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Airline Prep > Technical > Flashcards

Technical Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 types of hydroplaning?

A

Viscous - When oil/debris combines with water on a runway, forming an impenetrable layer of liquid your tires can’t break through. Especially problematic on smooth asphalt runways.

Dynamic - when water lifts your wheels off the runway. This usually happens when a wedge of water builds up in front of your tires. Loss of traction or braking.

Reverted Rubber - when your tires lock up, the rubber begins to melt, and trapped water under the tire turns into steam. When it happens, you’re riding on steam, and melting your tires in the process.

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2
Q

What is the airspeed restriction in/around class C/D airspace?

A

200 KIAS (230 mph) at or below 2,500 feet above the surface, within 4 nautical miles of the primary Class C or Class D airport

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3
Q

What does the circle with a cross symbol represent in the airport plan view?

A

Airport Reference Point (ARP)

  • Center point of an airport, or Geometric center of all usable runways (calculated using coordinates at the ends of all runways)
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4
Q

A crew-member must breathe oxygen above how many feet?

A

(b) Pressurized cabin aircraft.
- Above 250 need 10 min supply avail. for each occupant
- Above 350 one pilot at the control must wear/use at all times…except
- Below 410 if there are 2 pilots at the control and each is provided a quick don mask (placed on face with 1 hand within 5 seconds, supplying and secured)

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5
Q

What is your clearance limit when cleared for the approach and then you lose comms?

A

The published hold on the missed.

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6
Q

3 phases of a Thunderstorm:

A

Cumulus: Updrafts, building clouds, no precip.

Mature: Precipitation begins to fall, unstable air intensifies

Dissipating: Updrafts slow, Anvil forms at top of storm cloud, downdrafts replace updrafts below storm cloud

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7
Q

When do you need an alternate airport?

A

121.619 - Domestic operations: must list at least 1 alternate airport for each destination airport in the dispatch release. When wx at both the first destination and alternate airport are marginal, at least one MORE alternate must be designated. UNLESS 123 rule!

  1. 621 - Flag operations: must list at least 1 alternate airport for each destination airport UNLESS -
    - the flight is less than 6 hours and 1 hour before/after ETA at the destination airport indicate:
    - ceiling of 1,500’ above the lowest circling MDA if required, or 1,500’ above lowest IAP minimum OR 2,000’ above the airport elevation (whichever is greater)
    - visibility at least 3 miles, or 2 miles greater than the lowest applicable IAP minimums (whichever is greater)
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8
Q

What is Mach tuck?

A

When an aircraft enters a potentially unrecoverable nose dive.

  1. Aircraft transitions through Transonic Region (M0.75-M1.2)
  2. You reach MCrit (1st molecule of air reaches super sonic speed, creating shockwaves between supersonic and subsonic air molecules)
  3. As shockwaves become larger, the aerodynamic center on the control surface moves AFT
  4. Air flowing from supersonic region, through the shockwaves, to subsonic region separates and becomes turbulent, and causes a loss of lift
  5. To avoid nose-down “Tuck” you must apply more back pressure….but your elevator is now useless as it sit in aerodynamically dead air
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9
Q

What is the most dangerous type of precipitation?

A

Supercooled Water Droplets in clouds.
Freezing rain/hail -
Can occur along a warm front where a warm air mass overruns a cold air mass.

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10
Q

What is the airway width communication range guaranteed by MOCA?

A

Airway width is 4 miles either side, MOCA does not have any guarantee on communication.

  • (MOCA) The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments that meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22 NM of a VOR
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11
Q

Define V1

A

The MAX speed in the TO at which the pilot must take the FIRST ACTION TO STOP the airplane within the accelerated stop distance, or the MINIMUM speed in the TO following a failure of the critical engine at Vef at which the pilot CAN CONTINUE the TO and achieve the required height above the TO surface within the TO distance

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12
Q

What is coffin corner?

A

The altitude(s) just below where Vs and MMO of an aircraft meet.

True Airspeed (and TRUE Stall Speed) increase with altitude, & the speed of sound decreases as temperature decreases.

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13
Q

When is the ILS Critical area is in effect ?

A
  • When instrument approaches are being conducted
  • Vis is 2 miles or less and/or
  • Ceiling 800 feet or less
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14
Q

What color are runway Centerline lights?

A

White until the last 3,000 feet of the runway.
The white lights begin to alternate with red for the next 2,000 feet, and for the last 1,000 feet of the runway, all centerline lights are red.

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15
Q

What does pressing the fire button do?

A

Activates shutoff valves for fuel and hydraulics, trips generator off via generator relay, arms fire bottles

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16
Q

What is the max takeoff weight of the CRJ-200, 700 and 900?

A

CRJ 200 - 53,000 lbs
CRJ 700 - 75,000 lbs
CRJ 900 - 84,500 lbs

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17
Q

What is the DH?

A

Decision Height. The altitude AGL at which a decision must be made to continue on an ILS or execute the missed approach.

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18
Q

What would you do if you hear a loud bang and lose power after V1 with over half an 11,000 ft runway left?

A

Continue the takeoff, fly the airplane, and follow the appropriate procedure. Declare emergency with ATC.

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19
Q

What would you do if the Captain continued below minimums?

A

Call out “below minimums” and ask if they have the runway. If no confirmation, call the missed approach and go around.

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20
Q

What is exemption 3585?

A
  • Allows operations when forecast’s conditional remarks (BECMG, PROB, TEMPO) are below dispatch minimums.
  • Under the terms of the exemption, the flight will be required to have not one, but two alternates.
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21
Q

Centerline lights are what colors?

A

White with the last 3,000 feet alternating red and white and the last 1,000 feet red

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22
Q

What is Dutch Roll? How do you counteract Dutch roll?

A

—A combination of rolling and yawing oscillations that normally occurs when the dihedral effects of an aircraft are more powerful than the directional stability.

Coordinated opposite rudder in the direction of the roll.
Yaw damper, or opposite control inputs to counteract.

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23
Q

What type aircraft is susceptible to dutch roll?

A

Swept Wing…

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24
Q

Max airspeed Below 10,000?

A
  1. 117 - 250 Knots (288 mph) Indicated unless otherwise authorized
    (d) If the minimum safe airspeed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in this section, the aircraft may be operated at that minimum speed.
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25
Q

Max airspeed Above 10,000?

A

91.817 - Not allowed to exceed Mach 1 (~666 knots)

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26
Q

Max airspeed In/Around class B airspace?

A

Below 10,000 (in B) still no faster than 250 KIAS.

BENEATH Class B airspace, or in a VFR corridor through Class B, no faster than 200 knots (230 mph)

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27
Q

What are the first 2 layers of the atmosphere?

A

Troposphere SL to about 30,000’ or 40,000’

Tropopause (traps moisture and associated wx)

Stratosphere extends from Tropopause - 160,000’

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28
Q

What is Vef

A

The speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during TO

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29
Q

What is MMO

A

Max Mach Operating Number (fixed number). MMO should prevent you from reaching MCrit (Critical Mach Number, aka the speed of sound)

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30
Q

Takeoff minimums JEPP

A

10-9 or 10-9A if larger airport!

At the bottom of the page, under Takeoff & Alternate minimums.

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31
Q

91.175/121.651: What lets you descend 100’ TDZE? What lets you land?

A
  1. Continuous position to landings
  2. Have required minimum flight visibility
  3. Be able to distinctly identify one of the approved visual references for the runway (often called the “runway environment”)

1) The ones that let you descend down to 100’ above the TDZE:
- CAT I & II white approach lighting system and nothing else.

2) The ones that let you LAND (below 100’ above TDZE):
- Red terminating bars used on ALSF-1 and ALSF-2 systems
- Runway, threshold or REILs
- Visual GS indicator
- TDZ/Runway markings

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32
Q

What is the TDZE?

A

The highest point on the first 3000 feet of the runway you’re shooting an approach on.

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33
Q

What is the D stand for in D-ATIS?

A

Digital ATIS that is accessible through ACARS (aircraft communication addressing and reporting system)

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34
Q

Types of Icing? Effects on flight?

A

Clear - glossy, clear, or translucent ice formed by the
relatively slow freezing of large, supercooled water droplets. (favors warmer temps)

Rime - rough, milky, and opaque ice formed by the instantaneous freezing of small, supercooled water droplets after they strike the aircraft. (favors colder temps)

Mixed - Combo of both. Ice pellets can become embedded.

Drag, loss of lift. stall speed increases.

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35
Q

Types of Anti-Ice and De-Ice Fluid?

A

Weeping wing/prop TKS (Tecalemit-Kilfrost-Sheepbridge Stokes) fluid - Drips/sprays an ethylene glycol based liquid out of thousands of tiny holes/windshield nozzles.

Type I - Unthickened, high Propylene glycol and low viscosity (used as DE-ice mostly, orange in color)

Type II/III - Thickened, lower glycol in concentrated form and higher viscosity but still will fly off surfaces of aircraft with rotation speed below 100kts. (Light yellow)

Type IV - Thickened, longer holdover time than Type II. (Anti-ice mostly, Green in color) must be put on a clean, dry surface.

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36
Q

Swept Wing advantages and disadvantages:

A
  • Allows for a faster speed before MCrit is reached when compared to a straight wing.
  • Low speed buffet can begin at tips and work into roots creating a “deep stalls”
  • High Speed Buffet flow separation develops first at the wing root, then progresses gradually outward toward the wing tips.
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37
Q

What is a Holdover Time (HOT) and when does it start?

A
  • the estimated time for which an anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost, ice, or accumulation of snow on the protected surfaces
  • HOT begins at the start of the anti icing operation. If a two-step operation is used, then it begins at the start of the final (anti-icing) step
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38
Q

When do you need a TAKEOFF alternate and how close does it need to be?

A
  • Weather is at or above TO minimums but are below authorized IFR LANDING minimums unless there is an alternate airport within 1 hour’s flying time (at normal cruising speed, in still air) of the airport of departure.
  • Aircraft having two engines. Not more than ONE HOUR from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
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39
Q

Minimum altitude for turbine aircraft to enter Class D airspace

A

1,500’ above airport elevation

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40
Q

Read METAR/TAF with RVR

R18R/0700V1000T

RVR1600 = __sm vis.

A

Runway Visual Range - the horizontal distance you can expect to see down a runway

RVR for Runway 18R has varied over the last 10 mins between 700’ and 1000’

RVR1600 = 1/4sm vis.

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41
Q

Brief approach into large airport DFW or LGA

A

get it girl

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42
Q

Define V2

A

Takeoff Safety Speed.

  • The speed at which the aircraft may safely climb with OEI!!
  • Maintain this speed until you reach One Engine Out Acceleration Altitude.
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43
Q

Weather mins for Visual Approach?

A

1,000’ ceilings, 3sm vis, clear of clouds

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44
Q

Holding Airspeed Limitation:

A 
MHA-6,000' = 200
6,001'-14,000' = 230
14,001'+ = 265 (and timed inbound leg 1:30 sec)
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45
Q

Decode:
TAF CYDP 171938Z 1720/1723 33018G28KT P6SM -SHRA FEW025 OVC080
BECMG 1720/1722 30012G22KT
RMK NXT FCST WILL BE ISSUED AT 180945Z=

A

In this example TAF we can see the BECMG period forecasted for the 17th of this month, between 20-22z. The winds will change from 330º at 18 gusting 28 knots to 300º at 12 gusting 22 knots.

If the wind change in this BECMG period is an improvement for an aircraft’s crosswind limit, the wind change is considered to take effect at 22z.

If the wind change in this BECMG period is a deterioration for an aircraft’s crosswind limit, the wind changes is considered to take effect at 20z.

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46
Q

Decode:
FM172300 01008KT 6SM BR OVC006 TEMPO 1723/1806 3SM -DZ BR BKN003 OVC006

FM180600 04005KT 3SM BR OVC003 TEMPO 1806/1813 OVC006

A

In the first TEMPO of this example TAF, temporarily between 23z and 06z the visibility will drop from 6 miles to 3 miles, light drizzle and the ceiling will drop from 600′ to 300′. If the ceiling is below required alternate minima, this aerodrome could not be used as an alternate during this period.

In the second TEMPO of this example TAF, temporarily between 06z and 13z the ceiling will climb to 600′. Normally, an aerodrome with a forecasted ceiling of 600′ can be used as an alternate, if the aerodrome has a usable ILS approach, but since the 600′ is in a TEMPO during a forecast ceiling of 300′, credit can not be taken.

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47
Q

Decode:

5SM -SHRA BR SCT020 BKN040 PROB30 1721/1803 2SM RA BR OVC007

A

In this TAF the PROB30 between 21z and 03z is 2 miles visibility, rain, mist and a ceiling of 700′.

Since these values fall in a PROB and they don’t fall lower than the landing minima, Dawson Creek is still a legal alternate.

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48
Q

Dihedral effects

A

Angular deflection up from root to tip. Aids in maintaining lateral (ROLL) stability.
Lack of stability along the longitudinal axis

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49
Q

Carburetor Icing?

A

Caused by the venturi in the carbs.
Fix is to turn on carb heat to bring warm air from outside a cylinder in to melt the ice.
Engine will initially run rough when carb heat is activated.

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50
Q

“Descend Via” a STAR means:

A

Abbreviated clearance

Requires compliance with:

  1. Lateral path
  2. Speed restrictions
  3. A pilot-discretion descent to comply with published altitude restrictions until descending to the ‘Bottom Altitude’
  • If cleared to a waypoint depicted on a STAR, you can descend from a previously assigned altitude at pilot’s discretion to the altitude depicted for the STAR waypoint.
  • If there is no crossing height published for the waypoint you were cleared to, ATC must issue one.

MEAs/MOCAs are NOT considered “altitude restrictions” for “Descend Via” purposes

AIM 5-4-1a

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51
Q

Using RVR in real life:

Approach minimums are 1045/24…

A

1045’ is Decision Altitude

24 is short for RVR of 2400’ RVR (1/2 sm VIS)

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52
Q

What are STANDARD instrument takeoff minimums for departure procedures based off of?

A
  • Climbing at 200ft/NM
  • Being at least 35’ AGL when crossing the Departure End of Runway (DER)
  • Turn after 400’ AGL

152’ per NM obstacle clearance surface - then they issue the ODP adding the extra 48’

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53
Q

1/4SM R18R/M0600FT FG

A

M = vis is less than lowest reportable value.

  • Vis is less than 600’
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54
Q

1/4SM R27L/P6000FT FG

A

P = vis is greater than highest reportable value.

  • Vis is greater than 6000’
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55
Q

FM in a TAF:

FM0100 SKC

A

Rapid change/The new main forecast for that time frame.

  • After 0100Z sky clear
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56
Q

What is a TAF?

what does = mean at the end of some?

A

Forecasts that are issued 4 times a day, covering area 5sm around an airport.

Valid periods are stated either 24 or 30 hours.

= means the end of the individual TAF

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57
Q

BECMG in a TAF:

OVC012 BECMG 1416 BKN020

A

Gradual change at some point over a 2 hour period.

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58
Q

TEMPO in a TAF:

4SM HZ TEMPO 0006 2SM BR HZ

A

Change that will last LESS THAN 1 HOUR.

  • Visibility 4 in haze with occasional visibility 2 in mist and haze between 0000Z and 0600Z.
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59
Q

PROB in a TAF:

PROB40 2102 1/2SM +TSRA

A

30-50% chance of happening.

  • Chance between 2100Z and 0200Z of 1/2 SM visibility, thunderstorm, heavy rain.
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60
Q

MI =

A

Shallow

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61
Q

BC =

A

Patches

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62
Q

DR =

A

Low Drifting

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63
Q

PR =

A

Partial

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64
Q

PL =

A

Pellets

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65
Q

GR/GS =

A

HAIL/Small Hail

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66
Q

UP =

A

Unknown Precipitation

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67
Q

PO =

A

Well developed dust/sand whirls

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68
Q

SS =

A

Sand storm

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69
Q

DS =

A

Dust storm

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70
Q

RMK in METAR:
1. RAB07

  1. P0003
  2. CIG 013V017
  3. SLP215
  4. T00640036
A
  1. Rain Began 07 mins after the hour
  2. Hourly Precipitation amount in 10ths of an inch.
  3. Ceiling variable 1300 - 1700
  4. Sea Level Pressure is 1021.5 hPa (hectopascals)/mb (millibars)
  5. Hourly TEMP/DP in tenths of deg. C (temp is 06.4 and dewpoint is 03.6)
71
Q

What does a “climb via” clearance mean on a SID?

A

Comply with the lateral path of the SID, all published speed restrictions, and all published altitude restrictions all the way to “Top Altitude” unless ATC issues “except ____ feet”

72
Q

What if I receive a “Cleared” or “Cleared Via” clearance - am I permitted to climb/descend to meet any SID/STAR
published altitudes?

A

NO. Only a “Climb Via” or “descend via” clearance gives you the vertical authorization.

Compliance with published speed restrictions is still required, unless canceled or modified by ATC.

73
Q

MSA on approach plate provides:

A

Usually 25NM radius around airport and provides 1000’ obstacle clearance.

MSA is for emergency use only and does not assure acceptable navigational signal.

74
Q

MSP ILS 12R - CAT II approach minimums: RA 102/12 100 DA 942

What does this mean?

A

Radio Altimeter reading of 102 feet/RVR 1200 feet.
You will be 100’ above TDZE
Your Decision Altitude is 942’

75
Q

What is a Radio Altimeter?

A

Measures immediate height above the ground, error within 2 feet.
Transmitter throws a radio wave down to the ground, and time until it is received again by the transmitter is measured and converted into altitude.

76
Q
  1. A# with Circle and Dot atop on approach plate and inverted Circles with A# ?
  2. Inverted T in upside down triangle on approach plate:
  3. 3 Ovals running perpendicularly across the beginning of a runway:
A
  • A# represents type of approach lighting. A dot atop the circle informs the pilot that sequenced flashing lights are installed—potentially one of the most helpful means of spotting the “runway environment” near minimums.
  • The “negative symbology” signifies that it is pilot-controlled lighting.
  • ‘T’ in the notes section means the airport has IFR takeoff minimums and/or Departure Procedures published in the Terminal Procedures Publication (TPP).
  • The ovals mean the runway has a displaced threshold, which you need to land beyond.
77
Q

What is Low Speed Buffet?

A

The low speed buffet is caused by airflow separation as the aircraft approaches it’s CAOA

78
Q

What is High Speed Buffet?

A

The aerodynamic buffeting that occurs as a jet aircraft approaches MCrit. The air flowing through the shock wave separates, becomes turbulent, and reduces lift.

79
Q

What converts AC to DC?

A

TRU - Transformer Rectifier

An inverter take DC to AC power

80
Q

SR20 Engine/Powerplant

A 
Teledyne Continental
IO-360-ES
De-rated to 200HP/2700RPM
6 cylinder
Normally aspirated
Fuel Injected, Air Cooled, Horizontally Opposed, Direct Drive
Ignition with dual magnetos

…

Hartzell 2 or 3 Blade
74”-72”
Constant Speed prop maintained with Prop Governor
- THROTTLE is mechanically linked by cables
to the air throttle body/fuel-metering valve and to the propeller governor. Moving the lever automatically adjusts fuel flow, and a separate cable adjusts the governor oil pressure to change propeller pitch to maintain engine RPM.

81
Q

SR20 Electrical system. Why does ATL 2 carry a higher voltage/potential?

A

ALT 1 is 28V/75A and is belt driven, charges MAIN buses.

ALT 2 is 28.75V/20A and is gear driven, charges ESS buses.

**ALT 2 has a higher voltage to prevents ALT 1 from charging ESS bus while its functioning normally

BATT 1 is 24V/10A
BATT 2 is 2-12V batteries connected, producing 7A.

82
Q

SR20 Fuel system components (7) and how the fuel selector works:

A

Components:

  1. Wing Tanks (60.5 total / 56 usable)
  2. Collector Tanks (under wing sumps)
  3. SELECTOR valve
  4. Elec AUX Pump (controlled by switch in cockpit)
  5. Engine Driven Fuel Pump
  6. Gascolator (sump under cowling)
  7. Fuel Flow Indicator (connected mechanically to the:) Throttle Metering Valve

Fuel Selector: When selected on R or L it opens a “Return” line from Wing Tanks, and a “Feed” line from Collector Tanks for fuel distribution. When in the OFF position all lines are closed

83
Q

PA44 Engine/Powerplant. How does the prop maintain constant speed?

A 
Lycoming (L)O-360-A1H6
- 4 cylinder
- Horizontally Opposed
- Air Cooled
- Direct Drive
- 361 cubic inches of displacement
- 180hp, 2700 rpm max, compression ratio 8.5:1
..
HARTZELL 2 blade
Constant Speed
Hydraulically Actuated
Full Feathering
Components of the Propeller system: 
Prob Hub
Spring
Prop Blades
Oil Sump
-intake/return lines

Pilot Valve
[-][To Hub][-][From Hub][-]

Fly Weights
Speeder Spring
Unfeathering Accumulator
- N2/Oil pressure
…
1. Pitch is changed by The Prop. Lever/Blade AOA with RW
2. The prop lever/angle with RW changes pressure on the Speeder Spring, and tension on the Flyweights
3. Change in tension causes the Pilot Valve to move
4. This allows oil to move to/from the Prop Hub through the governor

84
Q

PA44 Landing Gear system components (9), and tell me how it works? (powered/operated/psi)

A

Components of the Gear System:
Reservoir
- intake/return lines
- bleed line/thermo-relief line

Hydraulic Pump

SHUTTLE VALVE
[[-][down][-][up][-][up][-][down][-]]

Hydraulic Chambers
- Low pressure lines/High pressure lines

Gear Cylinders
Landing Gear
Emergency Gear Extension
Pressure Switch
Down Limit Switches
....
- Electrically powered, hydraulically operated
(MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid)
- 600 psi to extend the gear
- 1800 psi to retract the gear
- L/R Squat Switches
- 3 Up/Down Limit Switches
85
Q

PA44 Fuel system components (10), and what happens when you activate primers?

A 
Components:
L/R Main Tanks (110 total/108 usable)
Selectors/X-Feed lines
Filters
Engine Driven Fuel Pumps
Auxiliary Fuel Pumps
Primers
Carburetors
L/R Engine/Cylinders
Heater/Heater Fuel Pump
Drains
  • Fuel is shot into engine cylinders 1, 2, and 4. Manifold Pressure readings are taken from Cylinder 3
86
Q

PA44 Electrical system components, 6 electrical BUSES:

A 
Negative-ground, dual-fed, split-bus system. 
...
2 Alternators: 14V/70A (with voltage regulator) [28v/65a]
Main Battery: 12V/35A [24v/13.6a]
Emergency Battery: isolated from EMER BUS by relay/isolation diode. 
...
(BATMAN)
1. BATTERY BUS
2. AVI 1 BUS
3. TIE BUS
4. MAIN BUS
5. AVI 2 BUS
6. Non-Essential BUS
87
Q

SR20 Max TO/LD weight

A

3000lbs/2900lbs

88
Q

Tell me about all the aircraft safety equipment on an aircraft you flew in: PA44 Emergency Gear Ext….also

SR20 CAPS, egress hammer, fire extinguisher

A

Shuttle Valve does not have to move, High seeks Low in the lines.

  1. Pulling the knob opens up the Emerg. Gear Extension VALVE
  2. Hydraulic fluid from the High Pressure line will flow freely through the Valve and up into the connected Low Pressure line, making its way up to the Low Pressure Hydraulic Chamber
  3. Excess hydraulic fluid is distributed evenly through all Low Pressure lines to the TOPS of the Gear Cylinders
  4. Pressure is EQUALIZED throughout the Gear Cylinders, and GRAVITY will force the gear to drop
89
Q

PA44 Max TO/LD weight

A

3,800 lbs

90
Q

You get to DA and see approach lights, what can you do?

A

Descend to 100ft above the TDZE. In the event of an approach that uses ALSF-1 or ALSF-2 lighting system you may use that as “runway environment” and continue descent to landing if the red terminating bars or red side row bars are also distinctly visible.

91
Q

On an approach plate, Point to where you must be on an ILS to continue if the weather goes below minimums

A

You must be inside the FAF. If outside the FAF you must go missed.

92
Q

On an approach plate, What is the highest obstacle?

A

Jepp chart for it will be the item with the arrow pointing to the height in feet. DoD chart will be the item with the bold dot next to height.

93
Q

You are flying along and you have a crossing restriction and the CA is not slowing up or descending for it, what do you do?

A

Remind them of the crossing restriction, as they probably just forgot.

94
Q

What are the effects of ice on a wing?

A

Reduces stall angle, reduced maximum lift capability, increased stall speed, increased drag, reduced lift at given angles of attack.

95
Q

What would you do if your destination airport closed and you hadn’t filed an alternate (good weather)?

A

alk to your crew members, dispatch, ATC etc to get a better idea of what to do. They want to hear you will be using CRM along with all other available resources. They also like to ask what would you say to your passengers? (I said I would be honest to them and tell them whats going on).

96
Q

What causes carb ice?

A

Carb ice is caused by fuel vaporization in the carburetor. When the fuel vaporizes it takes heat energy from the surrounding air in which can cool its temp below freezing and freezing any water molecules in the air.

97
Q

What is RVSM airspace and where does it start?

A
  • Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum.
  • The reduction of vertical space between aircraft from 2,000 to 1,000 feet at flight levels from 29,000 feet up to 41,000 feet.
98
Q

What does the beacon being on during daytime hours at a towered airport mean?

A

Visibility is less than 3 miles and/or ceiling is less than 1,000feet

99
Q

What is a VFR corridor?

A

an area where VFR traffic is allowed without ATC communications surrounded on 4 sides by class b airspace

100
Q

Why does Vmc decrease with altitude?

A

As altitude increases performance on the operative engine (normally aspirated) decreases, eventually VMC and stall speed will converge.

101
Q

What is ground effect?

A

Less induced drag due near the ground due to wingtip vortices disruption.

Downwash over the top of an airfoil at the tip has the same effect as bending the lift vector rearward; therefore, the lift is slightly aft of perpendicular to the relative wind, creating a rearward lift component. This is induced drag.

Less downwash = a more vertically acting lift vector, opposing gravity = better performance in ground effect

102
Q

Explain what AC (alternating current) is?

A

Alternating current (AC), is an electric current in which the flow of electric charge periodically reverses direction, whereas in direct current (DC), the flow of electric charge is only in one direction

103
Q

Explain what DC (direct current) is?

A

DC (direct current) is the unidirectional flow or movement of electric charge carriers (which are usually electrons). The intensity of the current can vary with time, but the general direction of movement stays the same at all times. As an adjective, the term DC is used in reference to voltage whose polarity never reverses

104
Q

What is the general dimensions of a Class C?

A

5 NM core from surface to 4000 AGL. 10 NM shelf from 1200 AGL to 4000 AGL. Speed limit within 4 NM and 2500 AGL is 200 IAS.

105
Q

What does MALSR stand for, and describe approach lights you’d see for MALSR

A

-MALSR (Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System With Runway Alignment Indicator Lights)

All white.
Short extended centerline lighting with running rabbit.
Single row of the 3 bar runway aligner lights.

106
Q

You are flying into an airport at night surrounded by mountainous terrain. You can see the airport at altitude, but see as you get closer there is a fog between you and the airfield you will have to fly through. All your alternates are far away. How would you proceed?

A

If we have a published approach, if destination WX is at or above minimums, and I can use a feeder route etc. to get to the IAF, and then I can proceed. If I can’t safely get to the approach course (or some route that guarantees terrain clearance and comm/nav reception, a divert may be in order. Best to decide early.

107
Q

How do you identify the FAF?

A

Maltase cross, GS intercept, of Outer Marker.

108
Q

What type of fire extinguisher do you have on board your current aircraft?

A

We have a small HALON extinguisher on board.

109
Q

What color are runway edge lights for runways with IAPs?

A

White, until the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, they turn YELLOW to form a caution zone for landings.
The lights marking the ends of the runway emit red light

110
Q

What does ALSF stand for?

A

ALSF (Approach Lighting System with Sequenced Flashing Lights)

111
Q

What are trim tabs?

A

Trim tabs are small secondary flight control surfaces that are attached to the trailing edges of the control surfaces of an airplane. They serve to counteract the the aerodynamic force on the control surface and ease the pilot workload

112
Q

What do flaps do and how do they work?

A

Extending flaps increases the camber (or curvature) of your wing. When your wing has a higher camber, it also has a higher lift coefficient, meaning it can produce more lift at a given angle-of-attack.

With a lower flaps settings, your plane benefits from the increase in lift (due to camber), but doesn’t pay the high Form Drag penalty caused by fully extended flaps, such as on approach to landing.

113
Q

Describe the EFIS displays on your last aircraft…SR20 and PA44

A

Avidyne PFD: ADAHRS
3-axis solid state gyro and accelerometer system (combined with a magnetometer)
- Magnetometer is connected to OAT probe in wing
- 1 pitot tube
- 2 static ports
- G430 is connected

G1000 system components:
- Glass components are interfaced with each other via
a proprietary Ethernet-based, high-speed digital databus system.
- AHRS, ADC, transponder and Engine/Airframe Interface units, use combinations of other interfaces.

114
Q

How would you proceed around or thru a hole in a thunderstorm with consideration to a marginal fuel situation coupled with late arriving to destination and how I would address the pax.

A

Better safe than sorry, plan on diverting to nearest suitable airport. Weather changes - control what you can control and be honest with passengers.

115
Q

What are the effects of a forward cg?

A

Slower cruise, more stable, will stall sooner

116
Q

On short final with no comms what does a solid green light gun signal mean?

A

Clear to land

117
Q

What does LDA stand for in the frequency box on an approach plate?

A

Localizer Type Directional Aid - used when a Localizer is not aligned with runway centerline. (for terrain, etc)

Straight in mins can be published if less than 30 degrees from centerline. (S-LDA) Otherwise Circling Only mins will be published.

118
Q

Why is RADAR required for some approaches?

A
  • When there’s no guaranteed acceptable navigation signal from the enroute structure (a.k.a. airways) to an initial approach fix (IAF)
  • Approach has no IAF.
  • Through restricted/prohibited areas (KDCA)
119
Q

what is standard sea level pressure in millibars

A

1013.25

means pressure applied by this air on the unit area would be 14.7 pounds per square inch.

120
Q

You are departing with a high density altitude, how will this effect the takeoff and why?

A

Longer takeoff roll, worse climb performance than on a standard day. Due to the less dense air, the wings will produce less lift and the engine will produce less thrust which will require a higher true airspeed to achieve the same indicated air speed

121
Q

What makes hotspots important to a pilot and why?

A

A hot spot is defined as a location on an airport movement area with a history of potential risk of collision or runway incursion, and where heightened attention by pilots and drivers is necessary.

122
Q

Brief the Localizer 01R into KTPA. Jepp or NACO charts, whichever you prefer.

A

get it girl

123
Q

What are the VFR weather requirements in class D?

A

3 miles visibility. Cloud Clearance: 1000’ above, 500’ below, 2000’ horizontal

124
Q

What is considered mountainous terrain?

A

an area where the changes of terrain elevation exceed 3000’ within a distance of 10nm

125
Q

Brief LDA Z into DCA

A

Remember to brief notes

126
Q

Read a NOTAM…

A

Types of NOTAMs and designations?

Review FAA’s list of all applicable Notams and remarks. They will ask you odd balls to see how much you know.

127
Q

You are Captain and Ops tells you that you have a bomb on board, what do you do?

A

Build your team!!
Immediately coordinate with dispatch to find a diversion airport, and get as much info as possible (bomb type, location etc). Inform cabin crew.

128
Q

How lift is created?

A

Produced by the dynamic effect of air acting on an airfoil, resulting in a higher pressure below and a lower pressure above (Bernoulli) and the Downwash from above meeting the trailing edge of the airfoil, causing an upward/forward “reaction” on the airfoil (Newton #3)

PHAK 4-7
- In conformance with Bernoulli’s principle, where the airflow was slowed beneath the airfoil, a positive upward pressure was created (i.e., as the fluid speed decreases, the pressure must increase). Since the pressure differential between the upper and lower surface of the airfoil increases, total lift increases. Both Bernoulli’s Principle and Newton’s Laws are in operation whenever lift is being generated by an airfoil.

  • The pressure difference between the upper and
    lower surface of a wing alone does not account for the total lift force produced.
  • The downward backward flow from the top surface of an airfoil creates a downwash. This downwash meets the flow from the bottom of the airfoil at the trailing edge. Applying Newton’s third law, the reaction of this downward backward flow results in an upward forward force on the airfoil.
129
Q

What is VMC?

A

..Visual Meteorological Conditions

..Minimum calibrated airspeed at which, when the critical engine is suddenly rendered inoperative, you can maintain directional control.

130
Q

What weather mins are considered IMC?

A

If the cloud bases are lower than 1,000’ AGL or the visibility is less than 3 miles

131
Q

What is the 123 rule?

A

123 Rule one hour before, to one after your ETA, ceiling at 2000 feet agl, or for flag ops, 1500 above the HAT, whichever is higher, and 3 miles visibility, or 2 miles above the straight in minimums, whichever is greater

132
Q

What is a vortex generator and what does it do?

A

Small fins protruding from an airfoil.

The vortices created pull high energy air into the boundary layer, reducing effects of skin friction, and delaying a stall.

133
Q

Brief the ILS 31L at JFK.

A

They asked me what the highest point in the chart was

134
Q

What is the purpose of static wicks?

A

The wick, which resembles a wire, transfers that electricity back into the atmosphere to prevent it from interfering with navigation and communication radios.

If struck by lightning the static wick would work to dissipate the energy from that strike.

135
Q

What are some required reports to ATC?

A
  1. Unforecast Weather
  2. Vacating previously assigned altitude
  3. VFR on top altitude change
  4. Established in the hold
  5. Non-Radar environment needs reporting points
  6. Unable to climb/descent at least 500fpm
  7. Missed approach
  8. Change in airspeed by 10 knots or 5%
  9. Loss of Navigation
  10. Any info relating to safety of flight
136
Q

What is wind shear and how do you detect it from the cockpit?

A

Wind shear is a change in wind speed and/or direction over a short distance. It can occur either horizontally or vertically and is most often associated with strong temperature inversions or density gradients.

Sudden/violent IAS and ALT fluctuations, trouble with control & performance.

137
Q

What happens to TAS as you climb at a constant Mach number?

A

If an aircraft maintains a Mach number while climbing, TAS is also decreasing. This is because air TEMPERATURE decreases with altitude.

The TAS for a given Mach number should generally decrease with altitude

138
Q

What factors affect turn radius?

A

Airspeed and bank angle

139
Q

Name 3 things that will trigger the Gear Warning horn in a PA44

A
  1. Left Squat Switch (gear UP on ground)
  2. 14” MP or lower on 1 or both throttles
  3. 2nd notch of flaps with gear UP
140
Q

How does a Governor work?

A

Supplies Oil at various pressures through the prop shaft to maintain constant speed/engine speed by varying the pitch of the prop in response to changing flight conditions

141
Q

How long are AIRMETs, SIGMETs, and Convective SIGMETs valid for?

A

AIRMETS - valid 6 hours
WSs - valid 4 hours
WSTs - valid 2 hours

142
Q

Tell me about the PA44 Squat Switches?

A

L Main Squat Switch:

  • Prevents gear retraction on the ground by disabling hydraulic fuel pump
  • Silences gear warning on the ground

R Main Squat Switch:

  • Prevents stall warning horn from activating while on the ground
  • MX hobbs
143
Q

SR20 CAPS system:

A

Designed to Lower the a/c and its pax to the ground in the event of a life threatening emergency

  • Deployment with 45lbs of force applied on handle
  • 2 seconds for chute inflation
  • 8 seconds for rear snub line to be cut
  • descent rate less than 1500fpm expected
144
Q

GPU

A

Ground Power Unit to plug into aircraft for start up to avoid depletion of APU battery

145
Q

+

-

A

unverified obstacle

146
Q

P in a circle on mini airport diagram

A

Precision Approach Slope Indicator (PAPI)

147
Q

V in circle on mini airport diagram

A

Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI)

148
Q

What if you see “CPDLC” on frequencies for approach

A

Controller Pilot Data Link Communications

149
Q

What is NDB symbology on approach plate?

A

Dot in circle surrounded by a bunch of polka dots

150
Q

LAHSO clearance runway distance & weather minimums

A
  • The minimum distance required to conduct LAHSO will be 2,500 feet of the available landing
    distance (ALD) on the hold short runway
  • Non-air carrier aircraft: ceiling 1,000 feet and visibility 3 miles.
    (b) Air carrier aircraft: ceiling 1,500 feet and visibility 5 miles, unless the landing runway is equipped with precision approach path indicator (PAPI) or visual approach slope indicator (VASI), in which case 1,000 feet ceiling and 3 miles visibility must be applicable.
151
Q

Explain the power curve:

A
  • U shaped curve that represents power required to maintain level flight at any given airspeed
  • Bottom of U represents minimum power required for level flight
  • To go faster you need more power (parasite drag increases)
  • To go slower you need more power (induced drag increases)
  • The Backside of the power curve, aka region of reverse command
152
Q

What is Parasite Drag? Name a few types:

A
  • Parasite drag is the drag created by the airframe’s resistance to forward motion.
  • Increases with increased airspeed
  • Form
  • Skin friction
  • Interference
153
Q

What is L/Dmax?

A

An AOA

  • Best glide speed
  • produces least drag and best performance
154
Q

What is Aspect Ratio? Chord line?

A
  • tells you how much lift and drag the plane will produce.

- Line from leading to trailing edge of an airfoil

155
Q

What does being in the Region of Reverse Command mean?

A

Pitch for Airspeed

Power for Altitude

156
Q

What is Excess Thrust?

A
  • Thrust left in the engine that can be used for a sustained climb
  • potential energy
157
Q

What are leading edge slat/slot?

A
  • High lift devices

- Add energy boundary layer air at high AOAs.

158
Q

TCU on METAR? TSNO?

A

Towering Cumulus

Thunderstorm info NOT AVAIL

159
Q

What kind of Anti-Ice equipment do most Turbine Aircraft have?

A

Engine & Wing Bleed Air System:

  • Takes hot air from engine compressor stage, cooled to 200 deg C
  • Ducted to wing slats/Air conditioning PACKS/engine opening, released through piccolo tubes, exits through exhaust holes

Electrical Heating
- Windshield, pitot tube

160
Q

Brief approach ILS 04 KEWN

A

If you need an alternate airport for this destination, how would you select one?

161
Q

How does a jet engine start?

A
  • Electric motor spins Shaft
  • AIR blows THRU COMPRESSOR and the COMBUSTION chamber
  • FUEL flows in
  • Engine LIGHT OFF
  • Fuel flow increased to get engine to normal operating speed.
162
Q

You’re on a trip and the aircraft is over gross and the Captain is set on taking the aircraft with no weight modification, what would you do?

A

Inform the CA that exceeding aircraft limitations is unsafe and unacceptable.

163
Q

MEA provides you with?

A

Obstacle clearance

Acceptable Navigation signal

164
Q

How do you recover from a compressor stall after takeoff? When might one occur?

A

Lower AOA
Increase Airspeed
Reduce Thrust

  • Strong Crosswind! (or other airflow disruption)
165
Q

What are some things that increase stall speed?

A

Load factor, forward CG, weight, air density, ice on the wings

166
Q

If DME fails how can you identify a MAP?

A

Timing

167
Q

Disadvantage of T-Tail?

A

Susceptible to deep stall

168
Q

What is pneumatic air and what is its purpose

A

Bleed air taken off the compressor section to be used for multiple different things: starting if aircraft has an pneumatic starter, anti/deicing, pressurization, air conditioning.

169
Q

If you have a hung start, what would you do?

A

Hung start is when a normal light off occurs, but the engine fails to reach idle RPM. Indicated by rising EGT, but no rise in RPM. Shutoff the fuel and continue dry motoring (20-30 secs) to clear unburnt fuel

170
Q

When would you need to use Continuous Ignition?

A
  1. Heavy Precipitation
  2. Icing/Anti-Ice ON
  3. Contaminated Runway
  4. Significant turbulence
  5. Low fuel
171
Q

What is N1 and N2?

A

N1 - Low speed TACH

N2 - High speed TACH

172
Q

What are the 2 types of compressors? (flow)

A
  1. Centrifugal Flow

2. Axial Flow (Most common)

173
Q

Brief the ILS 22 into KLGA

A

hehe

Airline Prep (5 decks)

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