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Airline Prep > Shep Air > Flashcards

Shep Air Flashcards

1
Q

A pilot who identifies hazards and mitigates the associated RISKS is exercising

A

The concept of risk management

not ADM

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2
Q

For turbulence avoidance, you would do well to avoid areas

A

Horizontal windshear exceeds 40 knots per 150 (ONE-HUNDERED AND FIFTY) miles

(not 75 miles)

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3
Q

Land and hold short lights consist of

A

a row of in-pavement pulsing WHITE lights

not red rwy entrance lights

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4
Q

Fig. 123 ‘HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VOR ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS…’

A

D-D-P/T

Parallel only
P is on the left

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5
Q

If you exceed the rich limit of the fuel-air ratio in a turbine engine, you can expect it

A

will flameout

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6
Q

You taxi to 28L for takeoff and will follow a 737 landing on 28R. Winds are 350/5. You know that

A

the NOTHERLY crosswind will blow vortices safely to SE

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7
Q 
Memory Aid 
W-2 
W-2 
W-4 
W-4
A

W-2 Distance: LOW
W-2 Weight: MID
W-4 Weight: MID
W-4 Fuel: 1,738lbs

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8
Q

A rule of thumb that 1,000-foot increase in DA for a turboprop with a HIGH thrust-to-weight ratio will cause a takeoff distance increase of ___%

A

7%

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9
Q

A dry line indicates

A

an area with high humidity and INCREASED prob of thunderstorm formation

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10
Q

At what speed with ref to L/Dmax does MAX rate-of-climb for a jet occur

A

a speed GREATER than that for L/Dmax

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11
Q

An increase in airspeed following a decrease in control effectiveness may result in

A

decrease in downwash = TUCK UNDER

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12
Q

As altitude increases, what must happen to TAS and AOA to maintain the same lift?

A

Increase TAS and AOA

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13
Q

The purpose of DILUTING ethylene glycol with water in non-precipitation conditions is to

A

DECREASE the freezing point

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14
Q

Aerodynamic braking is only effective to approx

A

60-70% of touchdown speed

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15
Q

ETOPS alternate airport … CATEGORY ___ and ___ mins

A

CATEGORY 4 and 30 mins

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16
Q

CRM error management includes

A

error prevention
error detection
error recovery

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17
Q

FAROS lighting will do what if traffic is on the landing runway?

A

FLASHING PAPIs

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18
Q

Haze or rain on windshield may result in a ___ final approach

A

a low final approach

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19
Q

At what speed does drag divergence occur relative to the critical Mach?

A

5-10% higher

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20
Q

You are landing at an airport near the coast with a wind shear advisory. Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a LL temp inversion wind shear?

A

CALM or LIGHT wind near the surface
Relatively STRONG wind above the inversion

(no specific degree values associated)

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21
Q

Memory aid conditions:
D
V
R

A

MID

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22
Q

What causes advection fog?

A

MOIST air moving over a COLD surface

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23
Q

A required flightcrew member of an unaugment two-pilot flag op may not exceed how many hours duty in a seven (7) day period?

A

32

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24
Q

You shut down an engine to prevent possible damage. You

A

must land at the nearest suitable airport IN POINT OF TIME where a safe landing can be made

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25
Q

Jet is flying at .80 Mach with OAT of -40 deg C. What is TAS?

A

475

but answer choice is 487 knots

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26
Q

due to twisting forces at high altitude, jet aircraft use spoilers to

A

increase ROLL CONTROL

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27
Q

Who is responsible for the diversion of a flight part 121 conducting supplemental operations?

A

the PIC and
DIRECTOR OF OPS

(not dispatcher)

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28
Q

As flight speed nears the speed of sound…a ______ wave will form…

A

a COMPRESSION wave will form…

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29
Q

A bank angle of 60, 45, 30, and 15 deg will increase induced drag by ___%, respectively

A

300%
100%
33%
7%

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30
Q

On an RNAV (RNP) approach there is a shaded black triangle from the runway threshold. This indicates

A

the visual segment below minimums - IS - clear of obstacles on 34:1 slope

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31
Q

Which max range factor decreases as weight decreases

A

AIRSPEED

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32
Q

What are the lowest weather alternate mins for 121 PIC with less than 100 hours

A

300 - 1

must increase by 100’ and 1/2 mile or RVR equivalent 2400

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33
Q

What condition must domestic flight under 121 list an alternate airport in the dispatch release?

A

1 hr before/after ETA ceiling forecast less than 2000’

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34
Q

At low airspeeds, flight control surfaces become less effective. Because of this, careful application of the rudder can

A

induce a ROLL TO WINGS LEVEL

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35
Q

SIGMET is issued when wx affects ____ square miles or more

A

3,000

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36
Q

The lowest ILS Cat II mins are

A

DH 100

RVR 1,200

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37
Q

8-APCH

A

You are nearing the aprch or dept end path for the designated runway

(don’t pick answer with runway 08 in it)

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38
Q

Vr speeds

A 
117
130
133.7
143
or highest
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39
Q

100 deg F and altimeter 29.85. Given the info, the altimeter indication on the ground would show

A

HIGHER than field elevation

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40
Q

With OAT of less than 0 a pilot can anticipate severe in-flight icing while flying through ___

A

RAIN

NOT visible moisture, snow

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41
Q

When assessing operational risk management, the pilot should know that ___ and ____ play a significant roll

A

stress and fatigue

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42
Q

Each cert holder’s Op Specs must include

A

AUTHORIZATIONS and LIMITATIONS for each type of OPERATION

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43
Q

FRICTION braking becomes effective at __-__% of touchdown speed

A

70-80%

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44
Q

The specific range for a turbojet at 40,000’ is approx ___% greater than at ____.

A

150% greater than at SEA LEVEL

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45
Q

Which type frontal system is usually crossed by the jetstream?

A

Occluded Front

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46
Q

Jet streams are found ___ the tropopause

A

near

not “close to”

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47
Q

Turning performance of an airplane is defined by ____ and power limits at ____ altitudes

A

aerodynamic

high

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48
Q

The most efficient cruise control in a turbojet is

A

the climbing cruise

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49
Q

For an airplane with a relatively LOW thrust-to-weight ratio, a 10% increase in TO weight would result in a TO distance increase of approx __-__%

A

25-30%

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50
Q

Which type of transponder is required for ops in Class A?

A

ADSB-Out operating on 1090 MHz

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51
Q

If VGSI and vertical descent angle (VDA) do not coincide, the VGSI will be ___ the descent angle.

A

BELOW

VDA will be equal to of higher than VGSI

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52
Q

GBAS approaches are most similar to ___ approach for ___ segment

A

ILS

final

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53
Q

In conducting LAHSO ops the pilot should have readily available the published ALD, landing performance, and ___ of all LAHSO combos

A

SLOPE

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54
Q

SIGMETs (other than domestic convective) may be valid for not more than ___ hours

A

4 hours, continuing phenomena. period.

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55
Q

Why is precipitation a major factor in reducing the HOT in deicing fluid?

A

Precipitation DILUTES the fluid.

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56
Q

Max turbulence potential charts are issued ____

A

hourly

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57
Q

What identifies a transient compressor stall

A

Intermittent ‘bang’

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58
Q

You may not initiate a flight with a 3-pilot crew if the total flight time will exceed ___ hours

A

13

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59
Q

The holder of an ATP/restricted ATP certificate may act as ___ for a 121 carrier with an a/c type rating for the a/c to be flown

A

SIC

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60
Q

Air only 10% saturated with water vapor is ___ dense than ____ air

A

MORE dense than

DAMPER air

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61
Q

Which condition has the effect of greatly reducing critical engine failure speed (V1) on transcat airplane?

A

Runway length

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62
Q

What happens to stall speed as the a/c gains altitude?

A

Increases

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63
Q

How does the minimum landing distance increase if the airplane landing weight were increased by 10%?

A

10%

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64
Q

Which is a stall characteristic of a T-tail jet a/c?

A

The elevator will still be effective into the beginning of the stall

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65
Q

runway lighting available for ALSAF-2 is

A

TDZ

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66
Q

The US low level Sig WX Prog chart depicts weather conditions:

A

that are forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart

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67
Q

If engine’s thrust line is ABOVE the CG it is:

A

STABILIZING

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68
Q

LGA RWY 13 FICON 1/1/1 100PRCT PTCHY SN AND ICE

A

icy runway with patchy snow and ice.

not the answer with “completely” in it

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69
Q

The PIC has not served 100 hours as PIC in Part 121 ops in the type a/c being flow. The MDA or DA/DH and vis for landing …. are increased by:

A

100 feet and 1/2 SM

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70
Q

Why is it important to keep in mind ZFW?

A

To LIMIT load forces on the wing spars

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71
Q

CRM training is most effective when it is centered on having

A

clear and comprehensive SOPs

not CRM instructors

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72
Q

What may be the cause of a low level temperature inversion?

A

The air on the surface cools faster than the air above

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73
Q

Dew point fronts result from Air density differences due to ______

A

HUMIDITY LEVELS

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74
Q

ATIS will include “braking action advisories in effect” when runway conditions are reported to be ____

A

MEDIUM

not fair

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75
Q

If unforeseen circumstances arose AFTER TAKEOFF the duty period may be extended as much as

A

necessary

76
Q

Supercooled water droplets have been observed at temps as low as

A

-40 DEG

77
Q

ATC clears you to a waypoint to hold. Upon reaching the waypoint, you must:

A

report the time and altitude upon reaching the holding fix (always, radar/request doesn’t matter)

78
Q

GBAS is a

A

ground based augmentation to GPS focused on the airport area

79
Q

What is the fuel used to top of climb for Operating Conditions W-4?

A

1738

Memory Aid

80
Q

Some a/c are equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons. They are used to

A

help with control at slower landing speeds

81
Q

What effect will a microburst have upon a/c in position 1 (airspeed indication)

What effect will a microburst have upon a/c in position 2 (airspeed indication)

A

IAS would INCREASE

IAS would NOT CHANGE

82
Q

Deviation from ATC clearance in response to an RA requires notification to NTSB _____

A

immediately

83
Q

What document should a pilot reference to determine MAX TO WT for a given ambient air temp and FE?

A

Approved AFM (airplane flight manual)

84
Q

What is the required climb gradient in Ft/min if your GS is 90 and you must maintain 400Ft/NM?

A

600 Ft/Min

E6B
90/60 = 600/400

85
Q

LAHSO includes landing and holding short of:

A

SOME designated point on the runway

86
Q

For oceanic flights a US high level SIGWX chart is prepared for use between FL___ and FL___

A

FL250 and FL630

87
Q

Airfoil drag may increase as a result from ice accretion by as much as ___%

A

100%

88
Q

The increase in specific range with altitude (increase) of the turbojet a/c can be attributed to 3 factors.

A
  • an increase in altitude in the TROPOSPHERE results in lower inlet air temperature
  • increased engine turbine RPM producing more thrust
89
Q

What temperature should deice/anti-ice fluid be during the last step of a two-phase process?

A

Cold

90
Q

CAT associated with mountain wave may extend as far as:

A

5,000’ ABOVE the tropopause

91
Q

LGA RWY 13 FICON 3/3/3 100 PRCT 2IN DRY SN OVER COMPACTED SN OBSERVED

A

Braking condition and heading control difficulty with 100% of runway covered in 2 in of dry snow over compacted snow

4 = Good to Medium
3 = MEDIUM
2 = Medium to Poor
92
Q

What wx conditions are required for a visual approach

A

1000’ ceilings and 3sm vis

93
Q

What is an indication of possible wind shear due to a decreasing headwind when descending on the glide slope?

A

Higher PITCH attitude required

94
Q

Which turbine indicating systems compensate for airspeed and altitude?

A

EPR

engine pressure ratio

95
Q

Where can you expect the most turbulence associated with a jet stream? (which pressure side)

A

LOW pressure side of the jet stream core.

96
Q

Runway centerline lights are inop. No HUD or FD. On an ILS CAT I, what are your minimums?

A 
200' AGL
2400 RVR (1/2 SM)
97
Q

SIC with less than 100 hours is flying with a PIC who is not check airmen. Under what condition would SIC not be allowed to land?

A
  • WINDSHEAR is reported in the vicinity

- braking action is less than ‘good’

98
Q

Taxiway center lead-off lights are color coded to warn that you are within the _____ or _____

A

RUNWAY environment OR ILS critical area

99
Q

A stable air mass is moving over a mountain, you can expect what flight characteristics on the windward side?

A

Smooth flight

100
Q

Define “severe wind shear”

A
  • Rapid change in WIND DIRECTION or VELOCITY, airspeed changes greater than FIFTEEN (15) knots !!!!!
101
Q

The max flight time in 24 hours that a flag carrier may schedule a pilot in an unaugmented two-pilot flight crew, without a rest period, that must report for duty at 0400 is

A

8 hours

102
Q

An a/c with a CG at the forward limit will

A

be very stable in pitch

103
Q

What is the a/c weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-2?

A

MID

104
Q

Weight, BA, airspeed, and LF have ____ effect on the stall angle of attack.

A

NO effect

105
Q

SIC under Part 121 must hold an ____ with an ____

A

ATP cert. with an appropriate a/c TYPE RATING

NOT 1st class medical

106
Q

What is the approx rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?

A

3 deg per 1,000’

107
Q

You are nearing the aprch or dept end path for the designated runway 8-APCH, you must:

A

obtain ATC clearance prior to crossing

108
Q

The Mach number which produces a sharp change in the drag coefficient is termed the

A

FORCE divergence Mach number

109
Q

Swept wings _____ the force divergence number

A

increase

110
Q

Memory Aid

X and Z

A

LOW

exceptions:
X-5 is 2+55
Z-2 is 1+46

111
Q

Identify ADM concepts:

A

Hazards and Risks

112
Q

How can you identify the approach end of a runway?

A

REIL

not TDZL

113
Q

The use of UN-diluted ethylene glycol must be avoided in non-precipitation conditions because

A

the viscosity is too high

114
Q

Under Part 121, the authority to exercise operational control lies with the _____

A

Air Carrier

not dispatcher or pilot

115
Q

CRM is defined as the

A

APPLICATION of team management

116
Q

One typical takeoff error is ____ rotation

A

excess

117
Q

Aerodynamic studies prove that turbojet a/c are ____ sensitive to DA than reciprocating engine a/c

A

MORE

118
Q

Where does the highest wind shear exist associated with a jet stream?

A

Near the tropopause on the POLEWARD side

119
Q

What airspace must ADSB equipment be operating?

A

Class A

120
Q

‘Unforeseen operational circumstances’ means

A

unplanned event of insufficient duration to allow for adjustment to schedules

(not weather/atc)

121
Q

exceeding MMO will result in

A

loss of aileron/elevator control surface authority

122
Q

at what air temp would you expect the greatest accumulation of ice

A

near 0 deg C

123
Q

what operational requirement exists on each a/c when runway status lights (RWSL) are in use

A

Transponder/ADSB must be on from engine start to shutdown

124
Q

why do some a/c with inboard and outboard ailerons use the outboard for slow flight only

(2 answers)

A
  • During low speed flight, ALL LATERAL SURFACES operate to provide max stability
  • Aerodynamic load on outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds
125
Q

Propeller driven a/c can develop more lift at lower airspeeds because

A

PROPELLERS create greater dynamic over-wing forces downstream

only answer with word propeller in it

126
Q

You must notify ATC of

A

leaving any assigned holding fix

127
Q

For an a/c with HIGH thrust-to-weight ratio, a 10% increase in TO weight would result in a takeoff distance increase of appox __%

A

21%

128
Q

Turbine engines generally have fuel heaters because

A

particles of suspended water would freeze in fuel lines

129
Q

to produce significant benefit, wing sweep should be at least ___ degrees

A

30 - 35 degrees

130
Q

An a/c with the CG loaded FWD of the limit will:

An a/c with the CG loaded AFT of the rear limit will:

A
  • be difficult to FLARE

- be unstable about the LATERAL axis, experience LIGHT control forces

131
Q

An FA suffers a broken leg from turbulence, this requires notification to NTSB _____

A

immediately

132
Q

You are PIC and have to shut down an engine to prevent further damage. Under what circumstance (121.565) may you continue to your destination?

A

If the a/c has 3 or more engines

133
Q

Human error due to fatigue is best managed by

A

A DECREASE IN FATIGUE FCTORS THAT DRIVE LAPSES OF ATTENTION LMAO

(not self reporting)

134
Q

balance trim tabs in flight are _____ to the control surface to make them easier

A

COUPLED

135
Q

when carrying items packed with dry ice, pilots should consider the risk arising from _____ and _____

A

sublimated CO2 and O2 displacement

136
Q

Aft CG and neutral load on the tail will cause the airplane to be ______

A

LESS STABLE

137
Q

You are instructed to line up on 01L to accommodate a 757 departing 01R. Winds are 350/10. What will happen to the wake vortices?

A

Expect the vortices to drift onto runway 01L.

really just the left vortex

138
Q

With a tire pressure of 163, when will dynamic hydroplaning begin?

A

110 knots

square root of tire pressure x 8.6

139
Q

On a published DP with no additional note, what are the takeoff minimums (visibility) for your Part 121 twin engine a/c?

A

1 SM

140
Q

Recovery from chronic fatigue …

A

may be sped up by several nights of sleeping longer than normal

(not “takes one night …”)

141
Q

What color runway (centerline) lighting would you see at BUF on runway 05? (precision approach rwy)

A

Alternating RED and WHITE lights beginning at 3,000 remaining

RED lights for the last 1,000’ remaining

(NO AMBER)

142
Q

The flight instruction of other pilots in air transport service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to ___ hours in a 7 day period

A

36

143
Q

The max number of hours a pilot may fly 7 days as PIC in a 2-pilot crew for flag ops is ___ hours

A

32

144
Q

Memory Aid:
AC-10
AC-6

A

AC-10 is LOW

AC-6 is MID

145
Q

In the absence of published min climb gradient, the standard minimum climb gradient of ____FT/NM applies for ODPs and SIDs

A

200 FT/NM

146
Q

KFSO VRB02KT 7SM MIFG SKC 15/14 A3012 RMK SLP993 SNINCR 1/10

The ‘SNINCR 1/10’ indicates:

A

a snow depth of 10” and a 1” increase in the last hour

not 0.10” of snow…

147
Q

The glidepath Qualification Surface (GQS) limits the height of obstructions between _____ _____ and the _____ _____

A

Decision Altitude and the Runway Threshold

148
Q

What effective runway length is required for a turbo-jet powered a/c at the destination if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?

A

115% of the runway length required for a DRY runway

not wet

149
Q

In an area of low pressure a/c performance decreases because ___ dense air ____ lift

A

LESS DENSE AIR REDUCES LIFT

150
Q

on a T-Tail a/c which control surface reduces overcontrolling during ground effect?

A

ANTI-servo trim tab

151
Q

Prior to LISTING an airport as an ALTERNATE airport in the dispatch release, wx reports and forecasts must indicate wx will be at or above authorized minimums when?

A

when the flight arrives

not 1/2/3

152
Q

It has been shown that pilots begin to experience fatigue after being awake for ____ hours

A

12

not 8

153
Q

Flight duty periods are limited to ____ hours in any consecutive 168 hours.

A

60

154
Q

In addition to other requirements, a pilot may takeoff from a domestic airport NOT on the ops specs, if wx is better than:

A

The prescribed TO mins
or
800-2, 900-1 and 1/2, 1,000-1

155
Q

While inflight what action is considered De-Stabilizing?

A

CG moving AFT

156
Q

You are PIC of a/c with 17,000lbs cargo scheduled for 1,550nm flight, can you take another 1,000lbs?

A

YES

just answer yes

157
Q

Precipitation static problems caused by defective discharges may include:

A

COMPLETE loss of VHF comms,

30% compass error …

158
Q

What time period is covered by the outlook section of a Convective SIGMET?

A

4 hours after the ‘valid until’ time

159
Q

Procedure turns for IAPs should be flown at or below ___ KIAS

A

200

160
Q

What info is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?

A

PROSPECTS of GENERAL and SEVERE THUNDERSTORM activity for 24 hours

161
Q

The tropopause varies from ____ at poles to ____ at equator

A

20,000’ to 60,000’

162
Q

You are traveling XC to a location with a Trough, what wx is expected?

A

Low level clouds and precipitation

163
Q

On an instrument runway what color EDGE lights indicated caution zone for landing?

A

Yellow

164
Q

You’re holding at an IAF after experiencing 2 way radio failure. When should you begin descent for the IAP?

A

At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC

nothing about EFC

165
Q

What must you be aware of when airspeed is below L/Dmax?

A

LARGE inputs in power or reducing AOA may be necessary to increase airspeed

(not the ‘power for altitude’ answer)

166
Q

In which condition can frontal wave and low pressure areas form?

A

Slow-moving cold fronts or STATIONARY fronts

167
Q

How are wingtip vortices proportionally related to speed, weight, and wingspan?

A

directly: weight
indirectly: speed & wingspan

168
Q

A special convective SIGMET may be issued when:

A

wind gust 50+ are expected for more than 30 mins

169
Q

What happens to airspeed as altitude increases and thrust decreases?

A

TAS increases to maintain the same CAS

170
Q

On a transcat a/c, large aggressive rudder inputs or rapid rudder reversals could lead to:

A

loads that exceed the structural design limits …

171
Q

what wx conditions can you expect after the passage of a cold front over a mountain range?

A

hazardous sever icing

172
Q

You are operating on RWY 15, and the winds are 020 at 15. What are your wind components?

A

-10/+12

173
Q

You are taking off runway 28L after a 757 departs runway 28R. The winds are 310/4. You know that:

A

downwind vortices will remain over your runway

174
Q

A rule of thumb states that a 1,000’ increase in DA for a turbojet with LOW thrust-to-weight ratio will cause a TAKEOFF distance increase of ___%

A

10%

175
Q

What would make recovery from a stall progressively more difficult? The CG moving ___.

A

AFT

176
Q

You are concerned about the practice at your airline. What voluntary safety program at your airline could you use to report?

A

ASAP

177
Q

The stratosphere is characterized by a:

A

constant boundary layer altitude of 35,000’

178
Q

Jet stream winds blow from west to east due to ______

A

Earth’s Rotation

not Coriolis

179
Q

what operating limit is exceeded by condition AC-11?

A

Aft CG limit is exceeded at LANDING weight

180
Q

How will you RECOVER from a microburst if a/c is in position 4 or 5? (pitch/airspeed)

A

Maintain or increase pitch and accept that IAS will be low

181
Q

What effect will a microburst have upon a/c in position 3 or 4? (flight characteristic)

A

Most severe downdrafts

182
Q

In which position would you experience the strongest tailwind from a microburst? (1-5)

A

Position 4

183
Q

In addition to lead in lights, what must be operational for N711JB to execute the VOR or GPS RWY 13L/13R approach to JFK?

A

VOR/DME OR GPS”

NOT Radar AND DME

184
Q

What is the MAX WEIGHT that may be carried on a pallet?

Pallet dimensions are 95.1” x 75.2”
Floor load limit - 190 lb/sq ft
Pallet weight - 155 lb
Tiedown devices - 30 lb

A

If you’re given a “floor load limit” variable: find area of pallet/144 then MULTIPLY that variable by the “floor load limit” and SUBTRACT other given weights.

LOW
95.1 x 75.2 / 144 = 49.66 sq/ft

49.66 x 190 = 9435 lbs
- 150
- 30
= 9,250 lbs

185
Q

What is the MIN FLOOR LOADING that an a/c must have to carry the following load?

Pallet dimensions are 45.2” x 36.3”
Pallet weight - 45 lb
Tiedown devices - 40 lb
Cargo weight - 770 lbs

A

If you’re given a “cargo weight” variable: find the area of the pallet/144 then ADD weights together and divide by sq/ft from area.

HIGH

45.2 x 36.3 / 144 = 11.39 sq/ft

45 + 40 + 770 / 11.39 = 75.07 lbs/sq ft

Airline Prep (5 decks)

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