction of pressurization system
44
What is the purpose/content of 14 CFR Part 61?
Certification of pilots, flight instructors, ground instructors
45
What is the purpose/content of 14 CFR Part 91?
General operating and flight rules
46
What is the purpose/content of 14 CFR Part 141?
Pilot schools
47
What is the purpose/content of NTSB Part 830?
Notification of aircraft accidents or incidents
48
What is the purpose/content of the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)?
Provides general instructional information about operating in the National Airspace System
49
What is the purpose/content of Advisory Circulars (AC)?
Issued to inform aviation public in non-regulatory way
Non-binding, unless referenced in specific regulation
Provide guidance/information
50
What is the purpose/content of the Airman Certification Standards (ACS)?
Establish standards for practical tests
51
Describe Class A Airspace.
18000' MSL up to, and including FL600
| Requires IFR flight plan
52
Describe Class B Airspace.
Generally, surface to 10000' MSL surrounding busiest airports, shaped like upside down wedding cake
Contains all instrument procedures for primary airport
VFR/IFR, minimum private pilot license (or student pilot with endorsement)
Requires 2-way radio and transponder
ATC clearance required to enter
53
Describe Class C Airspace.
Generally, surface to 4000' above airport elevation
Surround towered airport with certain number of IFR/passenger operations
Lower tier-surface to 1200' AGL, 5nm diameter
Upper tier-1200'-4000' AGL, 10nm diameter
Transponder and 2-way radio communications required
54
Describe Class D Airspace.
Generally, surface to 2500' AGL above towered airport
4nm radius
2 way communications required
55
Describe Class E Airspace.
Controlled airspace that is not Class A, B, C, or D
| Surface (or other specified altitude) to 18000' MSL
56
Describe Class G Airspace.
Any airspace not designated as controlled
| Surface to base of overlying controlled airspace (up to 14500' MSL)
57
Define Prohibited Area.
Aircraft flight prohibited (for security or other reasons)
58
Define Restricted Area.
Contains unusual, often invisible, hazards
VFR flights need permission from controlling agency
IFR flights routed around
59
Define Military Operations Area (MOA).
Separates military training from IFR flights
VFR should exercise caution
IFR will be routed through, or vectored around
60
Define Warning Area.
Same hazards as Restricted Area
| Extends outward from 3nm off coast of US
61
Define Alert Area.
Contains high volume of pilot training/unusual aerial activity
No permission required for entry
Vigilance should be exercised
62
Define Controlled Firing Area (CFA).
Contain activities which could be hazardous to non-participating aircraft
Not charted
Activities suspended immediately when aircraft spotted by radar, ground, or aerial lookouts
63
Define National Security Area (NSA).
Vertical and lateral limits defined around ground facilities where there is a greater security need
Pilots requested to voluntarily avoid flying through
64
Define Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR).
Regulatory, issued through NOTAM system
| Restricts certain aircraft/operations in specified area
65
What are some events that would cause the FAA to issue a TFR?
```
Toxic spills
Volcanic eruptions
Wildfires
Hijacking incidents
Aerial demonstrations
Sporting events
Reasons of national security
```
66
What endorsements can/will a CFI issue to student pilots?
Pre-solo aeronautical knowledge
Pre-solo flight training
Pre-solo flight training at night
Solo flight (90 day)
Solo takeoffs and landings at another airport within 25nm
Initial solo cross country flight
Repeated solo cross country flights not more than 50nm from departure
Solo flight in Class B Airspace
Solo flight to/from an airport in Class B Airspace
67
Which endorsements must a student receive prior to solo flight?
Pre-solo written exam
Pre-solo flight training in make and model of aircraft
Endorsement for make and model of aircraft
68
Which endorsements must a student pilot have before making a solo cross country flight?
Solo flight
Make and model
Cross country flight training
Endorsement for specific flight (approved planning)
69
Can another instructor approve the cross country flight planning of your student?
Yes, any instructor can approve cross country flight planning
70
What additional endorsements may be given by a CFI?
Flight review
Completion of a phase of an FAA pilot proficiency award program
IPC
PIC in a complex airplane
PIC in a high performance airplane
PIC in a pressurized airplane
PIC in a tailwheel airplane
PIC/solo operation when pilot does not hold appropriate category/class rating
Retesting after failure of knowledge/practical test
71
What is IACRA?
Integrated Airman Certification and/or Rating Application
Uses digital signatures
Eliminates paper forms
Allows temporary certificates to be printed
72
What instruments and equipment are required for VFR day flight?
```
Tachometer for each engine
Oil pressure gauge for each engine
Manifold pressure gauge for each engine
Altimeter
Temperature gauge for each engine (liquid cooled)
Oil temperature gauge for each engine
Fuel gauge
Floatation gear (if for hire and beyond gliding distance from shore)
Landing gear position indicator
Airspeed indicator
Anti-collision lights
Magnetic compass
ELT
Safety belts
```
73
What additional instruments and equipment are required at night?
```
Fuses (1 spare set, or 3 of each kind)
Landing light (if operated for hire)
Anti-collision light system
Position lights
Source of electricity
```
74
What are Minimum Equipment Lists (MELs)?
Make and model-specific, FAA-approved list of equipment which may be inoperative and still maintain an acceptable level of safety
75
What is the deferral provision of 14 CFR 91.213(d)?
Allows maintenance deferral of certain inoperative items when found during preflight or departure
If item is not required by type design, CFRs, or ADs
76
How is a MEL used?
MEL is a supplemental type certificate (STC), and becomes the authority to operate the aircraft in a condition other than originally type certified
77
What are special flight permits?
Authorization to operate an aircraft that does not meet current airworthiness standards
Issued for a specific flight, and may be subject to an FAA inspection
78
How do you obtain a special flight permit?
Flight Standards District Office (FSDO)
| Designated Airworthiness Inspector (DAR)
79
What is an airworthiness directive (AD)?
Notice to owners of unsafe conditions, and terms under which an aircraft may still be operated
80
What inspections are necessary for an aircraft to be legal for both VFR and IFR flight?
Annual inspection (12 months)
VOR check (30 days, for IFR only)
100 hour inspection (if used for instruction or hire)
Altimeter/pitot-static inspection (24 months, for IFR only)
Transponder (24 months)
ELT (12 months)
81
Can an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, be operated beyond 100 hours?
Yes, up to 10 hours for the purpose of transporting it to a facility to have the inspection performed
82
What are some common errors that can occur when using checklists?
Items missed because of distractions
Items performed incorrectly (hurrying through, not verifying)
Not using appropriate checklist for specific phase of flight
Too much time with head down
Checklist not readily accessible
Emergency checklist nor readily available
Memory items accomplished, but not confirmed with checklist
83
What is controlled flight into terrain (CFIT)?
Airworthy aircraft, under control of pilot, flown into terrain or water, often with little awareness by the pilot of the impending collision
84
What are the 3 basic types of CFIT accidents in general aviation?
VFR pilots flying into IMC
IFR operations in IMC
VFR operations at low altitudes
85
What are some ways to avoid CFIT accidents?
VFR pilots should not fly into/near IMC
Fly above published minimum safe altitudes
Verify altimeter settings
Maintain vertical and horizontal situational awareness
Use current charts and all available information
Use appropriate checklists
Know your aircraft and its equipment
86
Define LAHSO.
Land And Hold Short Operations
May be accepted by pilot if safety not compromised
Pilots expected to decline if below basic VFR
87
Where can available landing distance (ALD) information be found?
```
Chart supplement (AFD)
Controllers can provide upon request
```
88
How is wake turbulence created?
High pressure below the wing swirls around the wingtip for meet the low pressure above, creating spiral vortices
Product of lift being generated
Heavy, clean, slow aircraft create the strongest vortices
89
How can a pilot minimize the chances of flying through an aircrafts wake turbulence?
Avoid flying through another aircraft's flight path, or following within 1000'
When taking off behind a large aircraft, rotate prior to the point the other aircraft rotated
When landing behind a large aircraft, approach above the other aircrafts flight path, and touchdown at a point after the other aircraft
90
When is immediate notification to the NTSB required?
Flight control system malfunction
Crewmember unable to perform duties
Turbine engine failure
In-flight fire
In-flight collision
Property damage (other than aircraft) exceeding $25000.00
Overdue aircraft (believed to be in accident)
Complete loss of more than 50% of EFIS cockpit display
91
How soon after an accident or incident must a report be filed with the NTSB?
10 days
| After 7 days that an overdue aircraft is missing
92
Define aircraft accident.
Any person suffers serious injury or death
| Aircraft receives substantial damage
93
Define aircraft incident?
Any occurrence, other than an accident, which affects/could affect safety of operations
94
Define serious injury.
Requires more than 48 hours hospitalization
Bone fracture (other than fingers, toes, nose)
Severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage
Involves any internal organ
Second or third degree burns over more than 5% of the body
95
Define substantial damage.
Affects structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics
Requires major repair or replacement
