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Neuro II > TBI > Flashcards

TBI Flashcards

1
Q

Males are often more affected by TBI than females (true/false)

A

true

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2
Q

Which cause of TBI is the most common?

a. MVA
b. Sports
c. falls
d. other collisions

A

falls

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3
Q

This mechanism of injury in TBI causes more susceptibility to brain damage, infection and rupture of blood vessels

a. open head injury
b. high velocity injury
c. closed head injury
d. low velocity injury

A

open head injury

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4
Q

This mechanism of injury in TBI is more perforation or depressed fracture with diffused axonal damage

a. low-velocity injury
b. high-velocity injury
c. penetration
d. hypoxia

A

high velocity injury

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5
Q

This mechanism of injury in TBI is more linear with fracture contusion at side of impact and possible tear or blood vessels

a. low-velocity injury
b. hypoxia
c. penetration
d. high-velocity injury

A

low velocity injury

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6
Q

What are potential mechanisms of injury with TBI?

A

fractures
direct blow without fracture
penetrating
loss of blood supply from neck injury

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7
Q

A direct blow without fracture will have brain damage due to

A

anoxia

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8
Q

What are the types of primary damage in TBI?

A

focal injury

diffuse axonal injury

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9
Q

This type of TBI is shown as damage to the exact area where hit, with any severity and more severe neurological signs

A

focal injury

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10
Q

This primary damage is acceleration, deceleration and/or rotational damage to the brain

A

diffuse axonal injury

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11
Q

this type of damage may not show signs initially but it will get more severe with edema over time

A

diffuse axonal injury

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12
Q

What is secondary damage with TBI?

A 
increased intracranial pressure
hypoxic-ischemic damage 
infection
seizures
electrolyte imbalance
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13
Q

Increased intracranial pressure can be due to

A

herniation

hematomas

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14
Q

increased intracranial pressure is related to

A

poorer outcomes

increased mortality rates

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15
Q

A direct blow to the head is a cause of diffuse axonal injury (true/false)

A

false

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16
Q

A bruise directly at site of impact is called

a. open head injury
b. closed head injury
c. coup
d. contrecoup

A

coup

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17
Q

As the brain is jolted back, it can hit the skull on the opposite side, this is defined as

a. open head injury
b. closed head injury
c. coup
d. contrecoup

A

countercoup

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18
Q

All of the following are secondary damage to TBI except

a. hypoxic-ischemic damage
b. diffuse axonal injury
c. infection
d. seizure

A

diffuse axonal injury

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19
Q

This type of imaging is good for showing fractures in the skull

a. CT
b. MRI
c. x-ray
d. PET

A

x-ray

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20
Q

Which neurological imaging is good for nonresponsive patients in order to see brain activity?

a. CT
b. PET
c. EEG
d. fMRI

A

EEG

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21
Q

This type of imaging shows mass lesions and brain shifting from acute injury after TBI

a. CT
b. MRI
c. x-ray
d. PET

A

CT

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22
Q

_ is more sensitive than CT

A

MRI

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23
Q

This type of imaging shows disturbances in cerebral metabolism that may not show on other

a. CT
b. MRI
c. x-ray
d. PET

A

PET

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24
Q

This type of imaging shows cognitive dynamics and overall neuroplasticity

a. CT
b. MRI
c. fMRI
d. PET

A

fMRI

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25
Q

What autonomic nervous system changes are seen with TBI?

A 
changes in pulse and respiratory rates
temperature elevations
blood pressure changes
excessive sweating, salivation, tearing
dilated pupils
vomiting
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26
Q

All of the following include changes in the autonomic nervous system except

a. temperature elevations
b. constricted pupils
c. vomiting
d. changes in pulse

A

constricted pupils

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27
Q

All of the following include changes in the autonomic nervous system except

a. dilated pupils
b. changes in pulse and respiratory
c. temperature decreased
d. vomiting

A

temperature decreased

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28
Q

What are the neuromuscular changes that occur?

A 
sensory impairments 
abnormal tone
motor function impairments
impaired balance 
loss of bowel or bladder control 
CN involvement 
locked-in syndrome
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29
Q

What sensory impairments can occur with TBI?

A

changes in primary sensation light touch, deep touch, position sense

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30
Q

What abnormal tone is seen with TBI?

a. low tone
b. high tone
c. normal tone
d. full spectrum

A

full spectrum possible

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31
Q

A patient’s LE is in extension and UE in flexion this describes

a. low tone
b. decorticate
c. rigidity
d. decerebrate

A

decorticate

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32
Q

All of the extremities are in an extension posture, this describes

a. low tone
b. decorticate
c. rigidity
d. decerebrate

A

decerebrate

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33
Q

All of the extremities are in an _ posture = decerebrate

A

extension

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34
Q

Decorticate position

a. LE in flexion and UE in flexion
b. LE in extension and UE in flexion
c. LE in extension and UE in extension
d. none of the above

A

LE in extension and UE in flexion

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35
Q

What are the motor function impairments possible with TBI?

A 
motor control and learning impairments 
loss of selective motor control 
impairments in coordination, timing, sequencing 
paresis 
abnormal reflexes
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36
Q

TBI patients have a loss of bowel or bladder control (true/false)

A

true

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37
Q

What are the cognitive changes seen with TBI?

A 
coma/altered level of consciousness
memory loss
altered orientation
attentional deficits 
impaired insight and safety awareness 
problem-solving 
preservation 
impaired executive functioning
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38
Q

Learning is not affected with memory loss (true/false)

A

false

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39
Q

This is referred to as the time between injury and then the ability to remember ongoing events

A

PTA

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40
Q

Orientation includes

A

person
place
time
situation

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41
Q

This is defined as an inability to stay on task, concentrate or focus and inhibit distraction

a. impaired executive functioning
b. perservation
c. attentional deficit
d. problem-solving impairment

A

attentional deficit

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42
Q

This is usually when they are stuck on one idea and it is all they think about

a. impaired executive functioning
b. perservation
c. attentional deficit
d. problem-solving impairment

A

persevation

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43
Q

What visual changes occur with TBI?

A

cortical blindness

hemianopsia

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44
Q

Awareness of body parts, position of body in relationship to environment is defined as

a. body image
b. right left discrimination
c. spatial relations disorder
d. body scheme

A

body scheme

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45
Q

Dont recognize visual, auditory, or tactile

a. somatoagnosia
b. finger agnosia
c. unilateral neglect
d. agnosia

A

agnosia

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46
Q

Denial or lack of awareness of the problem on one side of the body

a. apraxia
b. agnosia
c. anosognisa
d. somatoagnosia

A

anosognisa

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47
Q

Impairment in scheme, inability to correctly identify or orient the parts of one’s body or the body of another

a. apraxia
b. agnosia
c. anosognisa
d. somatoagnosia

A

somatoagnosia

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48
Q

Ability to perceive self in relation to other objects

a. spatial relations disorder
b. figure-ground discrimination
c. form discrimination
d. body scheme

A

spatial relations disorder

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49
Q

Ability to distinguish foreground from background

a. spatial relations disorder
b. figure-ground discrimination
c. form discrimination
d. body scheme

A

figure ground discrimination

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50
Q

Ability to understand concepts like over, under, around, above and below

a. spatial relations disorder
b. position in space
c. body scheme
d. topographic disorientation

A

position in space

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51
Q

Ability to find ones way from one place to another

a. spatial relations disorder
b. position in space
c. body scheme
d. topographic disorientation

A

topographic disorientation

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52
Q

What are the behavioral deficits seen in TBI?

A 
disinhibition 
impulsiveness 
physical and verbal aggressiveness 
apathy
lability
sexual inappropriateness
irritability
egocentricity
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53
Q

What are communication deficits seen in TBI?

A 
receptive aphasia
expressive aphasia 
dysarthria 
auditory deficits 
impaired reading comprehension 
impaired writing expression 
impaired pragmatics
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54
Q

TBI patients can have dysphagia (true/false)

A

true

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55
Q

List the secondary impairments

A 
contractures
skin breakdown 
DVT 
heterotrophic ossification
decreased bone density 
muscle atrophy 
decreased endurance 
infection 
pneumonia
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56
Q

The Glascow coma scale is used primarily to measure severity of TBI in which setting?

a. Outpatient rehab
b. Acute
c. ICU
d. Home health

A

Acute

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57
Q

Posttraumatic amnesia is defined as

a. Time between injury and ability to motor recovery
b. Time between injury and ability to come out of coma
c. Time between injury and ability to remember ongoing events

A

Time between injury and ability to remember ongoing events

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58
Q

A mild TBI is considered a concussion (true/false)

A

true

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59
Q

Which stage of severity of TBI considers physical, cognitive and behavioral impairments for months that could become permanent

a. Mild
b. Moderate
c. Severe

A

Moderate

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60
Q

Which clinical rating scales can be used to measure employability?

a. GCS and GOS
b. GOAT and GOS
c. DRS and FIM
d. DRS and FAM

A

DRS and FAM

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61
Q

Which category in the ICF table would FAM fit under?

a. Body function/impairment
b. Participation
c. Activity
d. Environment internal

A

Participation

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62
Q

Which category in the ICF table would DRS fit under?

a. Body function/impairment
b. Participation
c. Activity
d. Environment internal

A

Participation

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63
Q

Which clinical rating scale is used at discharge and then 6 months after injury?

a. GCS
b. GOAT
c. GOS
d. Rancho

A

GOS

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64
Q

Which clinical rating scale is used in the subacute stage measuring consciousness?

a. GCS
b. GOAT
c. GOS
d. Rancho

A

Rancho

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65
Q

The glascow coma scale measures what activities?

a. Cognitive status and postural control
b. Cognitive status, motor response and verbal response
c. Eye opening and vegetative state
d. Eye opening, best motor response and verbal response

A

Eye opening, best motor response and verbal response

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66
Q

The purpose of the GOS is to measure

a. Outcome
b. Prognosis
c. Current state of cognition
d. Motor response

A

Prognosis

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67
Q

If a patient is in a coma more than 2 weeks the prognosis for cognitive function is

a. Moderate to good recovery on GOS
b. Moderate to severe on GOS at 1 year
c. Moderate disability to good recovery
d. Moderate to severe on GOS

A

Moderate to severe on GOS at 1 year

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68
Q

If a patient is in a coma less than 1 week, the prognosis for cognitive function is

a. Moderate to good recovery on GOS
b. Moderate to severe on GOS at 1 year
c. Moderate disability to good recovery
d. Moderate to severe on GOS

A

Moderate to good recovery on GOS

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69
Q

If a patient is PTA is measured more than 12 weeks, the prognosis for cognitive function is

a. Moderate to good recovery on GOS
b. Moderate to severe on GOS at 1 year
c. Moderate disability to good recovery
d. Moderate to severe on GOS

A

Moderate to severe on GOS

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70
Q

If a patient PTA is measured less than 4 weeks, the prognosis for cognitive function is

a. Moderate to good recovery on GOS
b. Moderate to severe on GOS at 1 year
c. Moderate disability to good recovery
d. Moderate to severe on GOS

A

Moderate disability to good recovery

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71
Q

A patient scores a 14 on the GCS, their loss of consciousness was less than 30 minutes and PTA was 12 hours. What level of severity should they be categorized under?

a. moderate
b. severe
c. mild

A

mild

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72
Q

A patient scores 10 on the GCS, loss of consciousness for 10 hours and 4 days of PTA. What is their TBI severity level?

a. moderate
b. severe
c. mild

A

moderate

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73
Q

A patient scores a 4 on the GCS, loss of consciousness for 42 hours and has PTA for 14 days. What is their TBI severity level?

a. moderate
b. severe
c. mild

A

severe

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74
Q

GCS of 13-15
loss of consciousness <30 min
PTA 0-1 day
what is the severity level?

A

mild

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75
Q

GCS of 9-12
loss of consciousness 30 minutes-24 hours
>1 to <7 days
what is the severity level?

A

moderate

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76
Q

GCS of 3-8
loss of consciousness >24 hours
PTA > 7 days
what is the severity level?

A

severe

77
Q

Blunt trauma or acceleration/deceleration with confusion, disorientation or impaired consciousness

a. moderate
b. severe
c. mild

A

mild

78
Q

Confusion for days or weeks, physical, cognitive and behavioral impairments for months that could become permanent

a. moderate
b. severe
c. mild

A

moderate

79
Q

Which clinical rating scale measures post-traumatic amnesia?

a. GOS
b. GCS
c. GOAT
d. DRS

A

GOAT

80
Q

This clinical rating scale is used at discharge in acute care and then 6 months later

a. GOS
b. GCS
c. GOAT
d. DRS

A

GOS

81
Q

What levels fall under GOS?

A

vegetative
severely disabled
moderately disabled
good recovery

82
Q

The patient is persistently unresponsive, may have eye-opening, sucking, yawning, localized motor response. Which level of the GOS does this fit?

a. severely disabled
b. good recovery
c. vegetative
d. moderately disabled

A

vegetative

83
Q

Patient is conscious but needs 24 hour care. Which level of the GOS does this fit?

a. severely disabled
b. good recovery
c. vegetative
d. moderately disabled

A

severely disabled

84
Q

Patient is independent and can do self care skills, varying with other deficits. What level of the GOS?

a. severely disabled
b. good recovery
c. vegetative
d. moderately disabled

A

moderately disabled

85
Q

Able to reintegrate into social and work life. Which level of the GOS?

a. severely disabled
b. good recovery
c. vegetative
d. moderately disabled

A

good recovery

86
Q

This clinical rating scale starts with eye opening and has a wide range of scoring, gives measure of employability and overall disability scale.

a. Rancho
b. GOS
c. DRS
d. GCS

A

DRS

87
Q

What are the highly recommended clinical rating scales?

A

Rancho

FIM

88
Q

What are pre-injury characteristics that influence outcomes?

A

cognitive
behavioral
social
physical

89
Q

What are the post injury chacteristics?

A

static

dynamic

90
Q

What are the static post injury factors?

A

trauma
cognitive
physical

91
Q

What are the dynamic postinjury factors?

A 
trauma 
cognitive
behavioral 
social
physical 
environmental
92
Q

What does the DRS measure?

A

arousability, awareness, and responsivity
the cognitive ability for self-care
dependence on others
psychosocial adaptability

93
Q

PT management is based on physical deficits which is influenced by _ function

A

cognitive

94
Q

cognitive function is not relevant to PT management (true/false)

A

false

95
Q

A history and complete chart review should be completed for which levels?

A

all levels

96
Q

systems review should be completed for which levels?

A

all levels

97
Q

Cognitive status should be completed for which levels?

A

all levels

98
Q

What is the clinical rating scale that should be used for cognitive status?

A

Moss Attention Rating Scale

99
Q

This scale measures their ability to pay attention

A

Moss Attention Rating

100
Q

ROM should be examined for which levels?

A

all levels

101
Q

Sensation testing should be done at what levels?

A

formal testing I-IV

modified V-VI

102
Q

Skin integrity should be examined at what levels?

A

all levels

103
Q

Motor examination should be tested at what levels?

A

all but may be modified in levels I-VI depending on cognition

104
Q

What do you need to test with the motor examination?

A

spasticity

reflexes

105
Q

What reflexes should be tested?

A

superficial cutaneous reflex

primitive and tonic reflexes

106
Q

What are the primitive and tonic reflexes that should be tested?

A 
flexor withdrawl
tonic neck 
crossed extension 
grasp
associated reactions
107
Q

An absent reflex would be scored _

a. 0
b. 1+
c. 2+
d. 3+
e. 4+

A

0

108
Q

A reflex of tone change, slight, transient with no movement of extremities would be scored

a. 0
b. 1+
c. 2+
d. 3+
e. 4+

A

1+

109
Q

A visible movement of extremities (normal) would be scored

a. 0
b. 1+
c. 2+
d. 3+
e. 4+

A

2+

110
Q

An exaggerated, full movement of extremities (brisk) would be scored

a. 0
b. 1+
c. 2+
d. 3+
e. 4+

A

3+

111
Q

An obligatory and sustained movement, lasting for more than 30 seconds would be scored

a. 0
b. 1+
c. 2+
d. 3+
e. 4+

A

4+

112
Q

What motor components need to be examined?

A

quality of movement
variability
movement patterns
balance

113
Q

Quality of movement can be examined at what levels?

A

up to levels 5 and 6 cannot do formalized

114
Q

What levels are appropriate to measure balance?

A

level 7 or higher

115
Q

Posture and alignment should be measured at what levels

A

all levels

116
Q

coordination should be measured at what levels

A

observation 3-4

formal 7 or higher

117
Q

What level can you measure diadokokinesia?

A

any level

118
Q

What level can you measure fatigability?

A

level 4 or higher

119
Q

Functional status can be measured at what levels?

A

level 4 observation

modify levels 5 and 6

120
Q

When can you use outcome measures for functional tasks?

A

level 5 and 6

121
Q

At what level can you expect to do a full set of Core Measures?

A

level VII at the lowest, maybe not until level VIII

122
Q

What neuromuscular movement system diagnoses are possible for a TBI patient?

A

all

123
Q

The FAM is designed to be applicable in which setting?

A

inpatient rehab

124
Q

increase in intracranial pressure is a (primary/secondary) effect

A

secondary

125
Q

Which is the most common primary deficit after TBI?

a. cognitive
b. perceptual
c. behavioral
d. visual

A

visual

126
Q

Which is the most common primary deficit after TBI?

a. cognitive
b. perceptual
c. behavioral
d. visual

A

visual

127
Q

Unilateral neglect is commonly caused by damage to the _ lobe

a. frontal
b. parietal
c. temporal
d. occipital

A

parietal

128
Q

somatoagnosia is a (body scheme/body image) disorder

A

body scheme

129
Q

inability to recognize objects

A

visual agnosia

130
Q

inability to recognize objects

A

visual agnosia

131
Q

inability to identify objects through touch

A

tactile agnosia

132
Q

What is the determinant that a pt is no longer in a coma?

A

spontaneous eye-opening

133
Q

What are the four main acute care goals?

A

maintain pulmonary hygiene
maintain/improve motor skills and ROM for function
functional mobility
cognitive reorientation

134
Q

How can you treat to improve motor skills and ROM in acute care?

A

ROM
casting
positioning
facilitation of normal movement patterns

135
Q

What should be included for treatment in functional mobility in acute care?

A 
mobility training 
wt bearing
trunk rotation
proximal stability with distal mobility
WC upright
136
Q

How do you treat cognitive reorientation in acute care?

A

stimulation
structured environment
family/team involvement

137
Q

Goals of LOCF I-III should include:

A 
increase alertness and function 
reduce risk of secondary impairmetns 
improve postural and motor control
manage tone 
increase tolerance and endurance
138
Q 
These goals are appropriate for which LOCF level (level 1-3, 4, 5-6, 7-up)
increase alertness and function 
reduce risk of secondary impairments 
improve postural and motor control
manage tone 
increase tolerance and endurance
A

LOCF I-III

139
Q

What does management of LOCF I-III look like?

A

decrease abnormal posturing and primitive reflexes
position upright and transition to sitting/standing
sensory stimulation
management of tone
facilitation of movement

140
Q

managing which level of LOCF
decrease abnormal posturing and primitive reflexes
position upright and transition to sitting/standing
sensory stimulation
management of tone
facilitation of movement

A

LOCF I-III

141
Q

What stage focuses on positioning, and posturing the most?

A

LOCF I-III

142
Q

Examination is (passive/active/structured/observational) at level IV

A

observational

143
Q

Exam for LOCF IV should include

A 
cognitive status 
functional mobility/balance
ROM 
motor function 
sensation 
tone
reflexes 
skin integrity
144
Q

Goals for LOCF IV should include

A

increase endurance
prevent secondary impairments
increase activity tolerance
prevent outbursts, assist to control behavior

145
Q

these goals are indicated for which level
increase endurance
prevent secondary impairments
increase activity tolerance
prevent outbursts, assist to control behavior

A

level IV

146
Q

What does a structured program look like?

A 
consistency 
expect no carry over 
model calm behavior 
flexibility
safety
family education
147
Q

A concussion is a _ type of TBI

a. direct blow without fracture
b. penetrating
c. direct fracture
d. diffuse axonal injury

A

diffuse axonal injury

148
Q

sports injuries are the most common cause of a concussion (true/false)

A

false

falls are!!!

149
Q

Who has the highest death rate due to concussions?

a. 0-4 year old
b. 15-25 year old males
c. 65+ year old females

A

65+ year old females

150
Q

What level is focused on impairment and strategy pillars?

A

level V and VI

151
Q 
What level is this 
performance of functional mobility and ADL
improved gait, mobility, balance
increased postural and motor control
prevent secondary problems 
increased strength and endurance 
improve safety in ADL's and mobility 
improve tolerance mobility
A

level V and VI

152
Q

What does intervention in level V and VI look like

A 
structured distributed practice
restorative 
constraint-induced 
work directly on impairments and motor function 
compensatory strategies
153
Q

Which type of practice should be used in levels V and VI?

a. random
b. blocked
c. distributed
d. any type of practice

A

structured distributed

154
Q

At what level can restorative training begin?

a. level 3
b. level 1-8
c. level 4
d. level 5-6

A

level 5-6

155
Q

What does restorative training include?

A

task oriented training
aerobic training
gait training

156
Q

What gait training should be used for TBI level 5 and 6?

a. BW support
b. non BW support
c. treadmill or overgound
d. a and d

A

BW support

treadmill or overground

157
Q

At what level can constraint-induced therapy begin?

a. level 3
b. level 1-8
c. level 4
d. level 5-6

A

level 5 and 6

158
Q

At what level can all pillars be addressed?

A

level 7 and up

159
Q

What level is this
safety improved
improved ADL, community and re-integration
improved functional mobility
motor control, motor learning and postural control improved
self-management of symptoms increased

A

level 7 and up

160
Q

At what level can you give responsibility to the patient?

a. level 4
b. level 5
c. level 6
d. level 7 and up

A

level 7 and up

161
Q

At what level do you expect a patient to be able to reenter the community?

A

level 7 and up

162
Q

males are at a higher risk for a sports related concussion (true/false)

A

false

163
Q

this is a head injury that is usually sufficient enough to result in a loss of consciousness after which 3-8 symptoms arise within 4 weeks

a. post-concussive syndrome
b. persistent post-concussive syndrome
c. diffuse axonal injury
d. head fracture with a concussion

A

post-concussive syndrome

164
Q

Somatic, cognitive, behavioral, and or emotional symptoms that last longer than ones peers

a. post-concussive syndrome
b. persistent post-concussive syndrome
c. diffuse axonal injury
d. head fracture with a concussion

A

persistent post-concussion syndrome

165
Q

Meds should be limited to the first - days post concussion and stopped by _ weeks post

A

2-10 days

2 weeks

166
Q

Who makes the final determination to return back to life?

A

physician

167
Q

Return to work/school/life is based on

A

symptoms
routine activity
graduated exertion

168
Q

Why is relative rest important in the acute phase?

A

demand of brain energy exceeds supply

169
Q

When an individual (typically athlete) sustains a second or subsequent before first head injury has been cleared

A

second impact syndrome

170
Q

Compromised metabolic state can persist for weeks or months (true/false)

A

true

171
Q

Symptoms of cervicogenic headache are not the same as concussion symptoms (true/false)

A

false

172
Q

What can be the source of head pain related to cervicogenic components of concussion?

A

occipital nerve roots

joint complexes

173
Q

cervical spine symptoms are (unilateral/bilateral)

A

unilateral

174
Q

What tests are used for serious neck pathology

A

Vertebral Artery Test
Alar ligament
Transverse ligament

175
Q

deconjugate horizontal eye movements that allow binocular fixation and stereopsis of visual targets at different viewing distances is defined as

a. version
b. vergence
c. alignment
d. accommodation
e. saccades

A

vergence

176
Q

eyes moving symmetrically in the same direction is defined as

a. version
b. vergence
c. alignment
d. accommodation
e. saccades

A

version

177
Q

adjustment of the optics of the eye to keep an object in focus on the retina as the distance from the eye varies

a. version
b. vergence
c. alignment
d. accommodation
e. saccades

A

accomdation

178
Q

rapid ballistic movement of eye that abruptly change point of fixation is defined as

a. version
b. vergence
c. alignment
d. accommodation
e. saccades

A

saccades

179
Q

What can cause a post concussion headache?

A

occulomotor dysfunction

180
Q

seizures can cause additional damage due to high _ and _ requirements

A

oxygen

glucose

181
Q

This hematoma is a tearing of meningeal vessels results in blood collecting between skull and dura

a. subdural
b. intracerebral
c. epidural

A

epidural

182
Q

This hematoma is blood accumulating in the subdural space

a. subdural
b. intracerebral
c. epidural

A

subdural

183
Q

This hematoma causes hypoxia to tissues fed by hemorrhaging blood vessels and adds pressure and distortion to brain tissue

a. subdural
b. intracerebral
c. epidural

A

intracerebral

184
Q

What are the functional outcome measures you would use?

A

DRS

FIM/FAM

185
Q

Hypoxic ischmeia can be (primary/secondary/both) and affects (cognitive/physical/both) function

A

both - secondary more common

both

186
Q

Which imaging is looking for a mass lesion and brain shifting?

A

CT

187
Q

Which imaging shows differences in metabolism?

A

PET or SPECT

188
Q

Which imaging shows cognitive dynamics and overall neuroplasticity?

A

fMRI

189
Q

cortical blindness can be due to

A

coup-countercoup

Neuro II (11 decks)

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