Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

Abnormal mass of tissue whose growth exceeds that of normal tissue

A

Neoplasm

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2
Q

Name the three categories of neoplasm:

A
  1. Benign
  2. Malignant
  3. Metastasis
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3
Q

How are tumor cells typically carried?

A
  • lymphatics

- blood

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4
Q

____ tumors are designated by adding the suffix “oma” to the cell type. Ex: fibrous tissue = fibroma

A

Benign

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5
Q

____ arise from mesenchymal tissue, while ____ are of epithelial cell origin

A

Sarcomas, Carcinomas

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6
Q

Carcinomas typically spread by ____, while sarcomas favor a _____ spread

A

Lymphatics, hematogenous

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7
Q

A general term for a malignant tumor of any type

A

Cancer

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8
Q

_____ is a BENIGN tumor of glandular epithelial origin, and ____ is a MALIGNANT tumor of glandular epithelial origin

A

Adenoma, adenocarcinoma

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9
Q

Name the histologic grading scale for malignant tumors

A

Broder’s grade

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10
Q

What are the grades given to malignant tumors (Broder’s scale) in numbers?

A

Grade 1-4

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11
Q

____ is a histologic change indicating neoplastic change of the cells showing it (Ex: uterine cervical squamous epithelium)

A

Cellular dysplasia

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12
Q

Cellular dysplasia can be graded as mild, moderate or severe (severe being squamous cell carcinoma in situ). What test is normally done on the cervix to grade these?

A

Pap smear

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13
Q

The “CIN” system stands for?

A

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (grading scale)

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14
Q

5 most common metastasis sites?

A
  • adrenal
  • brain
  • liver
  • lung
  • bone
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15
Q

In the TNM system of staging malignant tumors, the T is for what?

A

Describing the size of the primary tumor

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16
Q

In the TNM system, the N =?

A

Indicates the presence or absence of lymph node spread and the extent of spread (metastasis) when it is present

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17
Q

In the TNM system, M = ?

A

The presence or absence of hematogenous (blood borne) metastasis and the extent if it is present

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18
Q

A tumor mass results from the clonal expansion of a single progenitor cell that has been genetically damaged by environmental agents such as chemicals, radiation, viruses, or inherited

A

Genetic hypothesis of Cancer

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19
Q

The induction or formation of tumors (cancer)

A

Oncogenesis

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20
Q

Precursors of oncogenes

A

Protooncogene

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21
Q

Genes that produce cancer

A

Oncogene

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22
Q

Activation of __ protooncogene is associated with 30% of cancers

A

ras

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23
Q

Translocation of the __ protooncogene from chr 9 to chr 22 causes Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)

A

abl

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24
Q

Inactivation of __ suppressor gene on chr 17 or chr 5 is associated w/the familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome or Gardner’s syndrome

A

APC

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25
Q

UV light induces formation of thymidine dimers which distort DNA molecules causing ___ CA

A

Skin

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26
Q

X-rays and gamma-rays ____ water into free radicals which are mutagenic to DNA

A

Hydrolyze

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27
Q

Control of cell growth involves 5 types of ____

A

Proteins

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28
Q

All normal cells require ___ stimulation for proliferation

A

Growth factor (GF)

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29
Q

____ GF receptor (ERBB1) is overexpressed in ~80% of squamous cell CA of lung, epithelial tumors of head and neck, and ~50% of glioblastomas (malignant tumor affecting head or spine)

A

Epidermal

30
Q

Transforming GF alpha (TGF-Alpha) is secreted by ____

A

Sarcomas

31
Q

Hepatocyte GF (HGF) is secreted by follicular CA of the ____

A

Thyroid

32
Q

Platelet derived GF (PDGF) is secreted by _____

A

Glioblastomas

33
Q

The proteins that take the message into the cell nucleus are called ____

A

Intracellular Signal Transducers

34
Q

Two important members of signal transmitting proteins are ___ and ___

A

RAS, Abl

35
Q

Normal Abl resides in the ____ where it promotes apoptosis of damaged DNA

A

Nucleus

36
Q

In leukemias, mutated Abl (BCR-Abl) gene cannot perform apoptosis of damaged DNA because it is retained in the ______

A

Cytoplasm

37
Q

The mutated BCR-Abl can be blocked with ____ to stop the wrong signal for proliferation and survival (ultimately becomes leukemia)

A

Gleevec

38
Q

Proteins that attach to DNA and initiate transcription

A

Transcription Factors

39
Q

The oncogenic versions of the ___ gene are associated w/persistent or over-expression leading to sustained proliferation

A

Myc

40
Q

Dysregulation of the Myc gene resulting from a translocation occurs in ____ lymphoma (B cell tumor)

A

Burkitt

41
Q

Cell cyclins and Cylcin-dependent kinases (CDK) regulate the cell cycle via ______ of various substrates

A

Phosphorylation

42
Q

Cyclin _ or CDK_ are a common event in neoplastic transformation

A

D, 4

43
Q

In the cell cycle, the replication of DNA (10-12 hours) is called the ____ phase

A

Synthesis (S)

44
Q

Which phase of the cell cycle is responsible for the production of proteins needed for mitosis?

A

G2 phase (Gap 2)

45
Q

The mitotic phase of the cell cycle take less than __ hr(s)

A

1

46
Q

Which phase of the cell cycle is known as the functional phase?

A

G0 (Gap 0)

47
Q

The G1 phase of the cell cycle is the initial preparations for cell division involving ____ duplication

A

Centrosome

48
Q

__ is activated by DNA damage. The activation drives transcription of CDKN1A which prevents RB gene phosphorylation causing a block in the G1-S portion of cell cycle (allowing repair)

A

p53

49
Q

If repair is not possible, p53 induces _____

A

Apoptosis

50
Q

p53 can be inactivated by binding to proteins encoded by oncogenic DNA viruses like ___ and ___

A

HBV, HPV

51
Q

Is HIV an RNA or DNA virus?

A

RNA

52
Q

HIV invades ___ cells

A

CD4

53
Q

3 phases of HIV infection?

A
  • acute
  • chronic
  • crisis
54
Q

The CDC defines any HIV-infected individual as having AIDS when CD4+ T Cell count is < or = ___uL

A

200

55
Q

Give some symptoms the patient will have during the crisis phase of an HIV infection

A
  • fever > 1 month
  • fatigue
  • weight loss
  • diarrhea
56
Q

Treatment for HIV includes HAART. What is this?

A

Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy

57
Q

Treatment for HIV also includes 2 nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors + 1 ____ inhibitor

A

Protease

58
Q

Most common cause of death in CA (cancer)?

A

Infections

59
Q

Progressive wasting 2nd order to release of TNF-Alpha is called?

A

Cachexia

60
Q

SIADH (Syndrome of Inappropriate Anti-Diuretic Hormone) secretion and Cushing syndrome are associated w/small cell ___ cancer

A

Lung

61
Q

___calcemia is associated w/lung, head, neck, and ovarian cancers

A

Hyper

62
Q

___ thrombosis is associated w/pancreatic and lung cancer

A

Venous

63
Q

Autoimmune production of antibodies against the motor end plate

A

Myasthenia gravis

64
Q

Antibodies against the voltage gated calcium channels in the presynaptic terminal

A

Eaton-Lambert Syndrome

65
Q

Tumor markers are found in the ___ or ___

A

Urine, blood

66
Q

Tumor marker for prostate?

A

Prostate-specific hormone (PSA)

67
Q

Tumor marker for colorectal and stomach?

A

CEA

68
Q

Calcitonin is the tumor marker for the ___ gland

A

Thyroid

69
Q

CA-125 is the tumor marker for ___ CA

A

Ovarian

70
Q

CA-19-9 is the tumor marker for? (2)

A

Pancreas, colon

71
Q

Chemotherapy can reach primary as well as secondary sites. It is toxic to ____ cells

A

Fast dividing

72
Q

The MCC of Cancer deaths by Gender:

  1. Lung and bronchus
  2. (Gender specific)
  3. Colon and rectum
  4. Pancreas
  5. _____ (different)
A
  1. Prostate, Breast

5. Leukemia, Ovary