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Pathology > GenitoUrinary > Flashcards

GenitoUrinary Flashcards

1
Q

The basement membrane of the glomerulus is surrounded by a bunch of small tubes called _____, which regulate blood flow

A

Foot processes

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2
Q

The visceral epithelial cells of Bowman’s Capsule

A

Podocytes

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3
Q

The production of normal urine protein in the kidneys is __ to __mg/24 hours

A

100-150mg

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4
Q

___ is an increase in Blood Urine Nitrogen (BUN) and Creatinine levels w/a decrease in Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

A

Azotemia

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5
Q

When clinical signs and symptoms become apparent, Azotemia becomes ____

A

Uremia

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6
Q

In ___ syndrome, the primary defect is decreased glomerular filtration rate resulting in oliguria (decreased urine output)

A

Nephritic

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7
Q

The primary defect of NEPHROTIC syndrome is increased permeability of the glomerular filter to protein resulting in increased protein in the urine, called _____

A

Proteinuria

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8
Q

In ___ syndrome, hematuria (RBC’s in urine) is found, as well as hypertension and glomerular inflammation

A

Nephritic

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9
Q

In ___ syndrome there is NO inflammation in glomeruli

A

Nephrotic

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10
Q

There is LESS than 3.5 grams per day of proteinuria in ___ syndrome, while MORE than 3.5 grams/day is associated with ___ syndrome of the kidney

A

Nephritic, nephrotic

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11
Q

Hypoproteinemia (decreased protein in the blood), hyperlipidemia (increased lipoproteins in the blood), lipiduria (lipoproteins in urine), and edema are all results of ____ syndrome

A

Nephrotic

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12
Q

When the GFR has decreased to __-__ml/minute from the normal of 125ml/minute it is severe enough to be termed end renal failure and renal dialysis is required

A

10-20

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13
Q

_____ glomerulonephritis occurs 1-4 weeks post strep infection, usually in children. Red/brown urine is a common clinical presentation

A

Acute proliferative post-streptococcal

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14
Q

IgA Nephropathy, AKA ____ disease

A

Berger’s

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15
Q

____ Glomerulonephritis shows crescents composed of cells and protein in the glomerulus. It is also post-streptococcal

A

Rapidly progressive (Crescentic)

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16
Q

Anti-GBM (glomerular basement membrane) or Goodpasture (Type I), Immune complex like lupus or idiopathic (Type II), and Pauci-Immune ANCA like Wegener’s granulomatosis (Type III) are all possible pathogenesis’ of _____

A

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (Crescentic)

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17
Q

____ Glomerulonephritis is histologic terms indicating marked glomerular scarring with obliteration of glomerular capillaries. Kidney function is severely impaired and clinically this is called end-stage renal disease

A

Chronic

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18
Q

In ___ disease, electron microscopy shows fusion of podocyte foot processes. It is the most frequent cause of the nephrotic syndrome in children (usually age 1-7)

A

Minimal change

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19
Q

Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis accounts for __-__% of cases of nephrotic syndrome. It does NOT respond to corticosteroid therapy (unlike minimal change, which does)

A

20-30%

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20
Q

____ glomerulonephritis usually occurs in ages 30-50, and shows a spike and dome pattern of foot processes

A

Membranous

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21
Q

_____ is caused by immune antibodies reacting to endogenous or planted glomerular antigens

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis

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22
Q

____ (a renal-hypertensive disease) is associated w/hyaline arteriosclerosis (thickening of walls of small arteries and arterioles)

A

Benign Nephrosclerosis

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23
Q

In _____ Hypertension BP will be 200/120mmHg and will present w/pinpoint petechial hemorrhages, papilledema (swelling of pupils), encephalopathy (brain changes), and renal failure. There will be a “flea bite” appearance on the surface of the kidney

A

Malignant

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24
Q

Diabetes mellitus causes hyaline thickening of arteriolar walls (hyaline arteriosclerosis) at the afferent and efferent arterioles of the glomerulus. There is also diffuse thickening of glomerular basement membranes. This would be considered diabetic _____

A

Nephropathy

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25
Q

Nodular hyaline deposits in the glomeruli are known as:

A

Kimmelstiel Wilson lesions

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26
Q

The long name for Lupus is:

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

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27
Q

SLE or Lupus is an example of a Type __ hypersensitivity reaction. It is a systemic autoimmune disease and an example of an immune complex disease.

A

III (3)

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28
Q

Immune complexes are also called _____

A

Antigen-antibody complex

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29
Q

The most common causes of UTI’s (Urinary Tract Infections) are gram-negative bacteria, such as ____ (the most common one)

A

E-Coli

30
Q

A lower urinary tract infection is known as ____. This accounts for more than 99% of UTIs

A

Cystitis

31
Q

An upper urinary tract infection is known as _____

A

Pyelonephritis

32
Q

A condition characterized by excess fluid in a kidney due to a backup of urine (urine obstruction)

A

Hydronephrosis

33
Q

Bilateral complete urinary obstruction causes ____

A

Anuria (failure of the kidneys to produce urine)

34
Q

____ is characterized by multiple expanding cysts of both kidneys that destroy the parenchyma

A

Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD)

35
Q

PKD1 (the defective gene) is located on chromosome _ that encodes a protein called polycystin 1 (involved in cyst formation)

A

6

36
Q

Adenocarcinoma represents __-__% of all primary malignant tumors of the kidney. It is more common in 6th-7th decades of life and more common in men.

A

80-85%

37
Q

The 3 most common forms of adenocarcinoma are: (listed in order of prevalence)

A
  1. Clear cell CA (70%)
  2. Papillary renal cell CA (10%)
  3. Chromophobe renal cell CA (5%)
38
Q

The most frequent presenting symptom of adenoCA is:

A

Hematuria (bloody urine)

39
Q

The 3rd most common renal carcinoma in children younger than 10 is ____ tumor. It contains tissue components mesodermal in origin (embryonic layer that gives rise to bones, skin, etc.)

A

Wilm’s

40
Q

Vaginal discharge is known as ____

A

Vaginitis

41
Q

Inflammation of the uterine cervix is known as ____

A

Cervicitis

42
Q

The causes of vaginitis are fungal. Name the two presented in class

A
  1. Candida albicans

2. Trichomonas vaginalis

43
Q

Name the two bacterial causes of cervicitis

A
  1. Clamidia trachomatis

2. Niceria gonorrhea

44
Q

The viral infections associated with cervicitis are: (2)

A
  1. Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

2. Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

45
Q

Which four types of HPV can lead to cervical CA

A

16, 18, 31, 33

46
Q

Name the two types of cervical cancer discussed:

A
  1. Squamous cell (70%)

2. Adenosquamous (20%)

47
Q

Excess androgens cause ____ syndrome in teenage girls and young adults. (Affects ovaries)

A

Polycystic Ovarian (Stein Leventhal Syndrome)

48
Q

The most common type of ovarian tumor

A

Serous

49
Q

__% of serous ovarian tumors are benign (30-40yo) while __% are malignant (between 45-65yo)

A

60, 25

50
Q

These type of germ cell tumors are discovered in young females as ovarian masses or incidental findings on abdominal x-ray because they contain areas of calcification. They are benign cystic and contain tooth-like structure

A

Teratomas

51
Q

When the ovaries contain thyroid tissue causing hyperthyroidism

A

Struma ovarii

52
Q

A tumor that occurs during pregnancy. A molar disease that is due to an abnormal contribution of paternal chromosomes in the gestation

A

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease

53
Q

When there is an increase in Human Chorionic Gonadotropins (HCG), but no fetal heart sounds it is ____ CA

A

Choriocarcinoma (malignant)

54
Q

Hydropic villi that penetrate the uterus deeply causing rupture and hemorrhage that can be life-threatening (one type of gestational trophoblastic disease). These can embolism to the lungs and brain (not true metastasis)

A

Invasive mole

55
Q

A malignant carcinoma which is discovered by bloody, brownish discharge w/an increased titer of Beta-HCG and absence of marked uterine enlargement

A

Choriocarcinoma

56
Q

A rare condition in which tissue around a fertilized egg that normally would have developed into the placenta instead develops as an abnormal cluster of cells.

A

Hydatidiform mole (also called molar pregnancy)

57
Q

Gestational trophoblastic disease occurs where?

A

Uterus

58
Q

Name 3 uterine diseases:

A
  1. Endometritis
  2. Endometriosis
  3. Adenomyosis
59
Q

When the basal layer of endometrium grows into the myometrium

A

Adenomyosis

60
Q

The presence of endometrial glands outside the uterus. 80% in ovaries

A

Endometriosis

61
Q

Called “chocolate cyst”

A

Ovarian endometriosis

62
Q

Endometrial cancer (ages 55-65) has mutations of the ____ gene

A

PTEN

63
Q

A benign tumor of smooth muscle in the uterus. Commonly called a fibroid

A

Leiomyoma

64
Q

A benign breast tumor that is solitary, freely movable, and a rubbery mass. Usually appear in young females aged 20-35. It is the most common benign neoplasm of the female breast.

A

Fibroadenoma

65
Q

A retention cyst containing milk or a milky substance that is usually located in the mammary glands

A

Galactocele

66
Q

The cause of hyperplasia in the uterine glands?

A

Estrogen

67
Q

Non-invasive malignant breast cancer types include Ductal CA in situ, Lobular CA in situ, and ____ disease of the nipple.

A

Paget’s

68
Q

This is caused by an extension of ductal CA in situ (DCIS) up to the lactiferous ducts and into skin of the nipple. The appearance is a crusting exudate from lactiferous ducts to the nipple and areola

A

Paget’s disease of the nipple

69
Q

____ carcinoma of the breast may cause skin dimpling, nipple retraction, and fixation to the chest wall.

A

Invasive

70
Q

Type __ breast cancer is invasive CA greater than 5cm with metastasis, or any tumor with fixation to underlying muscle

A

III

71
Q

Type __ breast cancer is invasive CA 2-5cm in diameter with up to 3 involved axillary nodes, or invasive CA >5cm w/o nodal invasion (metastasis)

A

II

Pathology (9 decks)

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