Shep Air Flashcards
1
Q
A pilot who identifies hazards and mitigates the associated RISKS is exercising
A
The concept of risk management
not ADM
2
Q
For turbulence avoidance, you would do well to avoid areas
A
Horizontal windshear exceeds 40 knots per 150 (ONE-HUNDERED AND FIFTY) miles
(not 75 miles)
3
Q
Land and hold short lights consist of
A
a row of in-pavement pulsing WHITE lights
not red rwy entrance lights
4
Q
Fig. 123 ‘HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VOR ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS…’
A
D-D-P/T
Parallel only
P is on the left
5
Q
If you exceed the rich limit of the fuel-air ratio in a turbine engine, you can expect it
A
will flameout
6
Q
You taxi to 28L for takeoff and will follow a 737 landing on 28R. Winds are 350/5. You know that
A
the NOTHERLY crosswind will blow vortices safely to SE
7
Q
Memory Aid W-2 W-2 W-4 W-4
A
W-2 Distance: LOW
W-2 Weight: MID
W-4 Weight: MID
W-4 Fuel: 1,738lbs
8
Q
A rule of thumb that 1,000-foot increase in DA for a turboprop with a HIGH thrust-to-weight ratio will cause a takeoff distance increase of ___%
A
7%
9
Q
A dry line indicates
A
an area with high humidity and INCREASED prob of thunderstorm formation
10
Q
At what speed with ref to L/Dmax does MAX rate-of-climb for a jet occur
A
a speed GREATER than that for L/Dmax
11
Q
An increase in airspeed following a decrease in control effectiveness may result in
A
decrease in downwash = TUCK UNDER
12
Q
As altitude increases, what must happen to TAS and AOA to maintain the same lift?
A
Increase TAS and AOA
13
Q
The purpose of DILUTING ethylene glycol with water in non-precipitation conditions is to
A
DECREASE the freezing point
14
Q
Aerodynamic braking is only effective to approx
A
60-70% of touchdown speed
15
Q
ETOPS alternate airport … CATEGORY ___ and ___ mins
A
CATEGORY 4 and 30 mins
16
Q
CRM error management includes
A
error prevention
error detection
error recovery
17
Q
FAROS lighting will do what if traffic is on the landing runway?
A
FLASHING PAPIs
18
Q
Haze or rain on windshield may result in a ___ final approach
A
a low final approach
19
Q
At what speed does drag divergence occur relative to the critical Mach?
A
5-10% higher
20
Q
You are landing at an airport near the coast with a wind shear advisory. Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a LL temp inversion wind shear?
A
CALM or LIGHT wind near the surface
Relatively STRONG wind above the inversion
(no specific degree values associated)
21
Q
Memory aid conditions:
D
V
R
A
MID
22
Q
What causes advection fog?
A
MOIST air moving over a COLD surface
23
Q
A required flightcrew member of an unaugment two-pilot flag op may not exceed how many hours duty in a seven (7) day period?
A
32
24
Q
You shut down an engine to prevent possible damage. You
A
must land at the nearest suitable airport IN POINT OF TIME where a safe landing can be made
25
Jet is flying at .80 Mach with OAT of -40 deg C. What is TAS?
475
| but answer choice is 487 knots
26
due to twisting forces at high altitude, jet aircraft use spoilers to
increase ROLL CONTROL
27
Who is responsible for the diversion of a flight part 121 conducting supplemental operations?
the PIC and
DIRECTOR OF OPS
(not dispatcher)
28
As flight speed nears the speed of sound...a ______ wave will form...
a COMPRESSION wave will form...
29
A bank angle of 60, 45, 30, and 15 deg will increase induced drag by ___%, respectively
300%
100%
33%
7%
30
On an RNAV (RNP) approach there is a shaded black triangle from the runway threshold. This indicates
the visual segment below minimums - IS - clear of obstacles on 34:1 slope
31
Which max range factor decreases as weight decreases
AIRSPEED
32
What are the lowest weather alternate mins for 121 PIC with less than 100 hours
300 - 1
| must increase by 100' and 1/2 mile or RVR equivalent 2400
33
What condition must domestic flight under 121 list an alternate airport in the dispatch release?
1 hr before/after ETA ceiling forecast less than 2000'
34
At low airspeeds, flight control surfaces become less effective. Because of this, careful application of the rudder can
induce a ROLL TO WINGS LEVEL
35
SIGMET is issued when wx affects ____ square miles or more
3,000
36
The lowest ILS Cat II mins are
DH 100
| RVR 1,200
37
8-APCH
You are nearing the aprch or dept end path for the designated runway
(don't pick answer with runway 08 in it)
38
Vr speeds
```
117
130
133.7
143
or highest
```
39
100 deg F and altimeter 29.85. Given the info, the altimeter indication on the ground would show
HIGHER than field elevation
40
With OAT of less than 0 a pilot can anticipate severe in-flight icing while flying through ___
RAIN
| NOT visible moisture, snow
41
When assessing operational risk management, the pilot should know that ___ and ____ play a significant roll
stress and fatigue
42
Each cert holder's Op Specs must include
AUTHORIZATIONS and LIMITATIONS for each type of OPERATION
43
FRICTION braking becomes effective at __-__% of touchdown speed
70-80%
44
The specific range for a turbojet at 40,000' is approx ___% greater than at ____.
150% greater than at SEA LEVEL
45
Which type frontal system is usually crossed by the jetstream?
Occluded Front
46
Jet streams are found ___ the tropopause
near
| not "close to"
47
Turning performance of an airplane is defined by ____ and power limits at ____ altitudes
aerodynamic
| high
48
The most efficient cruise control in a turbojet is
the climbing cruise
49
For an airplane with a relatively LOW thrust-to-weight ratio, a 10% increase in TO weight would result in a TO distance increase of approx __-__%
25-30%
50
Which type of transponder is required for ops in Class A?
ADSB-Out operating on 1090 MHz
51
If VGSI and vertical descent angle (VDA) do not coincide, the VGSI will be ___ the descent angle.
BELOW
| VDA will be equal to of higher than VGSI
52
GBAS approaches are most similar to ___ approach for ___ segment
ILS
| final
53
In conducting LAHSO ops the pilot should have readily available the published ALD, landing performance, and ___ of all LAHSO combos
SLOPE
54
SIGMETs (other than domestic convective) may be valid for not more than ___ hours
4 hours, continuing phenomena. period.
55
Why is precipitation a major factor in reducing the HOT in deicing fluid?
Precipitation DILUTES the fluid.
56
Max turbulence potential charts are issued ____
hourly
57
What identifies a transient compressor stall
Intermittent 'bang'
58
You may not initiate a flight with a 3-pilot crew if the total flight time will exceed ___ hours
13
59
The holder of an ATP/restricted ATP certificate may act as ___ for a 121 carrier with an a/c type rating for the a/c to be flown
SIC
60
Air only 10% saturated with water vapor is ___ dense than ____ air
MORE dense than
| DAMPER air
61
Which condition has the effect of greatly reducing critical engine failure speed (V1) on transcat airplane?
Runway length
62
What happens to stall speed as the a/c gains altitude?
Increases
63
How does the minimum landing distance increase if the airplane landing weight were increased by 10%?
10%
64
Which is a stall characteristic of a T-tail jet a/c?
The elevator will still be effective into the beginning of the stall
65
runway lighting available for ALSAF-2 is
TDZ
66
The US low level Sig WX Prog chart depicts weather conditions:
that are forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart
67
If engine's thrust line is ABOVE the CG it is:
STABILIZING
68
LGA RWY 13 FICON 1/1/1 100PRCT PTCHY SN AND ICE
icy runway with patchy snow and ice.
| not the answer with "completely" in it
69
The PIC has not served 100 hours as PIC in Part 121 ops in the type a/c being flow. The MDA or DA/DH and vis for landing .... are increased by:
100 feet and 1/2 SM
70
Why is it important to keep in mind ZFW?
To LIMIT load forces on the wing spars
71
CRM training is most effective when it is centered on having
clear and comprehensive SOPs
| not CRM instructors
72
What may be the cause of a low level temperature inversion?
The air on the surface cools faster than the air above
73
Dew point fronts result from Air density differences due to ______
HUMIDITY LEVELS
74
ATIS will include "braking action advisories in effect" when runway conditions are reported to be ____
MEDIUM
| not fair
75
If unforeseen circumstances arose AFTER TAKEOFF the duty period may be extended as much as
necessary
76
Supercooled water droplets have been observed at temps as low as
-40 DEG
77
ATC clears you to a waypoint to hold. Upon reaching the waypoint, you must:
report the time and altitude upon reaching the holding fix (always, radar/request doesn't matter)
78
GBAS is a
ground based augmentation to GPS focused on the airport area
79
What is the fuel used to top of climb for Operating Conditions W-4?
1738
Memory Aid
80
Some a/c are equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons. They are used to
help with control at slower landing speeds
81
What effect will a microburst have upon a/c in position 1 (airspeed indication)
What effect will a microburst have upon a/c in position 2 (airspeed indication)
IAS would INCREASE
IAS would NOT CHANGE
82
Deviation from ATC clearance in response to an RA requires notification to NTSB _____
immediately
83
What document should a pilot reference to determine MAX TO WT for a given ambient air temp and FE?
Approved AFM (airplane flight manual)
84
What is the required climb gradient in Ft/min if your GS is 90 and you must maintain 400Ft/NM?
600 Ft/Min
E6B
90/60 = 600/400
85
LAHSO includes landing and holding short of:
SOME designated point on the runway
86
For oceanic flights a US high level SIGWX chart is prepared for use between FL___ and FL___
FL250 and FL630
87
Airfoil drag may increase as a result from ice accretion by as much as ___%
100%
88
The increase in specific range with altitude (increase) of the turbojet a/c can be attributed to 3 factors.
- an increase in altitude in the TROPOSPHERE results in lower inlet air temperature
- increased engine turbine RPM producing more thrust
89
What temperature should deice/anti-ice fluid be during the last step of a two-phase process?
Cold
90
CAT associated with mountain wave may extend as far as:
5,000' ABOVE the tropopause
91
LGA RWY 13 FICON 3/3/3 100 PRCT 2IN DRY SN OVER COMPACTED SN OBSERVED
Braking condition and heading control difficulty with 100% of runway covered in 2 in of dry snow over compacted snow
```
4 = Good to Medium
3 = MEDIUM
2 = Medium to Poor
```
92
What wx conditions are required for a visual approach
1000' ceilings and 3sm vis
93
What is an indication of possible wind shear due to a decreasing headwind when descending on the glide slope?
Higher PITCH attitude required
94
Which turbine indicating systems compensate for airspeed and altitude?
EPR
| engine pressure ratio
95
Where can you expect the most turbulence associated with a jet stream? (which pressure side)
LOW pressure side of the jet stream core.
96
Runway centerline lights are inop. No HUD or FD. On an ILS CAT I, what are your minimums?
```
200' AGL
2400 RVR (1/2 SM)
```
97
SIC with less than 100 hours is flying with a PIC who is not check airmen. Under what condition would SIC not be allowed to land?
- WINDSHEAR is reported in the vicinity
| - braking action is less than 'good'
98
Taxiway center lead-off lights are color coded to warn that you are within the _____ or _____
RUNWAY environment OR ILS critical area
99
A stable air mass is moving over a mountain, you can expect what flight characteristics on the windward side?
Smooth flight
100
Define "severe wind shear"
- Rapid change in WIND DIRECTION or VELOCITY, airspeed changes greater than FIFTEEN (15) knots !!!!!
101
The max flight time in 24 hours that a flag carrier may schedule a pilot in an unaugmented two-pilot flight crew, without a rest period, that must report for duty at 0400 is
8 hours
102
An a/c with a CG at the forward limit will
be very stable in pitch
103
What is the a/c weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-2?
MID
104
Weight, BA, airspeed, and LF have ____ effect on the stall angle of attack.
NO effect
105
SIC under Part 121 must hold an ____ with an ____
ATP cert. with an appropriate a/c TYPE RATING
| NOT 1st class medical
106
What is the approx rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?
3 deg per 1,000'
107
You are nearing the aprch or dept end path for the designated runway 8-APCH, you must:
obtain ATC clearance prior to crossing
108
The Mach number which produces a sharp change in the drag coefficient is termed the
FORCE divergence Mach number
109
Swept wings _____ the force divergence number
increase
110
Memory Aid
| X and Z
LOW
exceptions:
X-5 is 2+55
Z-2 is 1+46
111
Identify ADM concepts:
Hazards and Risks
112
How can you identify the approach end of a runway?
REIL
| not TDZL
113
The use of UN-diluted ethylene glycol must be avoided in non-precipitation conditions because
the viscosity is too high
114
Under Part 121, the authority to exercise operational control lies with the _____
Air Carrier
| not dispatcher or pilot
115
CRM is defined as the
APPLICATION of team management
116
One typical takeoff error is ____ rotation
excess
117
Aerodynamic studies prove that turbojet a/c are ____ sensitive to DA than reciprocating engine a/c
MORE
118
Where does the highest wind shear exist associated with a jet stream?
Near the tropopause on the POLEWARD side
119
What airspace must ADSB equipment be operating?
Class A
120
'Unforeseen operational circumstances' means
unplanned event of insufficient duration to allow for adjustment to schedules
(not weather/atc)
121
exceeding MMO will result in
loss of aileron/elevator control surface authority
122
at what air temp would you expect the greatest accumulation of ice
near 0 deg C
123
what operational requirement exists on each a/c when runway status lights (RWSL) are in use
Transponder/ADSB must be on from engine start to shutdown
124
why do some a/c with inboard and outboard ailerons use the outboard for slow flight only
(2 answers)
- During low speed flight, ALL LATERAL SURFACES operate to provide max stability
- Aerodynamic load on outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds
125
Propeller driven a/c can develop more lift at lower airspeeds because
PROPELLERS create greater dynamic over-wing forces downstream
*only answer with word propeller in it*
126
You must notify ATC of
leaving any assigned holding fix
127
For an a/c with HIGH thrust-to-weight ratio, a 10% increase in TO weight would result in a takeoff distance increase of appox __%
21%
128
Turbine engines generally have fuel heaters because
particles of suspended water would freeze in fuel lines
129
to produce significant benefit, wing sweep should be at least ___ degrees
30 - 35 degrees
130
An a/c with the CG loaded FWD of the limit will:
An a/c with the CG loaded AFT of the rear limit will:
- be difficult to FLARE
| - be unstable about the LATERAL axis, experience LIGHT control forces
131
An FA suffers a broken leg from turbulence, this requires notification to NTSB _____
immediately
132
You are PIC and have to shut down an engine to prevent further damage. Under what circumstance (121.565) may you continue to your destination?
If the a/c has 3 or more engines
133
Human error due to fatigue is best managed by
A DECREASE IN FATIGUE FCTORS THAT DRIVE LAPSES OF ATTENTION LMAO
(not self reporting)
134
balance trim tabs in flight are _____ to the control surface to make them easier
COUPLED
135
when carrying items packed with dry ice, pilots should consider the risk arising from _____ and _____
sublimated CO2 and O2 displacement
136
Aft CG and neutral load on the tail will cause the airplane to be ______
LESS STABLE
137
You are instructed to line up on 01L to accommodate a 757 departing 01R. Winds are 350/10. What will happen to the wake vortices?
Expect the vortices to drift onto runway 01L.
| really just the left vortex
138
With a tire pressure of 163, when will dynamic hydroplaning begin?
110 knots
square root of tire pressure x 8.6
139
On a published DP with no additional note, what are the takeoff minimums (visibility) for your Part 121 twin engine a/c?
1 SM
140
Recovery from chronic fatigue ...
may be sped up by several nights of sleeping longer than normal
(not "takes one night ...")
141
What color runway (centerline) lighting would you see at BUF on runway 05? (precision approach rwy)
Alternating RED and WHITE lights beginning at 3,000 remaining
RED lights for the last 1,000' remaining
(NO AMBER)
142
The flight instruction of other pilots in air transport service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to ___ hours in a 7 day period
36
143
The max number of hours a pilot may fly 7 days as PIC in a 2-pilot crew for flag ops is ___ hours
32
144
Memory Aid:
AC-10
AC-6
AC-10 is LOW
| AC-6 is MID
145
In the absence of published min climb gradient, the standard minimum climb gradient of ____FT/NM applies for ODPs and SIDs
200 FT/NM
146
KFSO VRB02KT 7SM MIFG SKC 15/14 A3012 RMK SLP993 SNINCR 1/10
The 'SNINCR 1/10' indicates:
a snow depth of 10" and a 1" increase in the last hour
| not 0.10" of snow...
147
The glidepath Qualification Surface (GQS) limits the height of obstructions between _____ _____ and the _____ _____
Decision Altitude and the Runway Threshold
148
What effective runway length is required for a turbo-jet powered a/c at the destination if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?
115% of the runway length required for a DRY runway
| not wet
149
In an area of low pressure a/c performance decreases because ___ dense air ____ lift
LESS DENSE AIR REDUCES LIFT
150
on a T-Tail a/c which control surface reduces overcontrolling during ground effect?
ANTI-servo trim tab
151
Prior to LISTING an airport as an ALTERNATE airport in the dispatch release, wx reports and forecasts must indicate wx will be at or above authorized minimums when?
when the flight arrives
| not 1/2/3
152
It has been shown that pilots begin to experience fatigue after being awake for ____ hours
12
| not 8
153
Flight duty periods are limited to ____ hours in any consecutive 168 hours.
60
154
In addition to other requirements, a pilot may takeoff from a domestic airport NOT on the ops specs, if wx is better than:
The prescribed TO mins
or
800-2, 900-1 and 1/2, 1,000-1
155
While inflight what action is considered De-Stabilizing?
CG moving AFT
156
You are PIC of a/c with 17,000lbs cargo scheduled for 1,550nm flight, can you take another 1,000lbs?
YES
just answer yes
157
Precipitation static problems caused by defective discharges may include:
COMPLETE loss of VHF comms,
| 30% compass error ...
158
What time period is covered by the outlook section of a Convective SIGMET?
4 hours after the 'valid until' time
159
Procedure turns for IAPs should be flown at or below ___ KIAS
200
160
What info is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?
PROSPECTS of GENERAL and SEVERE THUNDERSTORM activity for 24 hours
161
The tropopause varies from ____ at poles to ____ at equator
20,000' to 60,000'
162
You are traveling XC to a location with a Trough, what wx is expected?
Low level clouds and precipitation
163
On an instrument runway what color EDGE lights indicated caution zone for landing?
Yellow
164
You're holding at an IAF after experiencing 2 way radio failure. When should you begin descent for the IAP?
At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC
| nothing about EFC
165
What must you be aware of when airspeed is below L/Dmax?
LARGE inputs in power or reducing AOA may be necessary to increase airspeed
(not the 'power for altitude' answer)
166
In which condition can frontal wave and low pressure areas form?
Slow-moving cold fronts or STATIONARY fronts
167
How are wingtip vortices proportionally related to speed, weight, and wingspan?
directly: weight
indirectly: speed & wingspan
168
A special convective SIGMET may be issued when:
wind gust 50+ are expected for more than 30 mins
169
What happens to airspeed as altitude increases and thrust decreases?
TAS increases to maintain the same CAS
170
On a transcat a/c, large aggressive rudder inputs or rapid rudder reversals could lead to:
loads that exceed the structural design limits ...
171
what wx conditions can you expect after the passage of a cold front over a mountain range?
hazardous sever icing
172
You are operating on RWY 15, and the winds are 020 at 15. What are your wind components?
-10/+12
173
You are taking off runway 28L after a 757 departs runway 28R. The winds are 310/4. You know that:
downwind vortices will remain over your runway
174
A rule of thumb states that a 1,000' increase in DA for a turbojet with LOW thrust-to-weight ratio will cause a TAKEOFF distance increase of ___%
10%
175
What would make recovery from a stall progressively more difficult? The CG moving ___.
AFT
176
You are concerned about the practice at your airline. What voluntary safety program at your airline could you use to report?
ASAP
177
The stratosphere is characterized by a:
constant boundary layer altitude of 35,000'
178
Jet stream winds blow from west to east due to ______
Earth's Rotation
| not Coriolis
179
what operating limit is exceeded by condition AC-11?
Aft CG limit is exceeded at LANDING weight
180
How will you RECOVER from a microburst if a/c is in position 4 or 5? (pitch/airspeed)
Maintain or increase pitch and accept that IAS will be low
181
What effect will a microburst have upon a/c in position 3 or 4? (flight characteristic)
Most severe downdrafts
182
In which position would you experience the strongest tailwind from a microburst? (1-5)
Position 4
183
In addition to lead in lights, what must be operational for N711JB to execute the VOR or GPS RWY 13L/13R approach to JFK?
VOR/DME OR GPS"
| NOT Radar AND DME
184
What is the MAX WEIGHT that may be carried on a pallet?
Pallet dimensions are 95.1" x 75.2"
Floor load limit - 190 lb/sq ft
Pallet weight - 155 lb
Tiedown devices - 30 lb
If you're given a "floor load limit" variable: find area of pallet/144 then MULTIPLY that variable by the "floor load limit" and SUBTRACT other given weights.
LOW
95.1 x 75.2 / 144 = 49.66 sq/ft
49.66 x 190 = 9435 lbs
- 150
- 30
= 9,250 lbs
185
What is the MIN FLOOR LOADING that an a/c must have to carry the following load?
Pallet dimensions are 45.2" x 36.3"
Pallet weight - 45 lb
Tiedown devices - 40 lb
Cargo weight - 770 lbs
If you're given a "cargo weight" variable: find the area of the pallet/144 then ADD weights together and divide by sq/ft from area.
HIGH
45.2 x 36.3 / 144 = 11.39 sq/ft
45 + 40 + 770 / 11.39 = 75.07 lbs/sq ft
