TB & Autoimmune Path Flashcards

1
Q

A potentially serious infectious bacterial disease that mainly affects the lungs. Chronic and granulomatous (masses of immune cells that form at sites of infection or inflammation)

A

Tuberculosis

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2
Q

What causes tuberculosis (TB)?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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3
Q

Tuberculosis causes a type __ hypersensitivity reaction

A

IV

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4
Q

The 2 unique cells in granulomas are ___ and ___, both derived from macrophages

A

Epithelioid cells

Langhans giant cells

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5
Q

When granulomas become necrotic they show ____ necrosis

A

Casseous (a crumbly, dull white appearance that resembles cheese)

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6
Q

____ is caused by inhalation of aerosolized tubercle bacilli and occurs in the lung with development of a granuloma (Ghon focus). Occurs in a previously uninfected person.

A

Primary tuberculosis

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7
Q

____ tuberculosis occurs in a previously infected person

A

Secondary (reactivation)

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8
Q

Secondary tuberculosis is localized to what part of the lung?

A

Apex

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9
Q

The initial testing for tuberculosis suspicion is ____

A

Chest X-Ray (CXR)

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10
Q

The screening test for high risk groups for tuberculosis is?

A

PPD test (Purified Protein Derivative)

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11
Q

High risk groups for tuberculosis are?

A
  • homeless
  • alcoholics
  • health care workers
  • recent immigrants
  • prisoners
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12
Q

In the PPD test, a person in category 1 (close contacts, steroid users, HIV+ patients) is positive if the skin ‘bleb’ is __ to __mm

A

5-9mm

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13
Q

In the PPD test, a person in category 2 is positive if the skin ‘bleb’ is 10-14mm. Who is in category 2?

A

High risk groups

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14
Q

In the PPD test, a person in category 3 (low risk groups) is positive if the skin ‘bleb’ is >__mm

A

15

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15
Q

The presence of many small granulomas in any organ

A

Miliary (if in lungs = miliary tuberculosis)

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16
Q

Refers to a lack of immune responsiveness to one’s own tissue antigens

A

Self tolerance

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17
Q

Refers to deletion of self-reactive T and B lymphocytes during their maturation in central lymphoid organs (thymus for T cells, bone marrow for B cells)

A

Central tolerance

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18
Q

Mature lymphocytes that recognize self-antigens in peripheral tissues become functionally inactive or are suppressed by regulatory T lymphocytes (or die by apoptosis)

A

Peripheral tolerance

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19
Q

___ autoimmune diseases are non-organ specific

A

Systemic

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20
Q

Relating to disease caused by antibodies or lymphocytes produced against substances naturally present in the body

A

Autoimmune

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21
Q

Addison’s disease affects the ____ gland

A

Adrenal

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22
Q

What test is an important screening test for systemic autoimmune diseases?

A

Antinuclear antibody test (ANA) - performed w/a fluorescence microscopy method

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23
Q

The immune complexes of this disease tend to deposit in kidney glomeruli and in small arteries and arterioles in different tissues resulting in necrotizing vasculitis

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

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24
Q

SLE (lupus) has a female to male ratio of ____

A

9:1

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25
Major causes of death is SLE? (2)
Renal failure and CNS involvement
26
40-60% of SLE patients have this anti-nuclear antibody
Anti-dsDNA (ds=double stranded)
27
__ to __% of SLE patients have Anti-Smith antibodies
20-30%
28
>95% of patients with drug-induced lupus have this anti-nuclear antibody
Anti-histone
29
What is a classic sign of SLE?
Butterfly rash on the face
30
Treatment for SLE?
Steroids and other immunosuppressive drugs
31
With treatment, __ to __% have 10yr and 5yr survival rates respectively
80-90%
32
An autoimmune lymphocytic inflammatory destruction of the lacrimal and salivary glands resulting in dry eyes and mouth
Sjogren syndrome (SS)
33
Between __ and __% of patients with sjogren syndrome show another autoimmune disease such as RA or SLE
25-60%
34
90% of cases of sjogren syndrome occur in females between __ and __ years of age
35-45yo
35
There is a 40-fold increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin B cell lymphoma w/this autoimmune disease
Sjogren syndrome (SS)
36
Diagnostic test for SS?
Schirmer test (Paper held to eye)
37
Treatment for SS?
Pilocarpine (^acetylcholine which ^ oral and ocular secretions)
38
This autoimmune disease causes excess deposition of collagen in multiple organs and tissues. The skin is most often affected
Systemic Sclerosis (Scleroderma)
39
The limited symptoms of scleroderma are referred to as ____ (acronym)
CREST
40
CREST stands for what?
``` Calcinosis Raynaud's phenomenon Esophageal dysfunction Sclerodactyly Telangiectasias ```
41
Sclerodactyly
Thickening and tightening of the skin on the fingers and hands
42
Calcium deposits in the skin
Calcinosis
43
Dilation of capillaries causing red marks on surface of skin
Telangiectasias
44
Spasm of blood vessels in response to cold or stress
Raynaud's phenomenon
45
Acid reflux and decrease in motility of esophagus
Esophageal dysfunction
46
Anti-Scl 70 against DNA Topoisomerase 1 seen in 70% of patients with diffuse ____ who are likely to develop more aggressive disease
Scleroderma
47
Anti-centromere antibody present in __% of patients with limited scleroderma (benign)
90%
48
Pathogenesis of this disease is fibroblast activation w/excessive fibrosis
Scleroderma
49
These two autoimmune diseases are an antibody-mediated tissue injury. Most patients have Jo-1 antibodies (against RNA Synthetase)
Dermatomyositis, polymyositis
50
T/F: patients w/dermatomyositis or polymyositis would have difficulty getting up from a chair or climbing steps.
True
51
____ shows an associated skin rash often affecting the upper eyelids and causing periorbital edema
Dermatomyositis
52
Dermatomyositis might show ___ papules on knuckles
Gottron's
53
A systemic chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease that mainly involves joints, producing chronic synovitis
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)
54
Rheumatoid factor is present in the blood in __% of RA patients
80%
55
RA patients have an increased risk of cardiovascular disease including ________
Coronary artery atherosclerosis
56
It is proposed that this disease is initiated by activation of CD4+ helper cells responding to arthritogenic agent or to a self-antigen
RA
57
Abnormal stiffening and immobility of a joint due to fusion of the bones
Ankylosis
58
Treatment for RA?
NSAIDS | Anti-rheumatic drugs
59
The presence of clinical and pathologic features of systemic lupus Erythematosus (SLE), systemic sclerosis (scleroderma), and polymyositis in combination
Mixed Connective Tissue Disease (CTD)
60
Pulmonary involvement occurs in up to __% of Mixed CTD patients
85%
61
In Mixed CTD, there are ^ titers of antibodies to an antigen called ______
U1RNP
62
Treatment for mixed CTD?
Steroids
63
Causes of congenital disease? (4)
- drugs and chemicals - ionizing radiation (x-ray) - maternal infections - genetic (chromosomal abnormalities)
64
A congenital absence of proximal portion of a limb (due to Thalidomide)
Phocomelia
65
Two or more digits fuse together
Syndactyly
66
Spina bifida occulta occurs in about __% of people
20%
67
Protrusion of the meninges
Meningocele
68
Extension of the CNS tissue through a defect in the vertebral column. Most common in the lumbosacral region. Infection is a common complication
Myelomeningocele
69
Absence of calvarium (upper skull portion containing the brain) and brain. As a group these are the most common CNS congenital defects and most common congenital defects overall
Anencephaly
70
In anencephaly, the neural tube closes between __ and __ days gestation
22 and 28
71
In maternal screening, ____ protein has increased, an early detection of neural tube defects
Alpha-feto
72
The earliest stage of a developing organ?
Primordium
73
Partial, but incomplete development of an organ. The organ is of small size
Aplasia
74
An abnormally formed organ, may be of different sizes. This would be called _____
Dysplasia
75
No sign of organ development
Agenesis
76
Failure of the esophagus to develop continuously into the stomach
Esophageal atresia
77
Clinical sign for esophageal atresia?
Infant w/excessive drooling. Swallows normally, but liquid regurgitates through nose and mouth
78
A group of microorganisms that either infect the fetus in utero by crossing the placenta, or at the time of birth.
TORCH Syndrome
79
What do the letters of TORCH stand for?
``` Toxoplasmosis/toxoplasma gondii Other vertically transmitted infections Rubella Cytomegalovirus Herpes Simplex Virus-2 ```
80
This congenital disease is due to an extra X chromosome. The person will be tall w/long arms and legs, small testis and penis, female pubic hair profile, gynecomastia (man boobs), high pitched voice, reduced facial and body hair
Klinefelter syndrome
81
In Klinefelter syndrome, associated disorders such as breast cancer and Lupus (SLE) are __x more common as compared to unaffected males
20x
82
This congenital disease results from absence (57%) or abnormality (43%) of the second X chromosome
Turner syndrome
83
The females in Turner syndrome w/an ABSENT second X chromosome are most severely affected and are stillborn in an estimated __% of cases
99% !
84
Name the congenital disease: short stature, infantile genitalia, widely spaced nipples, micrognathia and prominent ears, widened (web) neck, amenorrhea (no menstrual period), congenital renal and aortic abnormalities
Turner syndrome
85
In this congenital disease, 3 copies of chromosome 21 are present
Down's syndrome
86
Down's syndrome occurs 1 in __ births overall
700
87
Features of this congenital disease: flat facial profile, horizontal Palmer crease on hands, intellectual retardation, tend to develop clinical Alzheimer's after age 40, cardiac abnormalities, increased susceptibility to infections and childhood leukemia
Down's syndrome
88
This congenital disease is an autosomal dominant disorder of connective tissues. The basic defect affects Fibrillin 1, which is a scaffold for elastic fibers
Marfan's syndrome
89
In Marfan's syndrome, __% of cases are familial
75%
90
This congenital disease results in long extremities and fingers, depressed or protruding sternum and spinal deformities such as kyphosis and scoliosis. Affects the cardiovascular system and eyes as well
Marfan's syndrome
91
This congenital disease results from defects in type I and type III collagen. 10 clinical variants are known. Other features include hyperelastic skin and hypermobile joints
Ehlers Danlos Syndrome (EDS)
92
EDS type __ is the most severe and may cause rupture of the colon or large arteries
IV
93
This viral infection is a herpes virus. It causes infectious mononucleosis and infects two types of cells - Oropharyngeal epithelial cells & B lymphocytes.
Epstein Barr Virus (EBV)
94
This viral infection causes extreme fatigue. Lymphocytes are increased in the peripheral blood and some of them show reactive changes
Infectious mononucleosis (Mono)
95
A skin rash or eruption
Exanthem
96
A mucosal rash or eruption on the oral mucosa
Enanthem
97
Common name for the viral infection, Rubeola?
Measles
98
This viral infection is caused by Morbillivirus-a single stranded RNA virus. It infects the respiratory tract before spreading via the blood and lymph. Results in Koplik's spots followed by a rash behind the ear spreading to the body
Measles
99
Measles symptoms are the 3 C's:
Cough Coryza (stuffy nose) Conjunctivitis
100
German measles are also called ____
Rubella
101
This viral infection infects cells of upper respiratory tract and spreads via blood and lymph. Sx include fever, fine maculopapular rash and enlarged lymph nodes. In pregnancy causes severe congenital defects. Diagnosis confirmed by serological testing for IgM
Rubella (German measles)
102
A small, unenveloped, single-stranded DNA virus. Also known as Erythema Infectiosum. Rash begins on cheeks and spreads to arms, thighs, trunk, buttocks. Sx: mild fever, slapped cheek appearance. Sunlight aggravates rash
Parvovirus B19
103
At the time of infection this virus causes chickenpox, and later on can cause shingles
Varicella-Zoster Virus
104
T/F: Give aspirin to a child with chickenpox to help w/the symptoms
False! DO NOT (liver and brain damage)
105
Over 100 types of this viral infection are recognized based on DNA sequence differences. It is a non-enveloped DNA virus w/an affinity for epithelial cells of the skin and mucous membranes
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
106
Common name for condyloma acuminatum
Genital warts
107
The most common sexually transmitted disease in the US
HPV