Technical Exam Questions Flashcards by Yvette Gulliver

On the OHP, what is signified by a blue light?

a) A part of a push-button is not used.
b) The switch is in the OFF position due to system malfunction.
c) Normal, but temporary, use of a system.
d) Crew awareness required.

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Regarding the lights on the overhead panel, which of the following statements is
true?

a) Amber means Immediate Action.
b) BLUE means crew awareness.
c) TWO DOTS means Abnormal Switch Position.
d) WHITE means Abnormal Switch Position.

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Where in the cockpit are the Secondary Circuit Breakers installed?

a) Left rear corner
b) Right rear corner
c) Overhead Panel
d) In Avionics Bay

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Select correct statement about OEBs?

a) OEB procedures appear on ECAM.
b) RED OEBs have a significant impact on the safe operation of the aircraft.
c) There are RED, AMBER and WHITE OEBs.
d) OEB means Operators Engine Bulletin.

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What is the Maximum Runway Slope?

a) 1%
b) 2%
c) 3%
d) 4%

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What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff?

a) 10 kt
b) 12 kt
c) 15 kt
d) 20 kt

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What is the maximum ground speed?

a) 180 kt
b) 195 kt
c) 150 kt
d) 200 kt

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What is the maximum service ceiling for the A320?

a) 41000 ft
b) 39800 ft
c) 30000 ft
d) 31000 ft

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What should you call in the event of LOSS OF BRAKING during landing roll?

a) “STOP”
b) “APPLY BRAKING”
c) “I HAVE CONTROL, BRAKES ON”
d) “LOSS OF BRAKING”

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What is the call out for EMERGENCY DESCENT?

a) “EMERGENCY DESCENT”
b) “START DESCENT”
c) “DESCEND NOW”
d) “I HAVE CONTROL, DESCEND”

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From which panel are the Water and Waste systems controlled?

a) Overhead Panel
b) MCDU
c) FAP (Forward Attendant Panel)
d) Aft Attendance Panel

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The red light on an entry/service door will flash if:

a) The if the door control handle is operated and the slide is still armed
b) The cabin is still pressurised and both engines are shut down with slides
disarmed
c) The slide is not armed in flight
d) The slide is still armed after both engines are shut down

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The escape slides at the overwing exits:

a) Are permanently armed
b) Are armed by a handle on each exit
c) Are armed by a lever in the hat-rack immediately above each overwing exit
d) Are armed by the escape lever

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What is the maximum Wind Speed for opening a cockpit window?

a) 150 kt
b) 200 kt
c) 230 kt
d) 180 kt

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What is the maximum Wind Speed for opening a cabin door?

a) 55 kt
b) 65 kt
c) 75 kt
d) 70 kt

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What is the altitude limitation if there is NO crack on cockpit side (inner ply) in
event of Windshield crack?

a) MAX FL 100
b) MAX FL 230
c) NO LIMITATION
d) MAX FL 250

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With the white strobe light switch at AUTO, the lights will operate when:

a) The main gear strut is not compressed
b) The first engine is started
c) Take-off thrust is set
d) The landing gear is retracted

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On the approach, with all the exterior lights selected ON, which lights will not
illuminate until the landing gear is extended?

a) Landing Lights
b) Nose (take off light only)
c) Nose (Takeoff and Taxi lights) and Turn Off
d) Wing Lights

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Which of the following cockpit lights are available when only the batteries are
powering the aircraft?

a) Reading lights and dome lights
b) Left-hand dome light (Capt side)
c) Both dome lights
d) Right-hand dome light (F/O side)

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Emergency lighting using the integral batteries will provide lighting for:

a) 30 min
b) 24 min
c) 10 min
d) 12 min

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Following the use of an oxygen mask, how is the boom mic re-established?

a) Automatically, by re-stowing the oxygen mask
b) By selecting BOOM on the associated ACP.
c) By closing the left door of the storage box and then pressing the TEST slide.
d) By pressing the OXY ON button.

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The oxygen supply solenoid valve is controlled by a CREW pb switch which is
situated :

a) On the overhead panel
b) Adjacent to the cylinder direct pressure gauge
c) On the maintenance panel
d) In the oxygen mask stowage

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The oxygen masks drop automatically if the cabin pressure altitude exceeds:

a) 8800 ft
b) 9950 ft
c) 11 000 ft
d) 14 000 ft

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Passenger oxygen is provided by:

a) High pressure cylinders and a distribution manifold
b) Low pressure cylinders and a distribution manifold
c) Individual cylinders
d) A chemical oxygen generator system

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Regarding the oxygen system, which of the following statements is true?

a) The OXY ON flag must be pressed in order to initiate oxygen flow.
b) If, on the SD, the oxygen pressure has a half-box (amber), maintenance must be
called.
c) Following the use of an oxygen mask, the left door of the storage box must be
closed and ‘RESET/TEST’ switch pressed in order to change back to boom mike.
d) Passenger oxygen has an endurance of 30 minutes.

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What is the difference between the cockpit crew oxygen and the passenger
oxygen system?

a) There is no difference: both are served by oxygen cylinders.
b) Crew is supplied from an oxygen cylinder; passengers are supplied by chemical
oxygen generators.
c) Both the crew and passengers are supplied with oxygen from chemical oxygen
generators.
d) The crew has an oxygen bottle for an emergency back-up supply.

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Above what cabin altitude will the crew oxygen masks automatically supply overpressure regardless of the Emergency Pressure selector position?

a) Cabin Altitude exceeds 30000 ft
b) Cabin Altitude exceeds 20000 ft
c) Cabin Altitude exceeds 14000 ft
d) Cabin Altitude exceeds 10000

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In column four of the MEL, what is indicated by a (O)?

a) A placard is required on the Flight Deck.
b) The crew must perform an operational procedure.
c) A maintenance procedure must be performed.
d) A circuit breaker must be locked open.

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In column four of the MEL, what is indicated by a (M)?

a) A placard is required on the Flight Deck.
b) A maintenance procedure must be performed.
c) The crew must perform an operational procedure.
d) A circuit breaker must be locked open.

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After a single DMC failure, how would a crew member recover the display units?

a) This function is automatic.
b) Once a DMC has failed, the information is irrecoverable.
c) Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3.
d) Select the ECAM/ND TSFR switch on the switching panel to the failed display.

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On the ECAM Control panel, what is the purpose of the RCL button?

a) Only to display suppressed warnings on the EWD and SD.
b) Only to display suppressed cautions on the EWD and SD.
c) Display suppressed warnings and cautions on the ECAM.
d) to recall STS page for the related warnings and/or cautions.

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Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a) Single chime is triggered for Level 1 warning
b) Engine Warning Display has priority over System Display.
c) Primary Flight Display has priority over Navigation Display.
d) SD displays associated system page when Advisory is triggered.

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If only one ECAM DU is operative, how is an advisory brought to the attention of
the crew?

a) A level one caution is triggered.
b) ” ADVISORY” is displayed on the PFD: the associated ECP button flashes.
c) ADV is displayed on the EWD: the associated ECP button flashes.
d) The associated SD replaces the EWD.

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Which of the following actions will automatically display which ECAM SD?

a) Selecting TOGA thrust always displays the ENG SD.
b) Selecting Flap 1 (during descent) displays the STS page, unless the STS page is
empty.
c) On take-off, when the weight is off the wheels, the CRZ page is displayed.
d) Only when reached at planned cruise altitude, the CRZ page will appeared.

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What is signified by IDLE (green) being displayed between the N1 (CFM) or EPR
(IAE) gauges?

a) Both engines have been at IDLE for more than two minutes.
b) Both engines are at IDLE.
c) Both Thrust Levers are at IDLE.
d) Engine 1 or 2 is at IDLE.

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What is the significance of “T/O INHIBIT” being displayed in the MEMO’s?

a) All synthetic voice messages are inhibited during takeoff.
b) All ECAM messages are suppressed until 80 kts on takeoff.
c) All warning and caution messages will be suppressed during T/O and climb to
1500 feet.
d) Most warning and caution messages will be suppressed during takeoff and climb
to 1500ft.

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What happens when an ADVISORY is triggered?

a) The STS SD is automatically displayed.
b) An ECAM message appears on the EWD.
c) The associated ECP pushbutton flashes.
d) The associated SD is automatically displayed.

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During the Take OFF roll, which page is displayed on the S.D?

a) ENG
b) FLT CTL
c) CRZ
d) WHEEL

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What indication follows a level 3 warning?

a) Only a voice warning plus a flashing Red Master Warning plus a Red message on
the Lower ECAM.
b) Continuous Repetitive Chime or specific sound or voice. Plus, Master Warning
flashing red plus red warning message.
c) Amber caution, no Aural, with a caution message on the E/WD.
d) Amber caution, single chime, Master Caution light amber steady Amber caution
message on the E/WD and automatic display of the relevant system page on the
SD.

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An excessive ILS deviation is indicated by:

a) Flashing ILS on the FCU
b) LOC and G/S scale indications flash amber
c) LOC and G/S scale indications flash continually
d) ECAM ILS Fault Master Caution

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What happens at 50% N2 for CFM (N2>43% for IAE) during an automatic start?

a) The Engine SD is replaced by the Doors SD.
b) The Pack Valve re-opens.
c) The igniter(s) goes OFF and the Start Valve closes.
d) Only the Start Valve closes.

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Regarding MAN ENG START, which of the following statements is true?

a) The MASTER SWITCH should be selected to ON at 20% N2.
b) In the event of no ignition (due to a fault), an AUTOCRANK of the engine will be
performed.
c) The start valve must be closed by use of the MAN START switch.
d) The start valve closes automatically at 50% N2.

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Which of the following correctly completes the statement: “During AUTO start, the
highlighted (gray) box round the N2 indication will disappear when……………?

a) the ignition has been cut off.
b) the EGT has stabilised.
c) the START VALVE has closed.
d) the START sequence has ended.

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Regarding FADEC, which of the following statements is true?

a) During ENG START, the FADEC will be powered when selecting the MODE SEL
to START.
b) It runs continuously with AC power on the aircraft.
c) t is powered by the main electrical system with N2 < 50%.
d) It has three channel redundancy.

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During a Manual Start, what does pressing the MAN START switch on overhead
panel do?

a) It opens the start valve only.
b) It opens the start valve, and must be selected off to close the start valve.
c) It opens the start valve and activates both igniters.
d) It opens the start valve and the fuel HP valve.

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On the Engine Panel, what is indicated by an illuminated FAULT light?

a) Failure of one loop of the ENG. Fire detection system.
b) Failure of both loops of the ENG. Fire detection system.
c) A MAN START has been aborted.
d) An AUTO START has been aborted.

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Regarding the Engine Crank, which of the following statement is true?

a) During Manual Engine Start, the FADEC will perform an autocrank.
b) Crank is only required for maintenance process.
c) A crank actions are not shown on ECAM for Manual ENG Start Fault
d) A crank actions are shown on ECAM for Manual ENG Start Fault

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How can the pilot carry out a manual Engine Crank procedure?

a) Turn the MODE SEL to CRANK, and use the associated MASTER SW on
pedestal to open the start valve.
b) Turn the MODE SEL to CRANK, and use the associated MAN START switch on
overhead panel to OPEN the START valve.
c) Turn the MODE SEL to CRANK and open the start valve on the MAN START
switch: the start valve will close automatically after 30 seconds.
d) Put the MAN START switch to ON, then put the MODE SEL to CRANK.

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Concerning the use of MAX REVERSE thrust:

a) MAX REV can be used at any time during landing.
b) Prohibited in flight
c) Minimum speed 100 kts.
d) MAX REV thrust is allowed in flight and normally cancelled by 70 kts

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Thrust reversers are actuated by:

a) Hydraulic actuators: green for engine 1, yellow for engine 2
b) Hydraulic actuator: green for both engines
c) Hydraulic actuators: blue for engine 1, yellow for engine 2
d) Pneumatic actuators for both engines

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(IAE) What is the maximum continuous oil temperature?

a) 150°C
b) 155°C
c) 140°C
d) 185°C

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(IAE) Maximum EGT during engine start is:

a) 635°C
b) 610°C
c) 725°C
d) 915°C

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The APU has been switched OFF, but the AVAIL light remains illuminated. Why
could this happen?

a) The APU bleed air was in use.
b) The APU always runs for 60 seconds after being switched OFF.
c) The APU is the only source of electrical power and is waiting for ENG GEN to
takeover.
d) The APU is waiting until the external power start powering aircraft.

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Which of the following APU limitations is correct?

a) APU start is not permitted at an altitude above 35,000 feet.
b) In ELEC-EMER CONFIG, APU start is limited to 25,000 feet or below.
c) Single pack operation is limited to 25,000 feet or below.
d) Two pack operation is limited to 20,000 feet or below.

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When the APU is running, the APU fuel pump:

a) Runs when inner wing tank pump pressure is not sufficient
b) Runs all the time
c) Runs only in flight
d) When the APU fuel pump is selected on

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What is the minimum fuel quantity for takeoff:

a) 1000 Kg
b) 1200 Kg
c) 1500 Kg
d) 2000 kg

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Why do the center tank pumps stop automatically when the slats are extended for takeoff:

a) To keep the center of gravity as low as possible.
b) During takeoff, the center tank fuel is pumped to the inner tank.
c) To ensure that the engines are fed from the wing tanks for takeoff and landing.
d) During takeoff, the center tank fuel is gravity fed only.

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Fuel transfer from the outer wing tank to the inner wing tank occurs when the
inner tank quantity decreases to:

a) 250 Kg
b) 450 Kg
c) 750 Kg
d) 5000 Kg.

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If both transfer valves on one side fail:

a) The outer tank quantity is eliminated from the ECAM fuel page
b) The outer tank quantity is boxed amber on the ECAM fuel page
c) The FOB indication will have an amber line drawn through the last two digits
d) The outer tank emergency electric transfer pump runs

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Regarding fuel recirculation, which of the following statements is true?

a) When Wing Tank is underfull CTR Tank pumps restart.
b) Recirculated fuel is sent directly to the inner Wing Tanks.
c) Recirculated fuel is recovered to the CTR Tank.
d) The Wing Tank pumps will feed until the engines have used 1300kg of fuel.

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When will a white SQUIB light illuminate on FIRE panel?

a) When the FIRE p/button is released out.
b) As soon as the FIRE signal has been triggered.
c) When the AGENT p/button is pushed.
d) When the AGENT bottle pressure is low.

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Regarding APU FIRE, which of the following statements is true?

a) The APU will always automatically shutdown.
b) In flight, the APU will shut down automatically.
c) On the ground, the APU will automatically shut down and the extinguisher bottle
will be discharged.
d) On the ground, the APU will automatically shut down. The ECAM procedure must
be carried out in order to discharge the fire bottle.

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To achieve a full test of the APU fire detection and extinguishing system on the
ground, which statement is true?

a) Requires the APU Master Switch to be ON.
b) Requires at least one battery to be switched ON.
c) Requires AC Power.
d) Will cause the APU to shut down automatically.

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Regarding illuminated lights on an ENG FIRE panel, which of the following
statements is true?

a) The DISCH light illuminates when the squib has been fire
b) All lights illuminate when the fire warning is activated.
c) The SQUIB light illuminates when the fire warning is activated.
d) The DISCH light illuminates when the bottle is depressurised

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The engine fire detectors are located:

a) On the fan and turbine
b) On the High Pressure Turbine outlet
c) In the core and the gearbox
d) On the pylon, fan and core

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The ENG1 (2) FIRE Light remains illuminated until:

a) The fire switch is pushed
b) The fire is extinguished
c) Either master warning light is pressed
d) Agent 2 is discharged

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On the HYDRAULICS system, what happens automatically after 1st engine start?

a) The BLUE electrical pump runs
b) The YELLOW electrical pump runs.
c) The PTU will be tested.
d) The YELLOW Fire Shut-off valve will open.

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Regarding the RAT, which of the following statements is true?

a) It deploys automatically in the event of the GREEN or YELLOW hydraulic system
failure.
b) It deploys automatically on failure of the BLUE hydraulic pump.
c) It powers the EMER generator via the GREEN hydraulic system.
d) Its normal operating pressure is 2500 psi.

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Which of the following systems have hydraulic fluid shut-off valves?

a) GREEN and BLUE
b) GREEN and YELLOW
c) BLUE and YELLOW
d) BLUE, GREEN and YELLOW

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Where does the hydraulic reservoir pressurisation air come from?

a) ENG 1 dedicated bleed only.
b) ENG 1 dedicated bleed or any other available pneumatic source.
c) From the main pneumatic system only.
d) ENG 2 dedicated bleed or any other available pneumatic source.

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When is the PTU inhibited?

a) During first engine start, provided the parking brake is ON.
b) Always, during first engine start.
c) From electrical power-up until after first engine start.
d) From electrical power-up until after second engine start

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Prior to engine start it is possible to pressurise the green hydraulic system by:

a) Use of the green engine pump
b) Use of the yellow engine pump and the PTU
c) Use of the yellow electric pump and the PTU
d) Use of the blue electric pump

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The PTU comes into action automatically when the differential pressure between
the GREEN and the YELLOW systems is greater than ……………PSI:

a) 300
b) 500
c) 750
d) 900

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Following TR1 failure, which TR supplies which bus?

a) ESS TR supplies the DC BUS 1.
b) TR 2 supplies the ESS TR.
c) ESS TR supplies the DC ESS BUS.
d) ESS TR supplies the AC ESS BUS.

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Regarding the IDG disconnect push-button switch, which of the following
statements is true?

a) Press it for no more than 3 seconds.
b) Press it for at least 3 seconds.
c) Press it until the disconnect command disappears from ECAM.
d) Press it once to disconnect the IDG and again to reconnect the IDG once the
fault condition has been cleared

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What would cause the RAT to auto-extend?

a) Loss of GEN 1 and GEN 2 when in flight.
b) Loss of GEN 1 and GEN 2 when at more than 100 kts IAS.
c) Loss of AC and DC ESS buses.
d) Loss of AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 when at more than 100 kts IAS.

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Regarding the batteries, which of the following statements is true?

a) Batteries must be charged if the voltage is more than 27.5 V
b) Battery charging time is approximately 10 minutes.
c) In flight, on battery power only, the battery life is 40 minutes.
d) The voltage check must be done with The BATT switches OFF.

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What happens when the Gen 1 line P/B is selected to off?

a) AC Bus 1 and 2 are not powered and emergency generator is activated
b) AC Bus 1 is powered by Gen 2 because Gen 1 is deactivated
c) AC Bus 1 is powered by Gen 2 because Gen 1 line contactor is open
d) AC Bus 1 is not powered because the Gen 1 line contactor is opened

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How many times can you reset a circuit breaker:

a) Once.
b) Once, if authorized by the procedure.
c) Twice.
d) Twice, if authorized by the procedure.

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If AC bus 1 fails, the AC ESS bus is supplied by the:

a) Emergency Gen.
b) RAT
c) Static Inverter
d) AC bus 2

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Which of the following would cause all ten spoilers to deploy together?

a) A roll input in flight.
b) A roll input on the ground.
c) A rejected take-off (at >72 kts).
d) Manual use of speedbrakes in flight.

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Which protections are available in NORMAL LAW?

a) Pitch Attitude Protection, Load Factor Protection, High Speed Protection, High
Angle of attack Protection, Bank Angle Protection
b) Pitch Attitude Protection, Load Factor Protection, High Speed Stability, Low
Speed Stability, Bank Angle Protection
c) Pitch Attitude Protection, Load Factor Protection, High Speed Protection, Stall
Protection only
d) Load Factor Protection, High Speed Stability, Low Speed Stability

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In ALTERNATE LAW, what is the lowest speed achievable?

a) Alpha Prot.
b) Alpha Max.
c) VSW
d) Less than VSW

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Which of the following can be overridden by the sidestick?

a) High speed protection.
b) Alpha floor.
c) Alpha protection.
d) Low speed stability.

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The aircraft is at 5000 feet, 250kts, straight and level, autopilot off, hands and feet
off: if TOGA power is applied, at what speed will the aircraft eventually stabilise?

a) Vmo - 10
b) Vmo +6
c) Vmo
d) Vmo +16

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What causes reversion to Mechanical Back-up: how is the aircraft now flown?

a) Loss of all hydraulics: use the THS and RUDDER.
b) Loss of all ELAC’s and SEC’s: Use the THS and RUDDER
c) Loss of all FAC’s and SEC’s: use the ELEVATORS and RUDDER
d) Loss of all ELAC’s and FAC’s: use the THS and RUDDER

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Following selection of FLAP 1, which of the following statements is true?

a) When decelerating for the approach, CONFIG 1 + F will be the result.
b) During the acceleration, following a go-around, CONFIG 1 + F will be the result.
c) During acceleration, following a takeoff, CONFIG 1 will be the result.
d) The result is always CONFIG 1 + F in flight.

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In flight, with Config 1 selected, what is represented by amber = on the speed strip?

a) The maximum speed for selecting FLAP 2.
b) The maximum permitted speed with FLAP 1.
c) The minimum permitted speed with FLAP 1.
d) The minimum speed for selecting FLAP 0.

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The aircraft has achieved, and is maintaining, a constant high alpha, which has caused speedbrake auto-retraction: how can the speedbrakes be extended
again?

a) By reducing the alpha.
b) By reducing the alpha, retracting the speedbrakes lever, waiting 10 seconds, then extending the lever.
c) By reducing the alpha, retracting the speedbrakes lever, then immediately
extending it again.
d) By keeping high alpha, retracting the speedbrake lever, waiting 10 seconds, then extending the lever.

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Regarding maximum bank angles, which of the following statements is true?

a) At normal speeds, the maximum is 67º (full sidestick deflection) and 25º (sidestick neutral).
b) The maximum bank angle in ALTERNATE LAW is 45º.
c) In HighSpeed Protection, the maximum is 40º (full sidestick deflection) and 0º (sidestick neutral).
d) In ALPHA PROT, the maximum bank angle is 33º

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What is signified by MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY on the FMA?

a) Both FAC’s have failed
b) The aircraft is in DIRECT LAW.
c) The aircraft is in Mechanical Back-Up.
d) Loss of all hydraulic power.

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A-LOCK (blue) is pulsing under the Flap/Slat indicator on the EWD: what does this
signify?

a) Flaps and Slats locked, in any position, due to high alpha.
b) Flaps will not retract from 1 to 0 due to high alpha: to retract them reduce the
alpha.
c) Slats will not retract from 1 to 0 due to high alpha: to retract them, reduce the
alpha.
d) Slats will not retract from 1 to 0 due to high alpha: to retract them recycle the flap
lever.

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In NORMAL LAW, what occurs during the approach?

a) At 50 feet the stabiliser freezes: at 30 feet, a nose down order is introduce
b) At 30 feet, a nose up order is introduced in order to facilitate the flare.
c) When the landing gear is lowered, the aircraft goes into Direct Law.
d) When the landing gear is lowered, the roll (only) goes into Direct Law.

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Regarding Wing Tip Brakes, which of the following statements is true?

a) They can be reset in flight.
b) They operate only for asymmetric travel.
c) Flaps and Slats have separate systems.
d) They are held on by electrical power.

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Roll control is achieved using which flight control surfaces?

a) 2 ailerons and 6 spoilers
b) 2 ailerons only
c) 2 ailerons and 8 spoilers
d) 2 ailerons and 4 spoilers

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The side stick priority red arrow will illuminate:

a) In front of the pilot losing authority
b) In front of the pilot gaining authority
c) Only after the takeover pb has been pressed for 40 secs
d) In front of both pilots

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The flight control surfaces are all:

a) Electrically activated and hydraulically controlled
b) Mechanically controlled
c) Hydraulically actuated and electrically controlled
d) Hydraulically actuated, with a mechanical back-up

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Which protection is available in Alternate Law?

a) Load Factor Protection
b) Load Factor Protection available only with the Alternate Law with protections
c) No protection available in Alternate Law
d) Angle of Attack Protection

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What happens when SFCC 1 fails?

a) Nothing as SFCC 2 takes over
b) Flaps and slats operate at half speed
c) Flaps system lost
d) Slats system lost

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In alternate law, the change to direct law occurs when:

a) Landing gear down or at the selection of flaps 2
b) Landing gear down
c) Passing 50 ft
d) Three or more than three system failures

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Regarding the LANDING GEAR, which of the following statements is true?

a) Rudder nosewheel steering is never inhibited on the ground.
b) After GRAVITY EXTENSION, the gear doors will remain open.
c) With ANTISKID inop., the pedal brakes must be modulated to keep the pressure
to <1000 psi.
d) On landing, the autobrake system is activated by weight on wheels.

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On the WHEELS SD, what is indicated if a wheel identification number has vertical
amber lines on each side of it?

a) A brake temperature of >300ºC.
b) A brake temperature between 100ºC and 300ºC.
c) Loss of autobrake to that wheel.
d) An antiskid brake released fault.

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At one hundred knots on take-off, what is the situation regarding Nose Wheel Steering?

a) No Nosewheel steering is available.
b) Handwheel steering and rudder steering are both available.
c) Handwheel steering is available: rudder steering is not available.
d) Rudder steering is available: handwheel steering is not available.

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Regarding the AUTOBRAKE system, which of the following statements is true?

a) MAX autobrake provides a pre-programmed deceleration rate.
b) It is available in NORMAL and ALTERNATE braking.
c) If LO is selected, the system will be activated four seconds after ground spoiler
deployment.
d) If MED is selected, the system will be triggered two seconds after touchdown.

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What causes the DECEL light to illuminate?

a) Activation of the anti-skid system.
b) Application of brake pressure to all wheels.
c) Achievement of 80% of the selected deceleration rate.
d) Activation of the anti-skid and autobrake systems.

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What is the sequence of events when Gravity Extension of the gear is performed?

a) Safety valve closes, gear unlocks – thereby forcing the doors open.
b) Safety valve closes, then the doors unlock, then the gear unlocks.
c) Doors unlock, gear unlocks, doors close when all gear legs locked down.
d) Doors unlock, gear unlocks – when all gear locked down, the safety valve closes.

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The Landing Gear Indicator Panel (on the Center Instrument Panel) is:

a) Connected to the LGCIU currently controlling the landing gear operation.
b) Connected to both LGCIU’s
c) Connected to LGCIU1
d) Independent to both LGCIU1 and LGCIU2

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Which hydraulic power system operates the alternate braking system?

a) Yellow system only
b) Green system
c) Yellow system and Yellow hydraulic accumulator
d) Hydraulic accumulator only

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During landing, you realise the aircraft is not slowing down…what are the correct initial actions?

a) Reverse MAX: Brake pedals – press.
b) Parking brake in short and successive application.
c) Reverse MAX: brake pedals release: A/SKID and N/W STRG OFF.
d) Reverse MAX: brake pedals release: A/SKID and N/W STRG OFF then ON.

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What are the combined correct initial actions of the crew in the event of a rejected Take Off at 100kts?

a) Idle thrust: when ground spoilers have deployed, SELECT REVERSE MAX.
b) Call “STOP”: REVERSE MAX: when ground spoilers have deployed, apply full pedal braking.
c) Call “STOP”: REVERSE MAX: apply full pedal braking.
d) Call “STOP”: REVERSE – MAX: monitor braking

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RMP 1 is selected to VHF 1: RMP 2 is selected to VHF 3: RMP 3 is selected to VHF 3: Which SEL lights are illuminated?

a) RMP 1 and RMP 2.
b) RMP 2 and RMP 3.
c) RMP 1 and RMP 3.
d) RMP 2 only

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When should the AUDIO SWITCHING switch be moved from the NORM position?

a) After a failure of the Capt’s or F/O’s loudspeaker.
b) After a failure of RMP 1 and RMP 2
c) After a failure of ACP1 or ACP2.
d) After a failure of any RMP

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Which of the following correctly completes the statement; “An EMERGENCY CALL, from the cabin to the flight deck, will, on the flight deck,…..”

a) trigger three buzzer sounds, and illuminate the CALL and ON lights.
b) trigger a continuous buzzer sound, and illuminate the ON light.
c) trigger three buzzer sounds and illuminate a RESET button on each ACP.
d) trigger three buzzer sounds, and illuminate the CALL light only.

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In case of dual FMGC failure, selection of radio navigation frequencies is possible with:

a) RMP 1 only
b) RMP 1 and 2 only
c) RMP 1, 2 and 3
d) RMP 2 only

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Which air supplies can be used simultaneously?

a) Engines and APU.
b) Engines, APU and Ground Supply (HP).
c) Both engines.
d) APU and Ground Supply (HP).

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What normally provides bleed leak detection for the APU bleed system?

a) BMC 1
b) BMC 2
c) BMC 1 and 2
d) APU ECB

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Which equipment controls the bleed output temperature to 200ºC?

a) The BLEED valve.
b) The BMC’s.
c) The HP valve.
d) A FAN AIR VALVE and a PRECOOLER.

Which of the following correctly completes the statement; “Switching the APU Air Bleed on will cause……”

a) the crossbleed valve to open, and the pack flow to go to NORM.
b) the crossbleed valve to close, and the pack flow to go to HI.
c) the crossbleed valve to open and the ENG bleed valves to close.
d) the crossbleed valve to close and the ENG bleed valves to close.

Which of the following statements is true if One Bleed is OFF?

a) Wing Anti-Ice is permitted on one wing at a time.
b) Wing Anti-Ice is not permitted.
c) With both packs off wing Anti-Ice is permitted.
d) With one pack off wing Anti-Ice is permitted.

What precautions should you be taking if a LP ground air unit is connected?

a) Do not use conditioned air simultaneously with PACKs
b) Do not use APU bleed air
c) Only single PACK operation is permitted
d) Do not use ENG bleed air

If both lanes of ACSC 1 have failed ——

a) PACK 2 is lost and PACK 1 goes to high flow.
b) PACK 1 is lost whilst there is no change in PACK flow for PACK 2.
c) All Trim Air Valves are inoperative.
d) ACSC 2 will take over, resulting in normal operation.

When the Ram Air switch is selected to ON, which of the following statements is true regarding the Ram Air Valve?

a) It will open only when pressure differential is less than 1.0 psi.
b) It directs ambient air to the PACKS.
c) It will open only when pressure differential is more than 1.0 psi.
d) It should not be opened above 10,000 ft cabin altitude.

In the event of a sudden depressurisation at FL300, due to structural failure, what will the correct initial actions be?

a) Emer Descent – Initiate, Both PACKS - High
b) Emer Descent – Initiate, if A/THR is off THR LEVERS - IDLE
c) Emer Descent – Initiate, AP and A/THR - OFF
d) AP/FD - OFF, THR lever - IDLE, EMER Descent - Initiate

What happens if the APU is supplying both PACK’s?

a) Both PACK’s go to LO flow irrespective of the selected rate.
b) Both PACK’s go to NORM flow irrespective of the selected rate.
c) Both PACK’s go to HI flow irrespective of the selected rate.
d) PACK 1 goes to LO flow and PACK 2 goes to HI flow irrespective of the selected
rate.

Which components modulate the Trim Air Valves?

a) ACSC 1 and 2.
b) ACSC 1 only.
c) ACSC 2 only.
d) BMC 1 and 2

In regard to the RAM AIR inlet flaps, they are:

a) Closed during T/O and open on landing below 70 kts
b) Open during T/O and landing below 70 kts
c) Open during T/O and closed below 70 kts on landing
d) Closed at all times.

What is the Normal Max Cabin altitude?

a) 8000 ft
b) 9550 ft +/- 350 ft
c) 14000 ft
d) 800 ft

What is the Max negative differential pressure for the cabin:

a) 0 PSI
b) 1 PSI
c) 2 PSI
d) 8.6 PSI

What happens to the pack flow control valves during engine start (Eng Mode selector to ING/START):

a) They must be selected off.
b) They must be selected off on cold days only.
c) They must be selected off on hot days only.
d) They automatically close.

When will the LDG ELEV Fault trigger?

a) When the LDG ELEV selector is set to AUTO and the landing field elevation of
the FMGS is not available.
b) When the LDG ELEV selector is set to AUTO and the landing field elevation of
the CPC is not available.
c) When the LDG ELEV selector is not at AUTO and the landing field elevation of
the FMGS is not available.
d) When the LDG ELEV selector is not at AUTO and the landing field elevation of
the CPC is not available.

Cabin pressurisation begins:

a) At first engine start
b) With application of take-off power
c) Lift off from the runway
d) When thrust levers are selected to the CLB detent

What happens when the BLOWER is selected to OVERRIDE?

a) Blower Fan keeps running + Close config + air conditioning air added.
b) Blower Fan keeps running + open config
c) Blower Fan stops + Close config + air conditioning air added
d) Blower Fan stops + no config change

What happens when the Extract is selected to OVERRIDE?

a) Extract Fan keeps running + Close config + air conditioning air added
b) Extract Fan keeps running + open config
c) Extract Fan stops + Close config + air conditioning air added
d) Extract Fan stops + no config change

What happens when the Extract and Blower is selected to OVERRIDE?

a) Extract and Blower Fan keeps running + Intermediate config + air conditioning air
added
b) Extract and Blower Fan keeps running + Open config + air conditioning air added
c) Extract Fan keeps running + Blower Fan Stops + Intermediate config + air
conditioning air added
d) Extract Fan Stops + Blower Fan keeps running + Intermediate config + air
conditioning air added

Whilst in flight, at HIGH SKIN AIR temperature. In which configuration will the AVIONICS VENT be in?

a) OPEN
b) INTERMEDIATE
c) CLOSED
d) SMOKE

What happens if WING ANTI-ICE is selected ON when taxying for take-off?

a) The Wing anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only if ENG anti-ice is ON.
b) The Wing anti-ice valves remain closed since aircraft is on Ground.
c) The Wing anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only and on lift off, the valves will
re-open.
d) The Wing anti-ice valves remain OPEN and remain OPEN until the switch is set
to OFF.

If a WING or ENG anti-ice valve loses electrical power, which of the following statements is true?

a) The valves will remain in their present position.
b) WING and ENG valves CLOSE
c) WING and ENG valves OPEN
d) WING valves CLOSE: ENG valves OPEN

Following landing, in heavy rain, what is (are) the first action(s) to protect the avionics vent. system from water entry?

a) Blower valve to OVRD.
b) EXTRACT valve to OVRD.
c) EXTRACT and Blower valves to OVR
d) Ram Air Valve OPEN.

The rain repellent system is inhibited :

a) On the ground below 70 kts
b) During Climb Phase
c) When the wipers are working
d) A/c on the ground and both engines shutdown

What constitutes “icing conditions”?

a) ENGINE – IN FLIGHT: TAT between +10ºC and - 30ºC in all flight phases.
b) ENGINE – ON GROUND: OAT ≤10ºC and FOG (visibility less than 1 mile).
c) WING – IN FLIGHT: Visual evidence of ice accumulation on the wings.
d) WING – ON GROUND: OAT ≥10ºC, and contaminated taxiway or runway. (WAI
must be selected ON after engine start).

Which information is used in order to produce the EGPWS display?

a) An FMGS database and FM1 position.
b) An FMGS database and FM2 position.
c) Weather radar (map mode) and baro altitude.
d) Weather radar (map mode) and radio altitude.

What does the Terrain Clearance Floor use in order to generate a “TOO LOW TERRAIN” message?

a) GPWS information.
b) Terrain Awareness and Display information.
c) A database dedicated to a particular runway.
d) A database dedicated to a particular airfield.

If ILS 2 receiver fails, where can ILS 1 displays be seen?

a) PFD 2 and ND 2
b) PFD 1 and ND 2
c) PFD 1 and ND 1
d) PFD 2 and ND 1

What could be the significance of an ALIGN light flashing on ADIRS panel?

a) It may be possible to recover Altitude and Heading.
b) The alignment has been completed.
c) The system is doing a battery power test.
d) The P-POS has not been entered within 10 mins of selecting NAV

What does a triple click mean during an ILS approach?

a) A level 3 warning to the crew
b) A primary failure is occurring, prepare for a Go-Around
c) Flaps are set at 3 and the landing gear is not down
d) Landing capability down grading warning

If the TERRAIN ON ND pushbutton is switched OFF what happens if a Terrain awareness warning or caution is generated?

a) The system switches on automatically: the terrain display sweeps from the centre
outwards.
b) The system switches on automatically: the terrain display sweeps anti-clockwise.
c) The TERR ON ND “ON” light flashes.
d) The Terrain Awareness Display pulses on the N.D.

What are the correct initial actions following a “WINDSHEAR” warning after V1 during take-off?

a) Perform Reject Take-off.
b) TOGA thrust- FDs OFF: Rotate at VR.
c) TOGA thrust: Reaching VR - Rotate : SRS – follow.
d) FLEX thrust: Reaching VR - Rotate : SRS – follow.

Following a GPWS “TOO LOW GEAR” warning, what are the correct initial actions?

a) Continue Landing.
b) Perform a go-around
c) Landing Gear down.
d) Speed check and Flap Full

What is the correct immediate pitch attitude and thrust guidance in the event of unreliable IAS indications above THRUST RED ALT at FL 80?

a) 10º / CLB
b) 5º / CLB
c) 15º / CLB
d) 10º / TOGA

What are the correct initial actions on receipt of a TCAS “CLIMB” message?

a) A/P ON: ATHR OFF: V/S to green area on PF
b) A/P OFF: ATHR OFF: V/S to green area on PFD.
c) A/P OFF: Both FD’s OFF: V/S to 1500ft/min – if still in red area, increase to
2500ft/min.
d) A/P OFF: Both FD’s OFF: V/S to green area on PFD.

What are immediate actions for STALL RECOVERY?

a) TOGA : NOSE DOWN : WINGS LEVEL
b) TOGA : MAINTAIN LEVEL FLIGHT WITH WINGS LEVEL
c) NOSE DOWN : WINGS LEVEL
d) TOGA : NOSE UP : BANK 450

In the event of STALL WARNING AT LIFT-OFF, what will the correct initial actions be?

a) FDs - OFF : TOGA : PITCH ATTITUDE - 150
b) FELX : PITCH ATTITUDE - 12.50 : WINGS LEVEL
c) TOGA : PITCH ATTITUDE - 12.50 : WINGS LEVEL
d) TOGA : PITCH ATTITUDE - 150 : WINGS LEVEL

On which MCDU page, can aircraft position accuracy be checked?

a) PROG
b) PERF
c) RAD NAV
d) DATA

Regarding the ISIS, which of the following statements is true?

a) It receives its information from ADIRU 1 or 3.
b) It receives its information from ADIRU 3 only.
c) The ILS localiser can be used for a back-course approach.
d) The ATT RESET function can be used at any time.

If ADIRU 2 fails, the correct action is:

a) Set ATT HDG and Air Data Selectors to Capt 3
b) Set ATT HDG and Air Data Selectors to F/O 3
c) Set ATT HDG selectors to Capt 3, Air Data Selector to F/O 3
d) Set ATT HDG selectors to F/O 3, Air Data Selector to Capt 3

Selection of the NAV key(on RMP) engages the radio navigation back up mode. This:

a) Removes the NAVAIDS tuning capability from that FMGC
b) Isolates the radio communication system.
c) Removes the NAVAIDS tuning capability from both FMGCs
d) Allows extra NAVAIDS to be tuned and displayed.

What is meant by CHECK ATT (amber) on the PFD’s?

a) If it appears on only one PFD, it indicates an impending failure of the associated
system.
b) If it appears on the CAPT’s PFD only, select the IR SWITCHING switch to CAPT
ON 3.
c) Both PFD’s show different attitudes: check ISIS in order to identify failed system.
d) If it appears on both PFD’s, select the IR SWITCHING switch to CAPT (or F/O)
then ignore the other PFD.

In “ELEC-EMER CONFIG”, which navaids can be tuned?

a) VOR 1, ADF 1 and both ILS’s.
b) VOR 1, ADF 1 and ILS 1.
c) VOR 1 & 2 and both ILS’s.
d) VOR 1 & 2, ADF 1 & 2, ILS 1 & 2

How long does a normal IRS Alignment take?

a) 10 min
b) 16 min
c) 7 min
d) 30 sec

When does the amber ON BAT light on the ADIRS panel illuminate?

a) When the aircraft battery supplies at least one IRS.
b) Only when all IRS’s are supplied by the battery
c) When aircraft battery voltage is below the sufficient voltage required to supply IRS
d) It illuminates during fast alignment

In which modes will the Yaw bar be displayed on PFD (LOC signal available for the runway)?

a) RWY and NAV mode
b) RWY and ROLL OUT mode
c) LAND mode
d) RWY TRK mode

If both FAC’s fail, what happens to the rudder limiter?

a) The Rudder Limiter is locked at its present deflection limit and assumes the low
speed deflection limit when flap 1 is selected.
b) The Rudder Travel Limiter immediately selects the low speed deflection limit.
c) Maximum high speed rudder deflection can be obtained after slat extension.
d) There will be no effect no effect on rudder limiter as ELAC 2 will take over the
function.

With the F.D.s. and A/P’s switched OFF, the ATHR is switched on: which of the following statements is correct?

a) The airspeed bug is magenta, and is set by the FMGS.
b) The airspeed bug is blue and defaults to the current airspeed.
c) The airspeed bug is magenta, and defaults to the current airspeed.
d) The airspeed bug is blue, and defaults to green dot speed.

During the managed descent phase and if crew pulls HDG selector knob, the FMA changes from THR IDLE / DES / NAV to…….

a) SPEED / V/S / HDG.
b) THR IDLE / V/S / HDG.
c) THR IDLE / OP DES / HDG.
d) SPEED / OP DES / NAV

On the FMA in the fifth column:

a) A/THR in blue indicates A/THR is active.
b) A/THR in white indicates A/THR is active.
c) 1FD1 indicates FD 2 is switched OFF.
d) 1FD- indicates FD 2 has failed.

At high altitudes if the aircraft overfly the optimum top of descent point, what is annunciated on the FMA?

a) MACH/DESC (on the top line).
b) DESCEND NOW (on the third line).
c) MORE DRAG (on the third line).
d) DECELERATE (on the third line).

LAND Mode will disengage when?

a) V/S knob is pushed.
b) ALT knob is pushed or pulled.
c) HDG knob is pushed.
d) Go-around is performed.

SRS on a G/A will give a speed target of?

a) The lower of Vapp or current speed at engagement.
b) The higher of Vapp or speed at engagement.
c) “F” speed.
d) An undefined speed that depends on weight and angle of attack

In THR CLB / CLB / NAV mode, what will be FMA if HDG mode is selected?

a) THR CLB / OP CLB / HDG
b) THR CLB / V/S / HDG
c) SPEED / OP CLB / HDG
d) SPEED / V/S / HDG

The Capt’s flight Director is manually disengaged during the flight?

a) The FD bars disappears from Captains PFD, with the “2FD2” symbol displayed
b) FD bars disappear from the Captains PFD and the symbol “-FD2” is displayed
c) An ECAM caution is generated, with “-FD2” on FMA
d) The FD bars remain on both PFDs but the symbol “2FD2” is displayed

In a climbing turn, the FD’s and A/P are switched OFF, then the A/P is selected ON again. What do the FMA’s indicate?

a) No FMA since the FDs are not ON
b) SPD / ALT / HDG
c) THR CLB / OP CLB / HDG or THR CLB / FPA /TRK
d) SPEED / V/S / HDG or SPEED / FPA / TRK

When Gen 1 & Gen 2 fails, the emergency generator supplies the aircraft. Which of the following system is available when EMER GEN powering aircraft?

a) FMGC 1
b) FMGC 2
c) BOTH FMGC
d) NO FMGC is available

When both FDs are ON and A/THR engaged, which of the following FMGC’s is master?

a) FMGC 1
b) FMGC 2
c) Both FMGCs
d) No FMGC is master, as no auto pilot is active.

When is the Autopilot first available for use?

a) 50 ft above
b) 100 ft above
c) Just after lift-off
d) At rotate

At what radio altitude is “RETARD” heard:

a) at 10 ft during Autoland
b) at 20 ft during Autoland
c) at 10 ft during Manual Landing
d) at 20 ft during Autoland and Manual Landing

What do the FMA’s read if a lower altitude is selected, and the ALT knob on the FCU is Pulled?

a) DES
b) V/S
c) OP DES
d) EXP DES

Select the correct statement about Cost Index?

a) Cost Index = 0 corresponds to minimum fuel consumption (Max Range)
b) Cost Index = 999 corresponds to minimum fuel consumption (Max Range)
c) Cost Index is the ratio of fuel cost to aircraft efficiency
d) The Cost Index is used to calculate Green Dot speed.

On which MCDU page would you insert the Trip Wind?

a) Init A
b) Init B
c) Perf
d) Prog

With the aircraft in flight, A/THR not engaged, thrust levers on CLB gate, an alpha floor is detected:

a) A/THR does not get engaged because the engines are already in CLB.
b) A/THR automatically engages, but is not active.
c) A/THR automatically engages and controls the engines with CLB.
d) A/THR automatically engages and controls the engine with TO/GA.

What mode will the Auto Pilot revert to, if the altitude is changed from FL300 to FL200 when ALT*is active?

a) V/S
b) DES
c) OP DES
d) ALT

Regarding the lights on the overhead panel, which of the following statements is true?

a)Amber means Immediate Action.
b)BLUE means crew awareness.
c)TWO DOTS means Abnormal Switch Position.
d)WHITE means Abnormal Switch Position.

Select correct statement about OEBs?

a)OEB procedures appear on ECAM.
b)RED OEBs have a significant impact on the safe operation of the aircraft.
c)There are RED, AMBER and WHITE OEBs.
d)OEB means Operators Engine Bulletin.

PACK 1 + 2 is selected OFF unless supplied by APU Bleed while carrying out Overweight Landing procedure, Why?

a)PACK uses increase ENG EGT.
b)Avoid FOD, during landing.
c)It allows outflow valve to open to create more drag.
d)It increases the maximum thrust available in the case of a go-around.

If both lanes of ACSC 1 have failed ——

a)PACK 2 is lost and PACK 1 goes to high flow.
b)PACK 1 is lost whilst there is no change in PACK flow for PACK 2.
c)All Trim Air Valves are inoperative.
d)ACSC 2 will take over, resulting in normal operation.

Regarding the RAM AIR inlet flaps, they are:

a)Closed during T/O and open on landing below 70 kts
b)Open during T/O and landing below 70 kts
c)Open during T/O and closed below 70 kts on landing
d)Closed at all times

During the cruise phase at FL 300, a gradual depressurisation would lead to which following indications:

a)An ECAM advisory as cabin altitude goes above 8800ft, followed by a level 2ECAM caution ‘EXCESS CAB ALT’ as cabin altitude goes above 9550 ft.
b)An ECAM advisory as cabin altitude goes above 8800ft, followed by a level 3ECAM warning ‘EXCESS CAB ALT’ as cabin altitude goes above 9550 ft.
c)An ECAM level 2 caution as cabin altitude goes above 8800ft, followed by a level3 ECAM caution ‘EXCESS CAB ALT’ as cabin altitude goes above 9550 ft.
d)An ECAM advisory as cabin altitude goes above 8000ft, followed by a level 2ECAM caution ‘EXCESS CAB ALT’ as cabin altitude goes above 9550 ft.

In the event of air turn back just after takeoff, what will be automatic pressurisation mode?

a)Cabin pressure is set back to the takeoff altitude +0.1 PSI
b)Cabin pressure starts depressurizing at 500 ft/min rate
c)Cabin pressure starts depressurizing at 300 ft/min rate
d)Cabin rate of descent is maintained reference to the a/c’s actual rate of climb

To avoid the activation of an altitude-sensitive bomb –

a)Carryout Emergency descent procedure as soon as bomb has been discovered.
b)Carryout Rapid descent
c)The cabin altitude should not exceed the value at which the bomb has been discovered.
d)The aircraft flight level should not change at which the bomb has been discovered

What action is required if Avionics Ventilation inlet valve not fully closed in flight-

a) No action required, just crew awareness
b)Blower sw to OVRD
c)Extract sw to OVRD
d)Max flight level is 100 or MEA-MORA

The battery is ventilated and cooled by :

a)Ambient venturi air.
a)Re-circulated cabin air then vented overboard.
b)Electrical fan air.
c)IP bleed.

Cost Index = 999 corresponds to

a)Minimum fuel consumption (max range)
b)Minimum time.
c)Best ratio between the flight time cost and the fuel cost.
d)LRC (Long Range Cruise).

During approach, ATC has cleared you to intercept the LOC. After entering necessary data on MCDU you have pressed LOC pb on FCU. When are you able to engage both APs?

a)Only after the APPR pb is selected on FCU.
b)Only after LOC is captured
c)After LOC and G/S needs to be captured
d)Both AP can be engaged after LOC pb on FCU is selected.

Select the INCORRECT statement for annunciators on the MCDU-

a) FAIL amber light indicates onside FMGC has failed.
b)IND amber light indicates the onside FM detects an independent mode of operation.
c)MCDU MENU white light indicates that the crew should call up a peripheral linked to the MCDU (ACARS, ATSU & CFDS)
d)RDY Green light indicates MCDU has passed its power up test after it was tuned off using its DIM key.

During ELEC EMER CONFIG situation how can Capt. regain FMGC 1 which is lost temporarily?

a)Can be regained by FMGC 1 CB reset.
b)Can be regained by FMGC 1 & 2 CB reset.
c)Can be regained by Capt. passing through the MCDU MENU page.
d)Can be regained by Capt performing MCDU 1 reset using BRT & DIM KEYS on MCDU 1.

At what point does the CVR stops automatically (CVR jack is not used)?

a)5 minutes after 1st engine shutdown.
b)30 minutes after the last engine shutdown.
c)5 minutes after the last engine shutdown.
d)After 2 hrs of recording.

In the event of COM RMP 1+2 FAULT, which of the following is available –

a)CAPT+F/O boomset only
b)L+R speaker
c)CAPT handmic
d)F/O handmic

Which of the following correctly completes the statement; “An EMERGENCY CALL, from the cabin to the flight deck, will, on the flight deck,…..”

a)trigger three buzzer sounds, and illuminate the CALL and ON lights.
b)trigger a continuous buzzer sound, and illuminate the ON light.
c)trigger three buzzer sounds and illuminate a RESET button on each ACP.
d)trigger three buzzer sounds, and illuminate the CALL light only.

When should the AUDIO SWITCHING switch be moved from the NORM position?

a)After a failure of the Capt’s or F/O’s loudspeaker.
b)After a failure of RMP 1 and RMP 2
c)After a failure of ACP1 or ACP2.
d)After a failure of any RMP.

The batteries are connected to the Hot Buses……

a)They are permanently connected to the two HOT buses.
b)After selecting BAT 1 and/or BAT 2 pb sw to AUTO.
c)Only when BAT voltage is not low.
d)After the main power supply (GEN 1 or 2 or APU) is available.

Select INCORRECT statement for MAINT BUS SW:-

a)This switch allows personnel to energize electrical circuits for ground servicing without energizing the entire aircraft electrical system.
b)When selected ON: The switch latches magnetically if external power is connected and normal (AVAIL light on).
c)When selected ON: The switch trips when the external source is removed.
d)When selected OFF: The AC and DC GND/FLT buses are disconnected from ACBUS 2 and DC BUS 2.

If Battery voltage below 26.5 V (battery charge), charging cycle starts by the batteries connecting to the DC BAT BUS. The charging cycle ends when battery charge current goes below 4 Amp…..

a)After a time delay of 30 mins, on ground.
b)After a time delay of 10 mins, on ground.
c)After a time delay of 30 mins, in flight.
d)Immediately, in flight.

Which bus bars are available, if nothing but batteries are supplying power to the aircraft and a/c speed is below 50kts on ground:

a)HOT BUS 1 & 2, DC BAT BUS, DC ESS BUS & AC STAT INV
b)HOT BUS 1 & 2, DC BAT BUS & DC ESS BUS
c)HOT BUS 1 & 2, DC BAT BUS, DC ESS BUS & AC ESS BUS
d)HOT BUS 1 & 2, DC BAT BUS, DC ESS BUS & DC ESS SHED

The RAT is capable of supplying EMER GEN (except during flare) down to ………

a)140 kts
b)130 kts
c)125 kts
d)100 kts

During Emergency Evacuation procedure –

a)Both Engine fire Agent is available
b)Engine Agent 1 is not available
c)Engine Agent 2 is not available
d)APU Agent is not available

When does the squib light illuminate?

a)As soon as the FIRE signal has been triggered.
b)When the FIRE p/button is released out.
c)When the AGENT p/button is pushed.
d)When the AGENT bottle pressure is low.

Select INCORRECT statement regarding ALTERNATE LAW-

a) All protections are lost, and stabilities may, may not available.
b) The FLARE MODE becomes active when the landing gear is down.
c) Direct law becomes active when the landing gear is down.
d) Roll protection is lost.

Following Capt sidestick malfunction, F/O calls ‘I have control’ and press and hold the takeover pb on sidestick. The ‘F/O’ green light illuminates on glareshield. What does it mean?

a) Its Duel input and sidestick orders are algebraically added.
b) F/O sidestick is not activated
c) F/O sidestick is also malfunctioning.
d) Captains’ sidestick is in not at neutral position.

The Alpha Lock function inhibits –

a) Slat extension at high speed
b) Slat retraction at low speed
c) Flap extension at high speed
d) Flap retraction at low speed

Landing with Flap and Slat locked/fault at CONF 0, the FLAP LVR should be set at FLAP 1 position for landing. WHY?

a) To avoid EGPWS warnings
b) To avoid landing warnings
c) To ensure the AP/FD GO AROUND mode is available.
d) To monitor Flap and Slat position if Fault is fixed during landing.

Following selection of FLAP 1, which of the following statements is true?

Which of the following can be overridden by the sidestick?

a) High speed protection.
b) Alpha floor.
c) Alpha protection.
d) Low speed stability.

What causes reversion to Mechanical Back-up: how is the aircraft now flown?

a) Loss of all hydraulics: use the THS and RUDDER.
b) Loss of all ELAC’s and SEC’s: use the THS and RUDDER.
c) Loss of all FAC’s and SEC’s: use the ELEVATORS and RUDDER.
d) Loss of all ELAC’s and FAC’s: use the THS and RUDDER.

Regarding maximum bank angles, which of the following statements is true?

a) At normal speeds, the maximum is 67º (full sidestick deflection) and 25º (sidestick neutral).
b) The maximum bank angle in ALTERNATE LAW is 45º.
c) In High-Speed Protection, the maximum is 40º (full sidestick deflection) and 0º when sidestick neutral.
d) In ALPHA PROT, the maximum bank angle is 33º.

The Fuel used indication on ENG SD page is reset –

a) Manually by entering FOB on INIT B MCDU page.
b) Automatically after ENG Master sw ON during engine start on ground.
c) Automatically after ENG Master sw ON during engine start on ground and in air.
d) Automatically after MCDU/FMGC reset,

In the event of Fuel Gravity feeding : which fuel tanks contains usable fuel?

a) The Center tank only
b) Inner tank only
c) Inner tank and Outer tank
d) Center, Inner and outer tank

Regarding fuel recirculation, which of the following statement is true?

How will you detect a fuel leak in the flight?

a) There will be an ECAM caution of FUEL LEAK along with Master Caution light.
b) There will be a level 3 ECAM warning of FUEL LEAK along with Master warning light.
c) There will be advisory with FOB quantity flashing on EWD and FUEL SD page.
d) By comparing the sum of FOB and Fuel used is significantly less than FOB at engine start.

In which of the following situations will the PTU Fault light illuminate in flight?

a) PTU pump overheat.
b) PTU inoperative
c) Blue reservoir low level
d) Yellow reservoir low level

At what pump outlet pressure is HYD PUMP LO PR caution triggered and reset?

a) Triggers when pressure is at or below 1450 PSI and reset at or above 1750 PSI
b) Triggers when pressure is at or below 1500 PSI and reset at or above 1750 PSI
c) Triggers when pressure is at or below 1450 PSI and reset at or above 2500 PSI
d) Triggers when pressure is at or below 2500 PSI and reset at or above 3000 PSI

Regarding the HYDRAULIC pumps, which of the following statements is true?

a) All ELECTRICAL pumps have PUMP OVERHEAT monitoring.
b) All pumps have PUMP OVERHEAT monitoring.
c) The BLUE electrical pump is always running when AC power is applied to the aircraft.
d) The RAT pump supplies 3000 psi hydraulic pressure.

When is the PTU NOT inhibited?

a) Always, during first engine start.
b) During second engine start.
c) A/C on GRD, single Engine running and parking brake ON.
d) A/C on GRD, single Engine running and nose wheel steering disconnected.

What happens if WING ANTI-ICE is selected ON when taxying for take-off?

a) The Wing anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only if ENG anti-ice is ON.
b) The Wing anti-ice valves remain closed since aircraft is on Ground.
c) The Wing anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only and on lift off, the valves will re-open.
d) The Wing anti-ice valves remain OPEN and remain OPEN until the switch is set to OFF.

Following landing, in heavy rain, what is (are) the first action(s) to protect the avionics vent. system from water entry?

a) Blower valve to OVRD.
b) EXTRACT valve to OVRD.
c) EXTRACT and Blower valves to OVRD.
d) Ram Air Valve OPEN.

When does G load show on the SD permanent data section?

a) In green, all the time and changes to amber when the value is above 1.6 g or below 0.8 g for more than 2 sec.
b) Valve is displayed in green all the time except when a/c is on the ground.
c) In green, when the value is above 2 g or below 1 g for more than 2 sec.
d) In amber, when the value is above 1.4 g or below 0.7 g for more than 2 sec.

When will Sideslip Index changes colour from yellow to blue?

a) In case of engine failure in flight
b) In case of engine failure on ground
c) In case of engine failure at takeoff or go around
d) Roll index indication calculation is wrong.

Autobraking is activated by: -

a) Thrust levers moved to idle
b) Thrust levers moved to reverse position
c) Ground spoiler extension
d) Weight on wheels

After a rejected takeoff, if the aircraft comes to a complete stop using autobrake MAX, if the crew decides to taxi clear of the runway, in order to move the aircraft the PF can release the brakes by:

a) Increase thrust by moving thrust lever.
b) Recycling the parking brake
c) Disarming the spoilers
d) Applying gentle pressure to the brakes

A/C is in landing configuration (Landing no blue on EWD), will the Nose Wheel Steering system receive hydraulic pressure?

a) No, as aircraft is not on ground.
b) Yes, as ground speed mini is activated.
c) Yes, only in Autoland.
d) No, as steering handwheel is not moved.

What is the sequence of events when Gravity Extension of the gear is performed?

What is the effect of setting the NO SMOKING sw to AUTO position?

a) Signs are on in the cabin when either landing gear is extended or flaps/slats are extended
b) Signs are on in the cabin
c) Signs are on when landing gear is compressed
d) Signs are

If the cabin altitude goes above 11300 ft (+- 350 ft), the cabin lights and all the cabin signs come on, except –

a) NO PORTABLE ELEC DEVICE
b) NO SMOKING
c) SEAT BELTS
d) EXIT

With the white strobe light switch at AUTO, the lights will operate when:

a) The main gear strut is not compressed
b) The first engine is started
c) Take off thrust is set
d) The landing gear is retracted

Which of the following cockpit lights are available when only the batteries powering aircraft?

a)Reading lights and dome lights
b)Left-hand dome light (Capt side)
c)Both dome lights
d)Right-hand dome light (F/O side)

Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about ‘BIAS’ –

a)BIAS can be updated automatically by FMGS or manually by crew
b)BIAS is updated by FMGCs continuously as long as a GPIRS position or a radio position is available
c)Each FMGC computes a BIAS vector from its own IRS position to the radio position or GPIRS position.
d)The flight crew can update the FM position manually, this also updates the bias

During normal operation, the NAV aids are tuned ……

a)… Automatically through the FMGS.
b)… Manually through the RMP panel.
c)… Manually through the MCDU (PROG page).
d)… Automatically from GPS system.

Regarding the ISIS, which of the following statements is true?

a)It receives its information from ADIRU 3 only.
b)It receives its information from ADIRU 1 or 3.
c)The ILS localiser can be used for a back-course approach.
d)The ATT RESET function can be used at any time.

Which information is used in order to produce the EGPWS display?

a)Weather radar (map mode) and baro altitude.
b)Weather radar (map mode) and radio altitude.
c)An EGPWS database and FM1 position.
d)An EGPWS database and FM2 position.

Selecting the traffic selector on the transponder to ABV set the TCAS altitude range to:

a)the other intruders are displayed if within 9 900 ft above the aircraft and 2 700 ft below.
b)the other intruders are displayed if within 9 900 ft below the aircraft and 2 700 ft above.
c)the other intruders are displayed if within 2700 ft below and above.
d)the other intruders are displayed if within 9 900 ft below and above.

How is TA Intruder (surrounding aircraft traffic) indicated on the ND?

a)A white empty diamond
b)A white filled diamond
c)An amber circle
d)A red square

In the event of severe turbulence –

a)Avoid using Config FULL or 3
b)Use speed brakes to control speed
c)THR lever to TOGA to maintain max power to keep a/c in control.
d)Keep AP on

Following the use of an oxygen mask, how is the boom mic re-established?

a)Automatically, by re-stowing the oxygen mask
b)By selecting BOOM on the associated ACP.
c)By closing the left door of the storage box and then pressing the TEST slide.
d)By pressing the OXY ON button.

Above what cabin altitude will the crew oxygen masks automatically supply over-pressure regardless of the Emergency Pressure selector position?

a)Cabin Altitude exceeds 30000 ft
b)Cabin Altitude exceeds 20000 ft
c)Cabin Altitude exceeds 14000 ft
d)Cabin Altitude exceeds 10000 ft

How are the engine bleed valve operation work?

a)Operated pneumatically and controlled electrically
b)Operated electrically and controlled pneumatically
c)Operated and controlled electrically
d)Operated and controlled pneumatically

Controls of the water and waste systems are located on ……

a)Aft Attendant Panel
b)Forward Attendant Panel
c)Maintenance Panel
d)External Power Panel

The waste tank has a useable capacity of –

a)150 L
b)180 L
c)250 L
d)170 L

The Centralized Fault Display System (CFDS) identifies the faulty system and puts any failures or faults into one of three classes. Which of the failure/fault Class cause operational consequences?

a)Class 1
b)Class 2
c)Class 3
d)None

Which computer is responsible for the controls all datalink communication and automatically select the best available communication media?

a)ATSU
b)FMGS
c)MCDU
d)ADIRS

As the FCOM states, the APU may run on ground ……….

a)Without cockpit crew supervision
b)Without Capt’s supervision
c)Cockpit Crew supervision is required all the time
d)No supervision is required if APU bleed is not in use.

The APU has been switched OFF, but the AVAIL light remains illuminated. Why could this happen?

a)The APU bleed air was in use.
b)The APU always runs for 60 seconds after being switched OFF.
c)The APU is the only source of electrical power and is waiting for ENG GEN totakeover.
d)The APU is waiting until the external power start powering aircraft.

After impact during ditching procedure, the lowest point of the passenger exits (aft door) remains above the waterline for more than –

a)15mins
b)10 mins
c)7 mins
d)5 mins

The red light on an entry/service door will flash if :

a)The if the door control handle is operated and the slide is still armed
b)The cabin is still pressurised and both engines are shut down with slides disarmed
c)The slide is not armed in flight
d)The slide is still armed after both engines are shut down

What actions required if Windshield Crack is detected?

a)Follow ECAM action.
b)Rapid descent to FL 100 or MSA and then follow QRH procedure.
c)Diagnosis of the inner ply is required as per QRH procedure before making descent decision.
d)Rapid descent to FL 230 or MSA and then follow QRH procedure.

What action is required if a burning smell or smoke is identified as coming from the bottom left corner of the F/O windshield?

a)F/O Window /Windshield Anti-ice C/B pull
b)Probe / Window Heat sw OFF.
c)Descent FL 230 or MEA-MORA
d)Carryout Emergency Descent procedure

During parking phase, what actions are required for non ENG shutdown after ENG MASTER OFF?

a)Recycle ENG MASTER sw, ON and OFF, ENG will shut down after a time delay up to 2 min.
b)Switch all fuel pumps off, ENG will shut down after a time delay up to 4 min.
c)Check LP fuel valve on FUEL SD. If valve is closed, no crew action required ENG will shut down after a time delay up to 2 min 30 sec.
d)Check LP fuel valve on FUEL SD. Press ENG FIRE pb-sw & ENG will shut down after a time delay up to 2 min 30 sec.

When The A/THR is active, what is the reason for flashing “LVR MCT” in white on the third line of the FMA?

a)THR lever is not in MCT detent and an ENG failure is detected.
b)THR lever is in MCT detent and an ENG is failed
c)Both ENG is running and THR lever is in MCT detent
d)THR lever is above MCT detent.

While attempting a crossbleed engine start; Adjust thrust of supplying engine to obtain an engine bleed pressure of ——– PSI before start initiation, and at least ——– PSI during the start sequence.

a)30, 25
b)25, 30
c)40, 25
d)30, 20

Wind limit for Passenger and Cargo doors operation
The maximum wind for passenger door operation is _____ kt, The maximum wind for FWD and AFT cargo door operation is ____ kt, and The FWD / AFT cargo doors must be closed before the wind speed exceeds _____ kt.

a)65/40/65
b)60/40/65
c)65/65/65
d)65/40/40

On a contaminated runway, the takeoff must be performed with –

a)TOGA only
b)FLEX only
c)TOGA or FLEX depends on outside temp
d)FLEX if engine anti-ice is selected

The maximum brake temperature allowed for T/O –

a)150 C and no brake fan running
b)300 C with brake fan OFF or 150 C with brake fan ON
c)150 C if brake fan is installed
d)300 C if brake fan installed

What is the maximum ground speed?

a)180 kt
b)195 kt
c)150 kt
d)200 kt

Which of the following APU limitations is correct?

a)APU start is not permitted at an altitude above 35,000 feet.
b)In ELEC-EMER CONFIG, APU start is limited to 25,000 feet or below.
c)Single pack operation is limited to 25,000 feet or below.
d)Two pack operation is limited to 20,000 feet or below.

The APU may be operated with the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory displayed as long as maintenance is carried out within how many hours APU operation?

a)15 hrs.
b)20 hrs.
c)2 hrs.
d)10 hrs.

When the Ram Air switch is selected to ON, which of the following statements is true regarding the Ram Air Valve?

a)It will open only when pressure differential is less than 1.0 psi.
b)It directs ambient air to the PACKS.
c)It will open only when pressure differential is more than 1.0 psi.
d)It should not be opened above 10,000 ft cabin altitude.

Emergency lighting using the integral batteries will provide lighting for:

a)30 min
b)24 min
c)10 min
d)12 min

What is the maximum N2 starter engagement on-ground?

a)10%.
b)25%.
c)20%.
d)18%.

The maximum reverse thrust may be used down to:

a)A/C stop according to EGT limit.
b)70 knots (idle reverse down to A/C stop).
c)40 knots (idle reverse down to A/C stop).
d)90 knots (idle reverse down to A/C stop).

What is the maximum altitude at which the landing gear may be extended?

a)25000ft.
b)20000ft.
c)17500ft.
d)10000ft.

What is the maximum tyre ground speed?

a)200 kts.
b)230 kts.
c)175 kts.
d)195 kts.

According to ECAM handling procedure, which of the following abnormal procedure must be carried out from memory, without referring to the ECAM or QRH procedure?

a)Both ENG flame out
b)Bomb on board
c)Tailstrike
d)TCAS warning

During following a TCAS RA ‘CLIMB’ procedure, if ‘DESCEND DESCEND NOW’ twice audio command is triggered. What potentially could be happening?

a)This indicates that the intruder trajectory has changed.
b)This indicates that you will cross through the intruder altitude.
c)This indicates that you are not following TCAS command correctly.
d)This indicates that your V/S is insufficient to achieve safe vertical separation.

What will be FMA after completing PF’s initial action during EMERGENCY DESCENT drill?

When is the ‘Brace, Brace’ callout to be made during the descent for a planned emergency landing?

a)Passing 2000 ft
b)At 500 ft
c)At 1000 ft
d)Passing 100 ft

What are the correct initial actions following a “WINDSHEAR” warning on the final approach?

a)TOGA thrust: A/P (if engaged) keep ON: SRS – follow.
b)TOGA thrust: A/P OFF: SRS – follow.
c)TOGA thrust: A/P (if engaged) keep ON: sidestick fully aft.
d)TOGA thrust: A/P OFF: sidestick fully aft

What are the combined correct initial actions of the Crew in event of a Rejected Take Off at >100kts (below V1)?

a)Idle thrust: when ground spoilers have deployed, SELECT REVERSE MAX.
b)Call “STOP”: REVERSE MAX: when ground spoilers have deployed, apply full pedal braking.
c)Call “STOP”: Select IDLE thrust: REVERSE thrust MAX.
d)Call “STOP”: REVERSE – MAX: PARK BRAKE ON

Regarding evacuation of the flight deck, which of the following statements is true?

a)The only exit through the door is by opening the door forwards.
b)The sliding windows cannot be opened from the outside.
c)Following loss of electrical power, the door will remain locked .
d)The sliding windows will only latch open at the fully open position.

What is the correct immediate pitch attitude and thrust guidance in the event of unreliable IAS indications just after take-off?

a)THR CLB: Pitch +10º
b)THR CLB: Pitch +5º
c)THR TOGA: Pitch +15º
d)THR TOGA: Pitch +10º

What might be the reason behind Display Unit flash?

a)Related DMC failure.
b)Display Unit is switched off.
c)Too much/many information is selected to display on Display unit.
d)Maybe due to Intermittent Electrical Power Supply Interruptions.

As cockpit crew, what actions will you take when an ECAM ADVISORY is triggered?

a)No action is required as its Advisory.
b)Open FCOM ABN sections and check ECAM ADVISORY CONDITIONS sections for actions.
c)Open QRH ABN sections and check ECAM ADVISORY CONDITIONS sections for actions.
d)Follow instructions on ECAM and SD pages.

After a single DMC failure, how would a crew member recover the display units?

a)This function is automatic.
b)Once a DMC has failed, the information is irrecoverable.
c)Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC withDMC #3.
d)Select the ECAM/ND TSFR switch on the switching panel to the failed display.

Which of the following actions will automatically display which ECAM SD?

a)Selecting TOGA thrust always displays the ENG SD.
b)Selecting Flap 1 (during descent) displays the STS page, unless the STS page is empty.
c)On take-off, when the weight is off the wheels, the CRZ page is displayed.
d)Only when reached at planned cruise altitude, the CRZ page will appeared.

An excessive ILS deviation is indicated by:

a)Flashing ILS on the FCU
b)LOC and G/S scale indications flash amber
c)LOC and G/S scale indications flash continually
d)ECAM ILS Fault Master Caution

On the ECAM Control panel, what is the purpose of the RCL button?

a)Only to display suppressed warnings on the EWD and SD.
b)Only to display suppressed cautions on the EWD and SD.
c)Display suppressed warnings and cautions on the ECAM.
d)To recall STS page for the related warnings and/or cautions.

In the event of loss of both ECAM DU’s, what is the initial action?

a)Rotate the ECAM/ND TSFR switch left or right.
b)Rotate the EIS/DMC TSFR switch left or right.
c)Press the black PFD/ND TSFR button on the left or right instrument panel.
d)Press the RECALL button on the ECAM control panel.

What is meant by a PRIMARY failure?

a)The most serious failure if more than one failure exists at any one time.
b)A failure, which has an effect on INDEPENDENT systems.
c)A failure that produces a red warning.
d)A failure that has an effect on other system(s).

What will the FMA’s be during T/O run for a FLEX T/O and Managed Lateral & Vertical Navigation?

a)MAN FLEX | SRS | NAV | | 1FD2
b)MAN FLEX | SRS | NAV | | 1FD2 A/THR
c)MAN TOGA | SRS | NAV | | 1FD2 A/THR
d)MAN FLEX | V/S | HDG | | 1FD2 A/THR

What will the FMA modes be during fully managed descent with the a/c accurately following the profile and the speed at the ECON target?

a)THR IDLE | DES | NAV | | AP1 1FD2 A/THR
b)THR IDLE | OP DES | NAV | | AP1 1FD2 A/THR
c)SPEED | DES | NAV | | AP1 1FD2 A/THR
d)SPEED | OP DES | NAV | | AP1 1FD2 A/THR

Current FMA is ‘THR CLB | CLB | NAV’. What will the FMA read if a/c entered a flight plan discontinuity?

Which of the following functions does SRS guidance law not include?

a)Attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff (18 ° or 22.5 °maximum in case of windshear)
b)Flight path angle protection that ensures a minimum vertical speed of 120 ft/min
c)A speed protection limiting the target speed to V2+15 kt.
d)When Alpha floor triggers, the aircraft maintains a speed target equal to V2+10 kt.

When will MCDU scratchpad display “ENTER DEST DATA”?

a)The flight crew has not entered wind, QNH, or temperature for the destination, and the aircraft is 180 NM out.
b)The flight crew has not updated RAD NAV for the destination, and the aircraft is180 NM out.
c)The flight crew has not entered arrival on FLT PLAN page for the destination, and the aircraft is 180 NM out.
d)The flight crew has not completed PERF APPR page for the destination, and the aircraft is 80 NM out.

Which of the following would cause the autopilot to disconnect?

a)AP will disconnect for all failures which triggers Alternate Law activation.
b)Bank angle exceeds 33 deg.
c)If crew moves the pitch trim wheel beyond a certain threshold.
d)If crew moves the RUD TRIM rotary selector beyond a certain threshold.

In which modes will the Yaw bar be displayed on PFD (LOC signal available)?

a)RWY and NAV mode
b)RWY & ROLL OUT mode
c)LAND mode
d)RWY TRK mode

When does the A/THR RETARD mode get activated?

a)AP/FD engaged in LAND mode during an automatic landing
b)AP/FD engaged in LAND mode during any landing
c)AP/FD engaged in FLARE mode during an automatic landing
d)AP/FD engaged in ROLL OUT mode during landing

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