TB Flashcards
1
Q
Tb 4
Tank trucks transport approx ____ of all fuels used by vehicles
A
90%
2
Q
Tb 4
Designed to carry products with vapor pressure less than?
A
3 psi
3
Q
Tb 4
Single tank truck with 2 or 3 axles Capacities are how many gallons?
A
3000 and 5000
4
Q
Tb 4
Tank truck with semi trailer connected by 5th wheel. One tank is approx ___ feet long with a capacity of _____ gallons
A
40’
9,000
5
Q
Tb 4
Tank truck pulling a two axle trailer. Each truck and trailer tank is approx ____ feet long. Capacity of the tank truck is ______ gallons and the trailer tank is ______gallons.
A
20’
4,200
4,800
6
Q
Tb 4
There are ____ basic types of vehicle tank configurations
A
3
7
Q
Tb 4
Most tanks are made of what?
A
Aluminum
8
Q
Tb 4
Tank wall is thickest where?
A
At the bottom (3/16”)
Gradually gets thinner toward top
9
Q
Tb 4
Tanks usually have how many compartments?
A
2 to 4 with single bulkheads separating
10
Q
Tb 4
When are double bulk heads required?
A
Carrying flammable products with different flash points in the same tank.
11
Q
Tb 4
Relief devices are designed to maintain ___ psi
A
3-5
12
Q
Tb 4
Eliminate ignition sources min of ___ feet from spill
A
100
13
Q
Tb 4
Atmosphere must be below ___% prior to disconnecting battery
A
10%
14
Q
Tb 4
Plan for ___ min foam supply and ____min blanket maintenance
A
15, 15
15
Q
Tb 4
Aluminum tanks melt at approx?
A
1200F
16
Q
Tb 4
Gasoline will burn at ____ foot per hour
A
1
17
Q
Tb 4
Baffles are installed primary for tank ________ and do very little to reduce surge of product
A
Strength
18
Q
Tb 4
Void space contains a leak indicator hole between bulkheads. If illegally plugged, void space could contain up to _____ gallons of product.
A
200
19
Q
Tb 4
Bleve should ____ be a consideration
A
Not
20
Q
Tb 4
For fires use a minimum of ______ hose line with a min of ______ Gpm.
A
1 1/2”
125
21
Q
Tb 4
Do not use plain water unless?
A
To perform a rescue
22
Q
Tb 4
Lafd foam tenders carry _____ gallons of class B foam.
A
1,000
23
Q
Tb 4
Gross weight of vehicle, tank, and product can be as much as _____ pounds.
A
80,000
24
Q
Tb 4
What are required for all uprighting operations?
A
Two 20 ton commercial towing wreckers
25
Tb 4
What is safest and quickest way to off load an overturned tanker?
Drill 4” hole with pneumatic drill. Pumped out with “stinger”
26
Tb 4
_____ or more vacuum trucks will be needed for any incident involving spill, leak, or rollover.
One
27
Tb 4
What size vacuum trucks are available from most haz mat waste haulers?
2,500 and 5,000 gallon
28
Tb 4
It is not uncommon to have a ___ or ____ hr wait between when trucks are requested to when they arrive
One or two
29
Tb 4
Vacuum trucks can hold approx ___% of their rated capacity
90%
30
Tb 4
Vacuum trucks are classified by ____ tank cleanliness standards
Three
Dirty, clean, super clean
31
Tb 4
Vapors are directed a min of ___ feet downwind and downhill from any ignition source.
50
32
Tb 4
Sheared section is a machine groove which reduced wall thickness of an outlet valve or piping at least ____% so strain on piping will not affect the product retention capability of the outlet valve
20
33
Tb 8
Amps are similar to?
Gpm - current flow
34
Tb 8
Volts are similar to?
Pressure - difference in electrical potential
35
Tb 8
What is a Kilovolt
1000 Volts
36
Tb 8
Ohms is similar to what?
Friction loss - electric resistance
37
Tb 8
Ohms law
One ohm is the resistance value which ____ volt will maintain a current of ____ amp.
One, one
38
Tb 8
What is extremely high voltage ?
Excess of 60,000 volts
“Usually transmission voltage”
39
Tb 8
High voltage is ____ volts to _____.
600 to 59,999
“Primaries”
40
Tb 8
OSHA stats indicate that electrocution accounts for ___% of worker deaths annually.
12%
41
Tb 8
In LADWP system the primary distribution lines are usually _____kv
4.8
“Primaries”
42
Tb 8
What is low voltage?
Usually below 600 volts
“Secondaries”
43
Tb 8
Getting electricity to the consumer can be broken down into ___ systems
3
Generation. Transmission. Distribution
44
Tb 8
Voltages on transmission lines range from 69kv to over 1,000kv. Most coming into LA are _____kv
230
45
Tb 8
All voltages above ___kv are referred to as transmission voltages.
69kv
46
Tb 8
Strings of insulators on transmission towers can range from ___ to ____ feet long depending on voltage.
3, 20
47
Tb 8
The voltage is stepped down ___ times in the distribution system before delivered to most consumers.
3
48
Tb 8
Each primary has an average of ____ consumers.
750
49
Tb 8
High voltage capacitors can store charge for ______ after power has been removed.
Weeks
50
Tb 8
Voltage of conductor can or cannot be determined by its size ?
Cannot
51
Tb 8
Insulators are most commonly made of what?
Glass or porcelain
52
Tb 8
Many commercial and industrial installations have service conductors of ________ volts
34,500 volts
53
Tb 8
Most effective method of identifying different voltages are?
1. High voltage sign on cross arm
2. Size and shape of insulators.
3. Distance between conductors
54
Tb 8
How many types of electrical injuries are there? What are they?
4
1. Electrocution
2. Electrical shock
3. Burns
4. Falls
55
Tb 8
_____ of an amp for two seconds is enough to cause death.
1/10
56
Tb 8
Currents above _____ milliamps can paralyze or freeze muscles.
10mA
57
Tb 8
For every minute that defibrillation is delayed, patient sustains a ____% reduction in chance of survival.
10%
58
Tb 8
Heart paralysis occurs at __ amps, tissue is burned with currents greater than ___ amps
4, 5
59
Tb 8
Cut the ________ conductor first.
Closest
60
Tb 8
Aerial ladders must be kept at least ____ feet from all power lines.
10
61
Tb 8
Overhead communication cable at lowest level can be energized with up to ___ volts
50
62
Tb 8
Maintain at least ___ span of poles from affected area, if pole damaged, don’t count it
One
63
Tb 8
Street lights can be fed by conductors carrying ___-____ volts or more.
120 - 6150
64
Tb 8
Utilize ____ degree fog pattern.
Maintain _____ foot distance from source (10 meters)
Ensure min of _____ psi
30, 33, 100
65
Tb 8
Life hazard flagging use min of ____ horizontal strands of fire line tape or flagging at least __”x__”.
3, 1”x3”
66
Tb 8
Occupants in vehicles should drive clear of wires at least ____ feet
35
67
Tb 8
Min of ____ feet safe distance from transmission towers.
35
68
Tb 8
Min clearance ____ feet beyond outermost wire of transmission lines
100
69
Tb 8
Never direct stream into heavy smoke within _____ feet of high voltage lines
100
70
Tb 8
Explosive range for carbon monoxide is ______ to _____%
12.5 to 74%
71
Tb 8
Manhole covers weigh ____ lbs. have been know you blow _____ feet in the air and distance of _____ feet away
300, 75, 125
72
Tb 8
Dwp tests gloves to ______ volts every _____ days.
10,000 volts, 60 days
73
Tb 10
Bridle consists of ____ lengths of ___ inch steel cable, each approximately ____feet long.
4, 1/8”, 4 1/2’
74
Tb 10
Helicopter unit uses one ____ foot tagline attached to the head of the basket.
200’
75
Tb 10
Helicopter tagline has breakaway Velcro segment that will separate under ____ lbs of pressure.
80
76
Tb 10
Place hose roller over a supported rung and secure _____ rung back.
Next
77
Tb 10
Most stable spot of truck is straight in line position so ladder is operated over cab or trailer, if not possible preferred ________.
Jackknife
78
Tb 10
Simulated rescue. Load ____ sections of ____ hose in basket to simulate pt. Weighs Approx ____ lbs.
3, 2 1/2”, 180
79
Tb 11
The chemical in dry chem extinguisher is _______.
Baking soda (sodium bicarbonate, NaHCO2)
80
Tb 11
Dry Chem is approx _____ as effective as CO2 on hydrocarbon fires.
Twice
81
Tb 11
Dry chem used to neutralize acid spills, hold __ or ___ feet above acid , gently glow on top.
2’ or 3’
82
Tb 11
Dry chem shell tested at ___ psi.
600
83
Tb 11
Dry chem nozzle shapes chemical into a _____ degree fan.
60
84
Tb 11
Dry chem shell is filled with ___ lb of dry chem and pressurized to approx _____ psi with compressed air.
20, 165
85
Tb 11
Dry chem is rated at ______ BC
20
86
Tb 11
Dry chem discharge time fully open is ____ seconds.
10
87
Tb 11
20lb CO2 extinguisher will last ____ seconds.
60
88
Tb 11
Dry chem effective range is approx ___ to ___ feet.
15 to 20
89
Tb 11
Dry chem initial discharge from a distance no closer than __ to __ feet.
6 to 8
90
Tb 11
Dry chem Extinguisher will function effectively between ____ to ____ psi.
125 to 175
91
Tb 11
Dry chem, invert and shake _____ to prevent caking.
Monthly
92
Tb 12
____% of all fires in sprinklered buildings are extinguished or held in check by sprinkler system.
96
93
Tb 12
Junior systems designed for light occupancies where not over ___ or ___ heads likely to operate.
3 to 4
94
Tb 12
Junior system is identified by 3/4” or 1” copper tubing with orfice 1/4” to 3/8” distinguished by ____.
Pintle
95
Tb 12
Junior system will be about ____ as much as standard 1/2” sprinkler.
1/2
96
Tb 3
Aluminum has a melting point of approx ______ degrees F. Which can be expected within _____ min.
1300, 10
97
Tb 3
Aluminum sheets are _____ wide by _____ long. Held by lead headed straw nails twisted around pipe.
26” x 10’
98
Tb 5
Approx ____ % of department responses involve motor vehicles.
20
99
Tb 5
Vapor canisters are required in cars since ______.
1970
100
Tb 5
Air conditioners may emit ________ and __________.
Phosgene and fluoride
101
Tb 5
Hydraulic bumper utilizes gas chamber with nitrogen/helium pressurized to ____ psi.
150
102
Tb 5
Hydraulic bumper can travel up to _____ inches
3
103
Tb 5
Mechanical bumpers employs heavy springs, may travel up to ____ inches
4
104
Tb 5
Bumpers have been known to travel ____ feet horizontal distance.
25
105
Tb 5
To break glass strike in the _____.
Corner. (Tempered)
106
Tb 5
Flashpoint of gasoline is _______.
Specific gravity is ______.
-45F
0.8
107
Tb 5
Flashpoint of diesel is _____.
Specific gravity is ______.
125F
Less than 1.0
108
Tb 5
Shall be fully encapsulated within _____ feet of IDLH.
30
109
Tb 5
Effective range of dry chem extinguisher is _____ to _____ feet.
15 to 20
110
Tb 5
BLEVE is important consideration in vehicles utilizing _____.
LPG
111
Tb 5
Recorded BLEVEs have occurred within _____ min of fire exposure.
10
112
Tb 20
____% fuel conservation is possible through proper vehicle operation, use, maintenance, and trip planning.
10
113
Tb 20
Abide by max speed of _____ mph.
55
114
Tb 20
Most autos get ____% better mpg on hwy at _____ mph than 65mph
18, 50
115
Tb 20
Average vehicle gets best fuel economy at _____ mph
45
116
Tb 20
Increasing speed 40 to 70 mph, dropped fuel economy by _____%
25
117
Tb 20
Avoid idling. Any delay more than ____, turn off engine.
1 minute
118
Tb 20
Recommended time for warming up an engine is _____ to _____.
30 sec to 1 min.
119
Tb 20
Fast getaways can burn over ___% more fuel than normal acceleration
50
120
Tb 20
Varying speed by 5mph on hwy can reduce fuel economy by ___%
10
121
Tb 20
For every ___ pounds under inflated tires you lose about ____% fuel economy.
2, 1
122
Tb 20
An out of tune engine can drop fuel economy by ___%
10
123
Tb 20
The most important fuel saver of all is ___________.
Driver attitude
124
Tb 21
Secure hose about _____ feet below ladder pipe with hose strap.
5
125
Tb 21
Ladder pipe. Jackknife _____ away from direction of ladder extension.
60 degrees.
126
Tb 21
Ladder pipe angle preferably ____ degrees and limited to not more than ____ degrees.
75, 80
127
Tb 21
Extension limits for 100’ aerial is _____ feet. 85’ aerial is _____ feet.
80, 65
128
Tb 21
Ladder pipe. Maintain at least ______psi on cylinder gauge.
100
129
Tb 21
If ladder starts to move toward vertical, nozzleman on ladder pipe shall immediately raise nozzle ______ to change reaction.
Upward
130
Tb 21
Ladder pipe protection line.
FF partway up aerial with _____ or ____ line, or ______ line from ground.
1 1/2” or 1 3/4”, 2 1/2”
131
Tb 21
Load line to ladder pipe after _____ degrees elevation and as soon as possible.
50
132
Tb 21
Ladder pipe. Limit nozzle size to ____.
1 3/4”
133
Tb 21
LTI Akron turbo master limited to ______gpm on LP
750
134
Tb 21
Secure hose to _________ reinforced rungs of fly prior to raising
Appropriate
135
Tb 21
Pump ____ - ____ psi above desired psi.
25-40
136
Tb 23
The key to task force concept is _______, with a single officer providing unified direction and control.
Command
137
Tb 23
Minimum staffing of light task force?
Truck and single engine company. Min staffing of 6.
138
Tb 23
Captain I will be allowed to ride truck not to exceed __________, with verbal approval from Battalion
One month
139
Tb 23
If captain I rides truck for longer than one month, approval from _________ is required.
Division
140
Tb 23
Any other variation in sequence of apparatus shall be agreed upon by TFC on all 3 platoons with ______ approval on all 3 platoons.
Battalion
141
Tb 31
_________ is brand name for new glazing material.
Lexan
142
Tb 31
Lexan is a polycarbonate _________.
Thermoplastic
143
Tb31
Lexan will soften at what temperature?
350F
144
Tb 31
Normal use thickness for Lexan is ____ to _____.
Special installs may be up to _____.
1/8” to 1/4”
1 1/4”
145
Tb 31
Lexan feels _______ than glass, has dull plastic sound, scratches easy
Softer
146
Tb31
What tool is best used to cut Lexan?
Rotary saw with carbide tip blade.
Chainsaw shall not be used
147
Tb 31
When cutting Lexan what sides are cut first?
Horizontal cuts.
148
Tb 31
In multi pane windows, the _______ may be cut, allows the panes to be pushed in
Mullions
149
Tb32
What PPE shall be used with the chainsaw at all times?
1. Gloves
2. Goggles
3. Helmet
4. TO/brush coat
150
Tb32
What shall accompany chain saw if electrical hazards exist?
Gauntlet gloves
151
Tb32
Chain brake is engaged in ____ ways. How fast?
2. Manual and automatic
Within 1/10 second
Some saws equipped with inertia operated brake.
152
Tb32
Cutting is a ____ member min operation.
2. Operator and safety person
153
Tb32
Safety member use a ______ grip on axe scabbard belt, breather frame, webbing etc.
Underhand
154
Tb32
Length of saw, tip to handle is comparable to _____ of average length
Axe
155
Tb32
Flooded chainsaw.
Off position. Choke off. Pull cord __ to __ times. On position. Normal starting procedures.
4 to 5
156
Tb32
Safe depth of cut will depend on ___ factors.
4.
Type of construction
Thickness of roof covering
Thickness of decking
Intended operations
157
Tb32
Manual oilers should be depressed once every ___ seconds in light conditions.
10
158
Tb32
Replace chain. Missing or damage ___ in a row or ___ total random.
3, 6
159
Tb32
During extended operations, check chain tension every ___ min
Few
160
Tb32
Petroleum based products shall not be applied in _____ form.
Atomized
161
Tb32
Inspect chain sprocket for grooves exceeding ____ depth.
1/16”
162
Tb32
Training bulletin 32 is based on ______ chain saw.
Stihl 038 magnum
163
Tb33
Pneumatic power chisel continuous operation with 30 min bottle is _____ min, with 60 min bottle is _____ min, approx.
2, 4
164
Tb33
Pneumatic power chisel can cut through mild steel up to _____ thick and mild steel bolts ____ in diameter.
1/4”, 3/4”
165
Tb33
What 3 power chisels are assigned to field units?
Jiffy, Chicago, black and decker
166
Tb33
How long are hoses for power chisel?
(2) 25’ sections
167
Tb33
Power chisel outlet pressure is what ?
150psi
Regulators preset at 140psi
168
Tb33
Power chisel working pressure is what ?
100 psi through (2) 25’ sections
169
Tb33
Two types of chisel regulators: meco and norgen.
Meco max intake pressure is ___.
Norgen max is _____.
6000, 3000 psi
170
Tb 35
Eliminate potential for ______ is primary consideration during overhaul.
Rekindle
171
Tb35
______ and ______ are best lines of defense against gases, vapors, particulates.
Time and shielding
172
Tb35
Areas deemed unsafe to access shall be completely restricted with both _____ tape and ________ striped barricade tape.
Fireline , Red & White
173
Tb35
IC is responsible for documenting all hazards and risks and mitigating measures using ICS ______
215A
Incident action plan safety analysis
174
Tb35
Minimal PPE may be considered after well ventilated for min of ___ hr
1
175
Tb35
During complete overhaul, piles min ___ feet away from any part of the structure.
10
176
Tb35
Overhaul piles are separated into ___ piles.
3
Salvageable items, non salvageable items, combustible materials.
177
Tb35
Firefighters are ___% likely to get diagnosed with cancer than general population.
14%
178
Tb35
Cancer accounts for ___% of all line of duty FF deaths.
60%
179
Tb35
What is the final phase of overhaul?
Securing premise or returning property back to the owner
180
tb106
Reciprocating saw cuts wood ____ thick, metal up to _____ thick and various other materials.
12”, 3/4”
181
Tb38
Porter cable Blade reciprocates from ____ to ____ strokes per min.
0-2600
182
Tb38
Reciprocating saw is carried on what two resources?
Trucks and heavy rescue
183
Tb38
______ speeds recommended for most metal cutting operations, _____ speeds for wood.
Low, high
184
Tb38
Best plunge cut performance is in _______ motion.
Orbital
185
Tb38
Try to keep at least ____ teeth in contact with work at all times with metal.
3
186
Tb3
Aluminum buildings are type ____.
IV
NFPA and fire code say type II
187
Tb4
How many gallons of diesel and gasoline is produced in California each day?
8 million gallons diesel
43 million gallons gasoline
188
Tb20
_____ oil makes for much better fuel mileage.
Warm
189
Tb21
When using fog hog always _____ the stream straightener
Remove
190
Tb31
Lexan temperature ranges are from _____ to _____.
-60 to 280
191
Tb 32
Each station should carry spare chainsaw parts. How many metric screws should be carried on hand?
5
192
Tb32
Chain saw can be used to ____ and _____ rafters.
Feel and read
193
Tb35
During overhaul, if piles left on public way, who shall be notified?
Street maintenance
194
Tb44
Types of rotary saws used on lafd?
Partner k950
Husq k960
Husq k970
195
Tb 44
How big are blades and what are the 4 carried?
14”
Abrasive. Combi. Carbide. Diamond
196
Tb46
Approx _____ double decker busses are used by RTD.
22
197
Tb46
Buses are __ long, 8’ 6” wide, 14’ 2” high.
40’
198
Tb46
Buses carry up to ___ passengers
80
199
Tb46
Double decker buses have __ emergency hatches located on the roof. 17”x24” opening.
4
200
Tb38
What reciprocating saw blade is best used for auto extrication?
960R, 9” blade with 10 TPI
201
Tb35
What temperature does carbon monoxide light off?
1128F
202
Tb38
Milwaukee sawzall reciprocates at speeds from _____ to ______.
0 to 3000
203
Tb 38
Size of the Milwaukee sawzall power cord?
10’ modified with 30 amp twist lock
204
Tb38
Milwaukee sawzall has a speed control dial located above the trigger. The setting is from __ to __.
1 to 5.
205
Tb38
Milwaukee sawzall. To set for straight reciprocating rotate the selector knob ______ to the _____.
Counterclockwise, left
206
Tb38
Milwaukee sawzall. To set for orbital reciprocating rotate the selector knob ______ to the _____.
Clockwise, right
207
Tb38
Porter cable reciprocating saw. Straight motion, set selector knob ________. For orbital motion set selector knob clockwise ________.
Parallel, perpendicular
208
Tb38
Milwaukee sawzall has guide shoe that can be adjusted forward and backwards to ___ positions.
6
209
Tb38
Milwaukee sawzall handle can rotate continuously both directions and locks at ___ degree increments for a total of ___ positions.
45 degrees, 8 positions.
210
Tb44
Min blade size to remain front line is ___ inches. 9” to ___ inches for training. Less than 9” tag f175 and write “________”.
12,12, unsafe
211
Tb44
Combi blades are bidirectional with continuous cutting depth of _____.
4 3/4”
212
Tb44
With k970 saw press air purge diaphragm ___ times.
6
213
Tb44
Spark plug gap is _____.
.020” (0.5mm)
214
Tb44
Caution, blade continues to spin up to __ minute after engine stopped.
1
215
Tb44
Sparks can be thrown up to ____.
30’
216
Tb44
Gallons of gas — oz of oil needed
1 ____
2.5. ____
5. ____
2.6
6.5
13
217
Tb46
Double decker busses have ____ gallons diesel fuel in one tank.
Tank is located on right side in middle coach
125
218
Tb46
Double decker busses air bag suspension drops bus ____ inches when deflated.
10”
219
Tb47
Aircraft fire, engine can be shut down by discharging a ____ in the intake.
CO2 extinguisher
220
Tb44
How long is rotary saw utility strap?
12”
221
Tb44
A ________ like sta-bil or seafoam should be used to keep gasoline fresh.
Fuel stabilizer
222
Tb46
Double decker busses have ___ windows on both side of upper lever and __ windows on both sides of lower level. All can be used as emergency exits.
3, 2
223
Tb46
Double decker busses have a ____ volt system.
12/24
224
Tb47
Aircraft fire/rescue procedures. The two most prevalent types of aircraft accidents are ____ and _____ impact.
High and low
225
Tb47
If rotor blades are still turning, approach the aircraft in the _____ position only.
Crouching
226
Tb47
Primary objective is to establish rescue and escape ____
“Corridor”
227
Tb47
When water is limited, use of fog nozzles or applicators with ____ hose lines or booster lines is acceptable approach
1 1/2”
228
Tb47
If fuel enters the sewers or drains, it should be flushed with as much _____ as possible.
Water
229
Tb48
Diesel engines have ______ retarding effect than a gasoline engine, due to lack of intake manifold.
Less
230
Tb48
Jake brake is a ______ engine attachment that’s alters exhaust valve operation. Pre maturely opening exhaust valve near top of compression stroke.
Hydraulic
231
Tb48
What is the time limit in respect to the operation of the Jake?
No time limit
232
Tb48
Heat is dissipated and absorbed by the engines _______ system.
Cooling
233
Tb 48
Jake brake activates and deactivated in less than ______ of a second.
1/4
234
Tb48
Pressure sensing switch mounted on ________ to deactivate Jake at low speeds.
Transmission
235
Tb48
Engine should be ____ before engaging Jake, preheater water temp is sufficient.
Warm
236
Tb48
How many cylinders are activated for low, medium, and high?
2 for medium
4 for moderate
6 for maximum retarding
237
Tb48
A ____ position selector switch allows operator to choose desired braking level.
3
238
Tb54
If mezzanine total floor area exceeds ______ of the total floor area, it’s considered a story.
33 1/3%
239
Tb54
Height above or below a mezzanine shall not be less than _____.
7’
240
Tb54
There shall not be more than ____ levels of mezzanines in a room.
2
241
Tb54
Mezzanine columns, posts, protective walls or railing shall not be more than _____ in height.
42”
242
Tb54
Partition of mezzanine allowed if it doesn’t exceed ____% of mezzanine, or occupant load exceeds ____.
10, 10
243
Tb54
Mezzanine occupant load greater than 10 or exceeding 2,000 feet, ___ exits shall be provided.
2
244
Tb54
Fully sprinklered buildings require mezzanines sprinklered ________ & ________ mezzanine.
Above and below
245
Tb54
Questions regarding mezzanines, phone north industrial and commercial section unit of the ____.
FPB
246
Tb56
Standard radioactive placard is what size ?
10” x 10”
247
Tb56
What DOT class number is radioactive?
7
248
Tb56
uR is micro roentgen or ____________th of one R.
1/1,000,000
249
Tb56
mR is milli roentgen or __________th of one R.
1/1,000
250
Tb56
Inverse square law, halving the distance to the radiation source increases the dose rate how much?
4x
251
Tb56
LAFD policy, member accumulated dose for one single incident not be more than ____R in 24 hr period.
25
252
Tb56
___R is the annual limit for occupational exposure.
5
253
Tb56
Removing clothing can minimize ___% of external contamination.
90
254
Tb56
Initial Decon wash time should be between ____ sec and ___ minutes.
30sec and 3 min
255
Tb60
Methanol is considered a class ____ flammable liquid.
1-B
256
Tb60
Menthol density is _____ times that of air.
1.1x
257
Tb60
Methanol-air mixture is potentially explosive at ___% volume.
6
258
Tb60
T/F. Methanol is water soluble.
True
259
Tb60
Methanol vehicles contain two 20lb halon extinguishing systems that discharge ___ seconds apart.
15 seconds
260
Tb61
Most scrubber systems will be found where?
On the roof
261
Tb61
Very large scrubber systems will be found where?
Ground level outside the building
262
Tb 62
HR hose has ability to reduce kinks of to ___.
12”
263
Tb62
Primary objective of a company assigned fire attack is to get ___ line into operation.
One
264
Tb62
When building pack, place female coupling about ___ inches below the gauge of bottle.
10”
265
Tb62
Combination 2 1/2” for FD use in stairwell is found__________.
Above the 4th floor
266
Tb62
Unable to remove orfice plate, open fully. If removed open _______ turns then adjusted.
1 to 1 1/2
267
Tb65
268
Tb65
Vehicle batteries are rated at ____ cold crank amps at 0F
950
269
Tb65
Vehicle batteries have a reserve capacity of ____ at 25 amps draw per hour.
190 min
270
Tb65
Diesel engines draw approximately ___ amps per cubic inch when starting.
2
271
Tb65
5/6 batteries connected in _____ to allow for alternator and on board charger to charge all simultaneously
Parallel
272
Tb65
Radios and MDT have an ___ amp per hr draw down on batteries
8
273
Tb65
If out of service or can’t be plugged in for over ___ hours, “cut off switch” must be turned off.
10
274
Tb65
Low voltage warning system. A low audible warning device will activate when batteries are below ____ volts
12.2v
275
Tb67
Initial extrication will only require 1st stage, near ________ psi.
3,000
276
Tb67
Changeover to 2nd stage may have momentary stalling, up to ________ psi.
10,500
277
Tb67
Holmatro fluid is ___ weight mineral based hydraulic fluid, pale or yellow in color.
22
278
Tb67
Holmatro chains are rated at what?
C-8
279
Tb67
Hoses are ____ feet, orange and blue in color.
32’
280
Tb67
Hoses have a working pressure of ______ psi and a burst pressure ____ at 42,000 psi.
10,500, 4x
281
Tb67
Cutters hinge bolt, if loose, tighten to _____ foot pounds of torque.
75
282
Tb67
Replace fuel in small motors every _____ days with fresh fuel
30
283
Tb67
Cutter 3020 UL max opening?
Cutter 3035 NCT?
Cutter 4050 NCT?
5 1/4”
5 5/8”
7 1/8”
284
Tb67
Ram 3340 size ?
3350 size?
12” retracted 23” extended
21” retracted 50 1/4” extended
285
Tb69
Two airbag systems on LAFD?
56 and 236 ton
286
Tb69
Dual deadman preset at _____ psi, relief valve activated when psi exceeds ______.
118, 118
287
Tb69
Regulator pressure adjusted between _________ to provide _____ psi at the dead man.
125-135, 118
288
Tb69
Attach regulator to scba bottle with the last _______ turn, both threaded fitting and regulator.
1/4
289
Tb69
In line safety relief is set to relieve if pressure exceeds what?
135 psi
290
Tb69
Hoses are _____ feet long and a ______psi working pressure.
16’, 250
291
Tb69
Minimum cribbing amount is what?
(4) 4” x 6” x 2’
(2) 24” x 24” plywood
(4) wedges
292
Tb69
Do not inflate bag over ____ without a load.
30 psi
293
Tb69
Never inflate bags against hot objects over ________ degrees F.
220F
294
Tb69
K12 bag size is what?
7/8” x 15” x 15”
295
Tb69
K22 bag size is what?
7/8” x 20” x 20”
296
Tb69
K12 max lifting height is what?
8”
297
Tb69
K22 max lifting height is what?
10”
298
Tb69
K12 bag is tested at 236psi, burst tested at ______.
700psi
299
Tb69
K22 bag is tested at 236psi, burst tested at ______.
600psi
300
Tb70
AC power enters traction power station at ______Volts and converted to _______ volts DC
34,500 v
750 v DC
301
Tb70
Blue light stations have _________ button to de energize lines
Mushroom
302
Tb70
Light rail fed power by ______ system as opposed to third rail
Catenary
303
Tb70
Mile markers are not to exceed _____ of mile.
1/10th
304
Tb70
Emergency walkways have width of at least?
30”
305
Tb70
Antenna installed in tunnels allow radio communication on ___ channels in repeat mode.
8
(2,4,6,7,12,15,16,17)
306
Tb70
Cross passages located about every _____ feet throughout tunnel.
750’
307
Tb70
What type of sprinklers are installed at track level at each station?
Deluge
308
Tb70
Underground or enclosed trainways greater than _______ feet are equipped with ventilation fans.
1,000 feet
309
Tb70
Hose cabinets are 100' of 1 1/2" with spray nozzle and 2 1/2" outlet with ___ BC dry chem or CO2
40
310
Tb70
Lighting is provided with min of ___ min battery backup
90
311
Tb70
At EMP an outside line can be reached by dialing ___ first.
9
312
Tb70
All light rail EMPs are located either on ____ level or outside station entrance at street level.
Mezzanine
313
Tb70
Hatches are spaced approx ____ feet apart throughout the length of the tunnel.
800'
314
Tb70
Light vehicle is a ___ axle vehicle, ends are "A" & "B". Can be single, double, or triple arrangement.
6
315
Tb70
Each car is ___ feet long, 9' wide, 11 1/2 feet tall tracks to roof.
90'
316
Tb70
What is max height of car with pantograph fully extended?
23' 6"
317
Tb70
Max capacity of each car is _____.
(157 standing, 76 sitting)
237
318
Tb70
How many doors are on each side of car?
4 double sliding on each side
319
Tb70
After a 4-5 second delay to release air pressure, doors will pop open __ to__ inches prior to manually opening.
2"-3"
320
Tb70
All windows on light vehicle are made of what?
Lexan
321
Tb70
Train must have sufficient air pressure and ____v DC to open doors.
37.5
322
Tb70
What size allen key will work in place of "T" key for access.
3/8
323
Tb70
Train floors have a __ to ___ min burn through rate.
60 to 90 min
324
Tb70
Traction power station are located at __ mile intervals along railway.
1
325
Tb70
Each light rail vehicle has a pantograph on the ___ side of car, each extended less than ___ lbs of spring pressure
"A", 22
326
Tb70
The height of the overhead catenary system varries from ___ to ___.
18' to 22'
327
Tb70
The max operating length of a train is ___ LRV's couples for a resulting length of ____, with ___ pantographs, one for each LRV.
3, 270', 3
328
Tb70
LRV's have capacitors, wait __ to __ minutes prior to working on roof to allow bleed down.
5 to 15 min
329
Tb70
Battery disconnect is located on the __ side of LRV.
"B"
330
Tb70
Braking resistors on roof are hot, between ___ and ___ degrees. Allow 5-15 min for cool down.
400-500 F
331
Tb70
LRV speed ranges from ___ to ___ mph.
5 to 55
332
Tb70
LRV will take approx ___ feet to stop at 55 mph. In wet conditions distance can ______.
800', double
333
Tb70
Allow ___ foot clearance between yourself and LRV in case of sudden movement.
10
334
Tb70
Manual lowering of the pantograph requires approx ______ pumps until fully down.
20-25
335
Tb70
If the need to stop rail traffic arises, members can use flares or ___ flags spaced approx ____ feet in both directions from incident.
red, 800'
336
Tb70
Rail operations control (ROC) is located where?
2000 E Imperial Hwy, LA 90059
337
Tb73
Consider listening at the door, not knocking for ___ seconds.
10
338
Tb73
____ are the likeliest places for hidden guns.
bedrooms
339
Tb73
What is considered the safest room in the house?
living room
340
Tb73
At least ___ members should be at the door prior to knocking.
2
341
Tb73
Which room in house is most unsafe?
Kitchen
342
Tb73
When a hostile condition develops, consider using preplanned ________________.
"words of warning"
343
Tb73
Use this term when there are belligerent individuals and a likelihood of physical altercation.
BACK-UP the Fire Department
344
Tb73
Use this term when there is imminent danger to Department personnel.
FD needs HELP
345
Tb73
Use this term when there is a large hostile crowd and apparent danger to Department personnel or apparatus.
FD needs ASSISTANCE
346
Tb73
MFC will use this term for requesting police response whenever a Department Unit is dispatched to a known "trouble area."
MEET the FD
347
Tb73
______ the FD with crowd control (or traffic enforcement, etc.)
ASSIST
348
Tb73
Per MOPS 3/5-20.25, anytime a department member is assaulted, members Battalion/Section commander shall be notified and _______ response requested.
Police
349
Tb74
Team leader shall monitor rescue channel, other members of the team should keep the volume on their radios turned ____ to avoid "squelch".
Down
350
Tb74
Load the one inch line and instruct the engineer to pump ___ to ___ psi.
200 to 250
351
Tb74
150' feet of 1 inch line with 200psi and spray tip removed from a 5/8 inch shut off butt will deliver ___ gpm.
65
352
Tb74
If possible, equip the back up rescue team with ___ minute air bottles.
60
353
Tb74
As the downed member is being removed from the building, the 1 inch line should be?
left in place
354
Tb75
Approx ___% of all terroist incidents involve explosives and incendiary agents.
70
355
Tb75
A perimeter of ___ feet should be established around any suspicious device.
300'
356
Tb75
Devices found to be incendiary not explosive, ______ shall be requested.
LAFD Arson Unit
357
Tb75
Who has the authority to close an area or order an evacuation?
LAFD
(LAFD and LAPD have concurrent jurisdiction in emergencies involving evacuations.
358
Tb75
What is a strategic, criminal, or terrorist attack directed at a specific target involving the detonation of an explosive substance?
Bombing
359
Tb75
What is the sudden and rapid escape of gases from a confined space, accompanied by high heat, loud noise, and a violent shockwave?
Explosion
360
Tb75
Any incident that results from the detonation of an explosive substance. May be criminal or accidental in nature.
Post blast incident
361
Tb75
Explosions are categorized in what 3 categories?
Minor, Moderate, Major
362
Tb75
What is a primary objective upon arriving on scene of an explosion?
Determine or confirm the cause of the explosion
363
Tb75
Command Post should be at least ____ feet away from explosion site. (much further may be indicated)
1,000ft
364
Tb75
A general rule for a bomb scene perimeter is to identify the distance of the furthest blast debris from the center of the explosion and create a perimeter that _____ this distance.
Doubles
365
Tb75
What are the 3 basic types of explosions?
Chemical, Mechanical, and Nuclear
366
Tb75
When an explosion occurs, very hot gases (between 3,000F and 7,000F) are formed in approx _______ of a second.
1/10,000
367
Tb75
Gases from an explosion exert pressures at velocities of up to ______ mph or 29,900 fps.
13,000 mph
368
Tb75
What are three primary effects of an explosion?
Blast pressure effect, fragmentation effect, thermal effect.
369
Tb75
The negative pressure phase lasts ____ times longer than the positive pressure phase and although less powerful, can produce additional damage.
Three
370
Tb75
Blast injuries are divided into four categories, what are they?
Primary, Secondary, Tertiary, Quaternary
371
Tb76
What is the Standard on Occupational Safety and Health Program?
NFPA 1500
372
Tb76
What is the Standard on Emergency Services Incident Management System?
NFPA 1561
373
Tb76
What is the Standard for the Organization and Deployment of Fire Suppression?
NFPA 1710
374
Tb76
The LAFD policy is that in the absence of an EIT, this function will be performed by a ___________, EMS Captain, or the initial IC.
command post company
375
Tb76
All _______ shall ensure magnetic nametags carried on Department apparatus are updated whenever staffing changes take place.
officers
(members shall assist)
376
Tb76
Assumption of command is discretionary for all ranks above ______________.
Battalion Chief
377
Tb76
Once command has been established, additional resources will stop ____ block away from the reported address. (exception: First LF shall respond and command transferred to LF Commander)
One
378
Tb76
Only ____ of the two backup personnel outside the IDLH may be engaged in other duties.
One
379
Tb76
In a high-rise incident, a minimum _____ member initial fire attack team shall ascend to the reported fire floor.
Four
380
Tb76
Departments ICs shall, as a min, designate at least _____ RIC upon the arrival of additional resources above the original structure assignment.
One
381
Tb76
It must be understood and accepted by all members that roof-cutting operations lacking appropriate oversight are inherently unsafe, and often __________.
ineffective
382
Tb76
The LAFD minimum staffing is ___ members on a truck and ___ members on an engine.
5, 4
383
Tb84
The metrolink system will travel over 400 miles and serve over 60 stations which will link the City of LA with ____ surrounding counties
5
384
Tb84
The Metrolink locomotive can operate to push or pull up to ___ bi-level cars
7
385
Tb84
Metrolink trains have ___ crew members on board the train during operations.
two
(conductor & engineer)
386
Tb84
Diesel fuel tank is located under the locomotive on both sides and has a capacity of ______ gallons of diesel.
2,200
387
Tb84
Push the red button to shut off the engine, hold down for approx ___ seconds for fuel cut off.
20
388
Tb84
Metrolink trains will consist of diesel locomotives pulling four to seven double-decked passenger cars at speeds up to ___ mph in certain locations
79
389
Tb84
Each passenger car can carry the maximum of ___ passengers, ___ of them sitting.
360, 149
390
Tb84
space between the walls contain electrical wires which can cause an electrical shock of up to ___ volts AC
480
391
Tb84
Metrolink control cab can be identified by a letter ___, which is located below the control cab window.
"F"
392
Tb84
Every passenger commuter car has windows of double pane Lexan (____ times stronger than safety glass)
250
393
Tb84
Electrical power which supplies the Metrolink train is ___ volts AC
480
394
Tb84
Engine shutdown is accomplished by pushing the engine emergency stop button (engine will shutdown within __ to __ seconds)
30 to 40
395
Tb84
The battery is made of Nickel Cadmium (__ volts DC) and can be located under each passenger commuter car
36
396
Tb84
The Air Brake System has ___ psi lines running throughout the Metrolink Commuter Train System
140
397
Tb84
How many dry chem extinguishers can be found on board each passenger commuter car?
4
398
Tb86
In the past, ___________ was the most widely used fumigant.
hydrogen cyanide
399
Tb86
As hydrogen cyanide was phased out, __________ replaced it as the fumigant of choice.
Methyl Bromide
400
Tb86
Sulfuryl fluoride is odorless. It will always be used with the warning agent ________.
chloropicrin (a tear gas)
401
Tb86
Methyl Bromide was phased out of the US in what year?
2005
402
Tb86
As methyl bromide was phased out, it was replaced by ____________ which is currently used in over 95% of all fumigations throughout the United States
sulfuryl fluoride
403
Tb86
Sulfuryl fluoride is only about ___ to ___ as effective as methyl bromide.
1/3 to 1/2
404
Tb86
_____________ is currently the only chemical approved in Los Angeles County for structural fumigations and can only be used by licensed commercial users.
Sulfuryl fluoride
405
Tb86
Currently, there are 3 manufacturers producing sulfuryl fluoride which is marketed under 4 different brand names.
Vikane, MasterFume, Profume, Zythor
406
Tb86
In California, methyl bromide is most likely to be encountered in the _______ industry
strawberry
407
Tb86
Levels are less than one part per million within __ hours of clearing and have no detectable levels of sulfuryl fluoride within __ hours after the start of aeration.
6, 24
408
Tb86
T/F. sulfuryl fluoride and chloropicrin are NOT skin absorptive
True
409
Tb86
In addition to full turnouts with scba, all personnel performing rescue or rapid extraction shall wear what?
Nitrile EMS gloves with FF gloves or green nitrile over-gloves from hazmat bag as outer glove
410
Tb86
Evacuate all structures within ___ feet or downwind of the fumigation prior to tent removal.
30
411
Tb86
Ensure a min _____ line is deployed for emergency decon.
one inch
412
Tb90
What is the greatest risks FF encounter during firefighting operations?
Thermal burns
413
Tb90
Steam can cause full thickness burns to unprotected skin in less than ___ seconds of exposure.
3
414
Tb90
Second degree burns can occur with exposure to only _____ degrees.
111
415
Tb90
Second degree burns can occur with ___ seconds of exposure to 131 degrees.
20
416
Tb90
Second degree burns can occur within 1 second of exposure to ___ degrees.
158
417
Tb90
Steam burns develop faster and are more severe than dry heat burns at the same temperature, due to ________.
Latent heat transfer
418
Tb90
What is the most severe type of exposure?
Direct flame impingement
419
Tb90
A firefighter caught in a flashover, just ___ feet inside a room, will be exposed to temperatures of 1,000 to 1,500F and direct flame impingement for at least __ seconds.
5,2
420
Tb90
The __ observable or measurable factors in a Class "A" fire are?
6.
1. Input heat
2. Fuel
3. Oxygen
4. Proportioning of the fuel/air mixture
5. mixing of the fuel/air mixture
6. Uninhibited chain reactions between active fuel/air molecules
421
Tb90
Heat is a form of ____ in transit or change.
Energy
422
Tb90
A British Thermal Unit (BTU) is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of __ pound of water __ degree F.
one, one
423
Tb90
Specific heat is the thermal capacity of a substance. It is the number of BTU's required to raise the temp of __ pound of a substance __ degree F
one, one
424
Tb90
Latent heat is the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when passing between _____.
Phases
(solid to liquid, etc)
425
Tb90
Water has a latent heat of fusion of ___ BTU's and latent heat of vaporization of ___ BTU's.
143, 970
426
Tb90
Heat is transferred in how many ways?
3
Radiation, Convection, Conduction
427
Tb90
What is the primary heat transfer method within structures and is responsible for the majority of fire and smoke spread within structures?
Convection
428
Tb90
What is the only method of heat transfer through solid objects?
Conduction
429
Tb90
There are __ stages in the development of an interior fire.
3
Growth, Fully Developed, Decay
430
Tb90
During this stage the fire increases in size from a small flame or incipient fire to a fire that involves the entire room or area.
Growth Stage
431
Tb90
The _________ of a fire can be identified by the upward direction of the fire curve on the time temperature curve.
Growth Stage
432
Tb90
In this stage the entire room or area and its contents are involved and burning. The fire is producing its highest temperatures.
Fully Developed Stage
433
Tb90
The ________ can be identified by the horizontal portion of the fire curve.
Fully Developed Stage
434
Tb90
Flashover can be identified as the curve occurring near the end of the ______ stage. This marks the beginning of the __________ stage.
Growth, Fully Developed Stage
435
Tb90
In this stage, the combustion rate and temperature output begin to decrease. The major portion of the combustibles have been consumed by the fire.
Decay Stage
436
Tb90
The ______ State is identified by the downward direction of the fire curve or temperature decrease.
Decay
437
Tb90
Sudden full room or area involvement in flame, or the sudden auto ignition of combustible surfaces and/or gases in an area heated by convection and/or radiation, resulting in a sudden and intense rise in temperature.
Flashover
438
Tb90
What is one of the major causes of fire ground fatalities?
Flashover
439
Tb90
Increasing use of synthetic furnishings that when ignited burn __ to __ times hotter and faster than ordinary combustibles.
2 to 3
440
Tb90
How many types of flash phenomena can occur in a superheated, smoked filled environment?
3
Roll over, flashover, flame over
441
Tb90
_____ is the last warning for firefighter to withdraw from the area
roll over
442
Tb90
Flashover takes place after ________, at the end of the growth stage of a fire, with full room or area involvement immediately following.
roll over
443
Tb90
________ is the third flash phenomenon encountered by firefighters.
Flame over
444
Tb90
Warning signs of flashover my not be apparent in buildings with large unenclosed floor or attic spaces and ceilings __ to __ feet above the floor or joist level.
12 to 20
445
Tb90
For backdraft to occur oxygen content must fall between __% and __%
11% and 15%
446
Tb90
Provide a minimum of two ladders to every structure and __ additional ladder for every two member team on the roof.
One
447
Tb92
What is the Model voltage tester carried on all truck companies?
Ideal Model 61-249 Voltage Tester
448
Tb92
These same Voltage testers can also be found where?
Inn the equipment room at each Metro Rail Red Line Station
449
Tb92
Department members SHALL NOT test voltage systems exceeding _______ volts.
1,000
450
Tb92
Many city street lighting systems are_____ volts.
4,800
451
Tb92
Voltage tester can be used to test both AC or DC voltages ranging from __ to __ volts
1 to 999
452
Tb92
Voltages of ____ or more will be indicated by a pulsating buzzer warning.
500
453
Tb92
Voltage tester powered by what battery?
One 9v
454
Tb92
Battery life is approximately _____ tests until "low battery" sign appears.
3,000
455
Tb92
Tester switches on automatically when testing circuits greater than ___ volts AC or DC.
4
456
Tb92
The tester will automatically switch off within __ min after prod contact with an energized circuit
1
457
Tb92
A ___ second audible signal will sound when the tester reads a stabilized voltage, hold button should be used.
2.5
458
Tb92
what shall members wear when testing volts indicating 600v or more?
googles and gauntlet gloves
459
Tb92
What shall be worn when testing voltages of 600v or less?
Firefighting gloves
460
Tb97
The message that we send to others is often __ to __ percent non verbal or "body language"
50 to 60%
461
Tb97
Non verbal communication can be broken into __ categories
5.
Voice signals, body signals, object signals, space signals, time signals
462
Tb97
Intimate distance reserved for only loved ones is between __ to __ inches
6 to 18
463
Tb97
Social distance for acquaintances is between __ feet and __ feet.
4 and 12
464
Tb99
There are __ main waterways on a county-wide basis
3
LA, San Gabriel, Rio Hondo Rivers
465
Tb99
Annual basis in US, approx ____ - _____ people die in water related emergencies
6,000-9,000
466
Tb99
Up to ___ of drownings each year are "would-be" rescuers
1/3
467
Tb99
Within LA County, annually, there are an average of __ swiftwater rescue incidents.
60
468
Tb99
What is the priority in River rescue?
Self rescue
469
Tb99
List swift water operations from low risk to high risk.
communication, floatation, reach, throw, row, go, tow, helo.
470
Tb99
Victim shall utilize a ferry angle with their body at __ degree angle against the current with head pointing toward "target"
45
471
Tb99
Tension diagonal is generally a rope which is tensioned across a channel at a downstream angle of no more than __ degrees.
45
472
Tb99
The rescue net is controlled by __ tag lines clipped in to the four corners. Dropped into water when victim is __-__ seconds upstream.
4, 5-10
473
Tb99
Inflated fire hose is 50-100 feet max of 2 1/2 inch hose. Ideal inflation pressure is __-__ psi.
50-60
474
Tb99
The use of _______ has been proven to be one of the most versatile rescue techniques by highest number of rescues per year
Throwbags
475
Tb99
Specialized protective gear is mandatory for rescuers on sloped banks of tapered channels or within __ feet of the water
10
476
Tb99
Which "V" is considered to be a dangerous downstream path
Upstream "V"
477
Tb104
Standard on Operations and Training for Technical Rescue Incidents
NFPA 1670
478
Tb104
NFPA 1670 identifies __ types of technical rescue incidents.
7.
Structural collapse, Rose rescue, Confined space operations, vehicle and machinery extrication, water rescue, wilderness search and rescue, trench and excavation rescue.
479
Tb104
Who is responsible for completing "permit entry" confined space entry permit when required?
Rescue group supervisor
480
Tb104
Who can be utilized as the perimeter control team?
A company from. a non-US&R resource
481
Tb104
Who will normally fill the position of Technical Support Team Leader?
Captain I assigned to US&R 88
482
Tb104
Who will normally fill the role of Technical Safety Officer?
Apparatus Operator assigned to US&R 88
483
Tb104
Supplied air respirators air hose are up to a max of ___ feet
300
484
Tb104
What is most efficient equipment for ventilation for confined spaces?
Electric fans or blowers with ducting
485
Tb104
There is a US&R task force in each division located at which FS?
3,5,27,85,88, and 89
486
Tb104
What size edge protection for tenches, excavations or below grade confined space should be used?
2x8 or 2x10 lumber
487
Tb104
Nearly ___% of all confined space deaths are potential rescuers associated with secondary entries
60
488
Tb104
OSHA records have shown that __% of all confined space injuries and deaths are related to atmospheric condition.
90
489
Tb104
Combustible dust is an IDLH at or exceeding its LEL (approximately __ feet of visibility)
5
490
Tb104
Atmospheric oxygen concentration less than ___% or greater than ___% is an IDLH
19.5 and 23.5
491
Tb104
The primary control method for atmospheric hazards is what?
Ventilation
492
Tb104
Unless not practical, a harness is _______ for all entries. A Confined space rated harness with upper back midpoint attachment ____ be worn for entries.
recommended, shall
493
Tb104
SCBA has __ factors limiting the use in confined space rescues.
3
S.A.W
size, air (quantity of supply), weight
494
Tb104
In a confined space rescue, the highest level of protection that is worn for rescue operations is level ____
"B"
495
Tb104
A copy of the confined space rescue entry permit shall be forwarded to the _________ and retained for __ years from the date of the incident.
Department Safety Officer, 5
496
Tb106
Chief Paul Gleason of the ___________ developed LCES after being involved in several fatal wildland fires.
US Forest Service
497
Tb106
L.C.E.S. stands for what?
Lookout
Communication
Escape Route
Safety zone
498
Tb106
What are 3 additional direct causes of firefighter injury or death that were added to LCES?
Location
Conditions
Safety Equipment
499
Tb106
In many cases it will be the changes that do ___ occur that should drive the risk analysis of crews.
NOT
500
Tb106
Identify the best location with sufficient area to ___ the structure should conditions begin to deteriorate
Exit
501
Tb106
Sounding the horn for __ seconds followed by __ seconds of silence and repeating this cycle __ times for a total of __ seconds indicates that all companies need to retreat to their safe area.
10, 10, 3, 50
502
Tb106
A _________ or safe refuge is an area that does not require any protection, such as SCBA's and hoselines, for the members in order to survive.
safety zone
503
Tb106
Take note, if possible a safe refuge for firefighters should not be located where?
above the fire
504
Tb106
Full protective equipment is not a recommendation, it is a ________.
requirement
505
Tb106
How many structure, interior firefighting "watch outs" are there?
14
Book 101 lists 12
506
Tb106
Communication amond members operating at incidents is always best when accomplished how?
face to face
507
Tb108
Utilizing input from the ____, via the departments _____________, an approved knot was researched and developed that is to be used by all members when securing the fly section of the 35' extension ladder.
field, suggestion program
508
Tb108
Take a bight from the slack halyard and pass it ______ the rung which is _____ high or the next higher rung.
under, head
509
Tb108
Pull all the slack line ____ and taught, near the ____.
down, rung
510
Tb108
With the remaining halyard tail, capture the front and rear halyard utilizing a _________ under the ______ or most convenient rung. Secure with an additional half hitch and push to one side.
half hitch, fourth
511
Tb111
Elevator rescue ___________ have been developed to provide greater safety, efficiency, and effectiveness while removing occupants from stalled elevator cars.
Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)
512
Tb111
The elevator rescue kit (ERK) is carried on _________ and will provide the specialized tools to safely open nearly all elevator doors found in the City of LA.
all truck companies
513
Tb111
Warning: When picking any elevator hoistway door, always shut down power to the elevator at the ______________.
main-line disconnect
514
Tb111
The Skyline ERK consists of __ components
4
515
Tb111
What are the 4 components of the ERK?
1. Skyline Elevator pick bag
2. Equipment room bag
3. Step stool
4. Skyline pole
516
Tb111
What size top picks are carried in the ERK?
Standard, Thin, and Tall
517
Tb111
ERK consist of 1 Klein screwdriver with ___" tip and __" shank
3/8, 8
518
Tb111
How many and what color wedges are in ERK?
2 red door wedges
2 black Stratton wedges
519
Tb111
How many pieces of salvage cord are in ERK?
2
520
Tb111
How many batteries are in ERK?
3 AA
521
Tb111
What is the model of Pelican flashlight in ERK?
Model 3410M
522
Tb111
The pickup rollers are usually located within _____ from the leading edge of the door. On center opening doors, the pickup rollers are located _____ from the center-opening split of the doors.
8"-12", 8”-12”
523
Tb111
All of these Top picks are fabricated from ____ steel with a very high yield strength giving them the ability to return to their original shape.
Spring
524
Tb111
How many Kone picks are carried in the ERK?
4
Left, Center, Right, Hook
525
Tb111
Kone utilizes a green traction motor in the hoistway located behind the rail, sometimes identified by their trademark _______.
"hall lantern"
526
Tb111
With Kone picks, the "left" pick will be inserted through the ____ side of the hoistway door and the "right" pick will be inserted through the ____ side of the hoistway door where the leading edge is located. This is accomplished by gaining purchase with 8" ____ screwdriver.
right, left, Klein
527
Tb111
The Kone "center" pick looks similar to the ____ pick.
"right"
528
Tb111
Kone "hook" pick may enter the interlock box which has up to ___ volts AC when energized.
230v
529
Tb111
ThyssenKrupp Pick. Typically, there is a small slot in the plate which is located approx __ to __ from the leading edge of the door. If no plate, use top or side pick.
3" to 4"
530
Tb111
The Otis Rake Pick is to be used on newer Otis door interlock, "old Otis" interlock phased out as early as the ____.
2000s
531
Tb111
Otis Rake Pick. For center opening doors, place the base of the handle at the split doors and the pick end pointing _____.
Left
532
Tb111
Bi-Parting Fright Pick. The best location for access to the door lock is through the split in the center of these doors, and close to the jamb. The interlock will be located on ____ side.
Either
533
Tb111
Elevator Rescue Paddle is made of stainless steel and consists of __ parts.
3
Handle, Shaft, Paddle
534
Tb111
What 3 conditions must be present to utilize the Elevator Rescue Paddle?
Doors must be center opening
Car must be in floor zone
Power must be shut down (removes magnetic field in door operator motor)
535
Tb111
When using the paddle, insert it through the door approximately __ to __ up from the bottom of the door.
6"-12"
536
Tb111
What size is equipment room bag?
14" Pro Tool Bag
537
Tb111
The OSHA Standard, _____________ and Cal/OSHA T8 CCR3314 govern procedures while working around equipment and machinery
29 CFR 1910.147
538
Tb111
Skyline Pole is __ feet long and has extension of ____ feet.
4', 4'-8'
539
Tb111
Poling _____ is the most simple and safest of the poling techniques. Poling ____ is the most dangerous of the poling techniques. (requires rescuer to utilize fall protection)
across, up
540
Tb111
If the car floor is greater than ___ feet above or below the landing it may be necessary to use alternate evacuation procedures or a roof top exit to remove entrapped occupants.
3
541
Tb111
The step stool may hold up to ___lbs.
300
542
Tb111
Cleaning Skyline ERK bag, machine room bag, and pole bag. Mix ______ of mild laundry detergent or non-antibacterial dish soap in spray bottle. Heavy soiled, use soft bristle brush, wipe clean.
2 tablespoons
543
Tb111
For replacement of non-inventory items such as tags, ERK wedges or picks, send an email to ?
LAFD.elevatorrescue@lacity.org
544
Tb113
The ports of LA and LB are the __ largest container shipping facilities in the world.
3rd
545
Tb113
___% of the gross national product is shipped through these ports annually
40
546
Tb113
Since 1994, Ports of LA have seen annual increase in container shipments of ___%
12
547
Tb113
Alameda Corridor will connect the busiest container ports in the country with the transcontinental rail yards ____ of downtown Los Angeles
east
548
Tb113
Alameda Corridor runs on a __ mile strip along Alameda St and travels through or borders __ jurisdictions.
20, 8
549
Tb113
Alameda Corridor is divided into __ sections.
3
south, mid-corridor, north
550
Tb113
In mid-corridor trains will descend into a 10 mile long trench, __ feet deep by __ feed wide.
33' x 51'
551
Tb113
The east track is identified as Track __ and the center track is identified as Track __.
1, 2
552
Tb113
All gates, ladders, phone boxes, and other means of access will be double-locked with a Knox Lock and a railroad lock. Knox Box Key will be identified by what engraving?
"ACTA"
553
Tb113
Botz Dots - ___ green Botz dots will be located at each access gate to identify a retractable ladder. __ green Botz dot will be located at each standpipe connection.
2, 1
554
Tb113
How many retractable ladders are located along the mid corridor trench and how far are they spaced?
46, one every 1,000'
555
Tb113
How long does it take to lower a retractable ladder in the corridor?
1 to 1 1/2 minutes
556
Tb113
If a retractable ladder is lowered, it will trigger an alarm to a dispatch operator at the Alameda Corridor dispatch center who will direct all trains to slow to ___ mph.
10
557
Tb113
The average train speed in the corridor is ___ mph.
40
558
Tb113
Spring loaded access doors are located on N/B Alameda St between ___th and ___th Streets.
27th, 38th
559
Tb113
Emergency telephones are located where in the corridor?
at each retractable ladder at top and bottom of the trench
560
Tb113
How many pump stations are located within the corridor?
2
561
Tb113
Each side of the corridor, a __ foot wide water channel takes the runoff from the corridor to the catch basins. Metal dikes located at base of each ladder to capture runoff if needed.
4'
562
Tb113
Each pump station contains a catch basin located under the corridor __ deep x ___ long x ___ wide with a scrubber.
10' x 100' x 51'
563
Tb113
Dry Standpipes are located every ___ feet along the corridor. ___ green Botz Dot will be located on the street side to provide for ID.
500', One
564
Tb113
Video Cameras are located at each of the __ fixed stair shafts along the corridor, pump stations, and the north and south ends of the trench.
6
565
Tb113
Struts are located at the ___ portion for support
top
566
Tb113
Whenever an incident occurs, the Alameda Corridor ____ be shut down to guarantee the safety of all personnel.
MUST
567
Tb113
Consider placing companies ____ to ____ miles away on both sides of the incident to act as scouts to warn the IC of oncoming trains. Trains can take over ___ mile to stop.
1 1/2 to 2
One
568
Tb113
Trains can take over ___ mile to stop.
One
569
Tb113
Medical and other emergencies (non Hazmat) an ___ assignment and RA. Fire calls get a ___ Dispatch.
"A", "B"
570
Tb113
"EL" within a diamond shape box indicates what?
Emergency Ladder
571
Tb113
"DS" within a circle shape indicates what?
Dry Standpipe connection at that location
572
Tb113
"DC" within a square shape indicates what?
Drain Cut Off (dike)
573
Tb113
"T" within a triangle shape indicates what?
Emergency Telephone
574
Tb113
"O" indicates what?
a bridge over the trench
575
Tb116
The train configuration is set up with a minimum two-car combination, which includes one “A” car (with the controller’s cab), and one “B” car, and up to ___ cars maximum.
6
576
Tb116
Train cars are ___ feet long, 10 feet wide, and 12 feet high
75
577
Tb116
Heavy rail Train Cars weigh approximately how much?
80,000lbs
578
Tb116
Heavy Rail Train car max speed is?
70 mph
579
Tb116
Heavy rail normal train car configuration is what?
4 or 6 car trains depending on passenger load
580
Tb116
Heavy rail trains are propelled by __ traction motors per car, operated from ___ volts DC
4, 750
581
Tb 116
Heavy rail train car batteries provide power for auxiliary systems and are located under the "__" car and provide ____ volts DC.
B, 37.5
582
Tb116
Each car can sit 59 passengers and 1 wheelchair space, but can accommodate a total of ____ passengers in a standing "crush load"
220
583
Tb116
A dependent pair of train cars contain __ windows for viewing, which CANNOT open.
24
584
Tb116
There are __ double sliding doors on each side of dependent pair of cars.
6
585
Tb116
Operating the external emergency door handle, wait 5 seconds and manually separate doors. this will only release the _____ doors.
Center
586
Tb116
Each car is equipped with TWO _______ fire extinguishers.
10A60BC
587
Tb116
There are currently ___ Metro Red/Purple Line Stations
16
588
Tb116
What is the first level below ground, which is the public acess level to the tunnel?
The Mezzanine level
589
Tb116
The DWP power station room is energized with ______ volts and should not be entered by Fire Department personnel.
34,500
590
Tb116
For initial Fire Department operation, the most important area is the _______.
EMP (Emergency Management Panel)
591
Tb116
The EMP is located on the wall in the ________ Level and is directly adjacent to a FD lock box, containing keys to the EMP.
Mezzanine
592
Tb116
The area where passengers enter and exit trains is called?
The Platform Level
593
Tb116
Platform levels are designed to accommodate a ___ car train (over ___ feet long)
6, 450
594
Tb116
There will be an ETS at each end of the station for each track, indicated by the ______ on the wall.
BLS (Blue light station)
595
Tb116
Track Level. The tunnels are designated __ or __.
"AL" or "AR"
596
Tb116
In the 2B tunnel segment from Wilshire/Vermont to Wilshire/Western, tunnels are identified as ___ and ___.
"BL" and "BR"
597
Tb116
There are __ collector shoes on each car
4
598
Tb116
Heavy rails. There are a total of 93 cross passages at approx ___ foot intervals throughout tunnel.
750
599
Tb116
Heavy rails. Exit signs with ____ signs will NOT exit to street level. ____ exit signs indicate street level egress and may exit via an emergency escape hatch.
RED, GREEN
600
TB116
Heavy rails. Milepost markers are used in tunnel and distances not to exceed ____ of a mile
one-tenth
601
Tb116
FD has 8 channels that will work only in the _____ mode.
Repeat
2,4,6,7,12,15,16,17
602
Tb116
A Pre-Action Sprinkler system has been installed at all other TC&C rooms throughout the Red/Purple Line. An air compressor maintains _____ psi in the line.
20-40
603
Tb116
A combined standpipe system is supplied by at least two 8" mains and will have two FDC's per station, FD should supply ____ psi.
125
604
Tb116
Activation of deluge system is only manually, not automatically, by depressing the buttons contained with the ETS (_____ Box) located under a BLS at ends of each platform
Orange
605
Tb116
There are 2-½ inch outlets located approximately every ___ feet in the tunnel and cross passages.
250
606
Tb116
Emergency fans powered by 200hp electric motor, produce approx ______ CFM.
150,000
607
Tb116
Normal Metro station hours of operation are from ____hrs to ____ hrs.
0500-0100
608
Tb116
Sweep train - first train to operate over any section of Mainline track each day or after an interruption of service exceeding ___ hour.
One
609
Tb116
Restricted speed in metro heavy rail is never to exceed ___ mph
15
610
Tb120
Department purchased Sked Rescue System from who?
SkedCo, Inc.
611
Tb120
How many steel locking "D" carabiners are in Sked rescue system?
one
612
Tb120
The sked weighs how much?
19lbs
613
Tb120
Sked dimensions when rolled is? and when laid out flat is?
9"x36" rolled, 3'x8' flat
614
Tb120
Sked begins to melt between what degrees?
450-500
615
Tb120
Sked remains pliable to what temperature?
-120F
616
Tb120
How many nylon securing straps with steel buckles are sewn into the stretcher through brass grommets?
6
617
Tb120
How many "D" rings are sewn into the SKED backpack?
2
618
Tb120
Vertical Lift sling is a ____ foot length of ___" PMI kernmantle rescue rope with a ______lb breaking strength
30', 3/8", 5265
619
Tb120
How long is the SKED tow strap?
6'
620
Tb120
SKED horizontal lifting slings are rated to what?
9,000 lbs breaking strength
621
Tb120
SKED has 4 webbing loops that can be threaded through grommets to create handles, allowing sked to be carried by up to ___ rescuers.
8
622
Tb120
T/F. SKED will accommodate all LAFD long and short boards
True
623
Tb120
There are ___ basic ways to get a patient into the SKED. What are they?
3
The log roll, the slide, and on an approved spinal immobilization device
624
Tb120
When performing the "slide" method for moving patient onto SKED, position the sked where?
Position foot end of SKED at head of patient
625
Tb120
Patients secured. to short board devices should be placed into the SKED using the _____ technique
slide
626
Tb120 SKED
Secure the head end of the stretcher up and over the patients head by tying the pre-attached handle to a _______ cross strap.
convenient
627
Tb120
SKED vertical hoist set up. Tie the ends of the rope together with what knot?
Square knot with safety overhand on each bitter end
628
Tb120
When rolling the SKED for storage, start at what end?
The head end
629
Tb120
How do you clean the SKED?
wash with mild detergent solution and air dry out of direct sun
630
Tb123 RF Radiation hazard
There are how many different types of radiation? what are they?
3
Solar, nuclear, and radio frequency (RF radiation)
631
Tb123
What is the best advice when it comes to amount of radiation from an antenna?
"only become exposed for as long as it takes you to walk by, and walk as far away as possible"
632
Tb123
Over-exposure to RF energy in rare cases can ___ you
cook
633
Tb123
There are __ types of radar antennas.
2
634
Tb123
Radar antennas. Type __ has a rotating external visible antenna. Type __ has the rotating portion of the antenna in a dome making activity determination difficult.
1, 2
635
Tb123
Radar antennas. If the antenna is rotating, the system is ____
active
636
Tb123
T/F. There is no safe way to approach a rotating radar antenna
True. Must de-energize prior to operations
637
Tb123
Will De-energizing cellular sites deactivate the cellular sites?
De-energizing cellular sites will not deactivate as most have generator backups.
638
Tb123
There is minimal RF exposure to the member when the radio is held properly with the antenna tip at least __ inches from the eye.
6"
639
Tb127
Cleaning is the best method of visual and _____ inspection.
tactile
640
Tb127
Pressure washers are dangerous and can cause an "________" injury.
injection
641
Tb127
A list of municipal clarifiers is included as Part ___ of this Training Bulletin.
VI (6)
642
Tb127
Who should provide CAV time for undercarriage cleaning when possible, and may need to adjust inspection schedules to accommodate cleaning.
Company Commanders and Battalion Commanders
643
Tb127
It is expected that major undercarriage cleaning will be done when the company is ___.
CAV
644
Tb127
When companies have been placed CAV for undercarriage cleaning, the ______________ shall ensure that the apparatus is able to safely respond and members are clean and ready for response prior to making the company available
Company Commander
645
Tb127
Members shall not use any equipment that creates an aerosol spray of any flammable liquids such as ________.
Kerosene
646
Tb127
The approved product for undercarriage cleaning is available through SRS, listed in the catalog as: "_____________"
"degreaser, gunk type"
647
Tb127
Members should void directing high -pressure spray at what?
Rubber seals
648
Tb127
In all cases where power washers are used, lubrication should be done the same day cleaning takes place, and in no case later than when?
the next day
649
Tb127
The most significant damage to apparatus from pressure washers occurs when water is sprayed in to what?
Electrical and electronic components
650
Tb127
Transmission oil and Differential oil is only to be handled by who ?
Shops
651
Tb127
Use Power lube equipment with a max air pressure of what?
60 psi
652
Tb127
All steering connections with rubber "boots" are to be lubed with what?
hand pumped lube guns only
653
Tb127
Zerk fittings, also called what?
"Alemite"
654
Tb127
Grease should be forced out until when?
Grease appears free of contaminants
655
Tb127
Members shall not paint the undercarriage of apparatus or any portion thereof, except as noted
paint may be applied to bare metal but only when needed to protect surfaces from corrosion
656
Tb127
When does S&M inspect apparatus undercarriage paint?
During annual test
657
Tb127
The primary focus of apparatus inspection is to ensure that apparatus is maintained in a clean and serviceable condition so that it is safe to operate and _________________
Ready for response
658
Tb127
"it is through inspection that ________ take responsibility for work done within their commands"
supervisors
659
Tb127
Apparatus Inspection can be divided into __ distinct parts
4
660
Tb127
All fire stations are inspected ______ by the Administrative Battalion Commander during the first two weeks of even months. Every ___ months, the Administrative Battalion Commander will inspect the undercarriage of heavy apparatus.
bi-monthly, 4
661
Tb127
Whos responsibility to ensure the members, station, appratus, and records are complete and ready for inspection?
Station Commanders
(expected to conduct pre-inspection)
662
Tb127
Patient care equipment shall be wiped down with an alcohol or ___% bleach-based disinfectant after each patient contact.
10
663
Tb127
Aerials are tested when?
- upon acceptance
- after possible damage or repairs
- after operation outside normal limitations
- annual aerial ladder test
664
Tb33
Put __ drops of air motor lubrication oil #288 down the air in take hold. Reconnect to air supply and operate unit for 1 to 2 seconds.
2
665
Tb127
Side slide pads should be inspected when the ladder is fully ________
Extended
666
Tb127
Curved or deformed load transfer pads indicate what?
overheating
667
Tb127
Body armor purchase prior to 2005 should be stored how?
flat
668
Tb127
"Pullover" type body armor purchased in 2005 shall be stored how?
rolled and stored in the carrying bag provided
669
Tb127
The Daily Pre-Trip Inspection is divided into __ general areas or steps
6
general overview
engine compartment
cab check
brakes
lights
walk around inspection
670
Tb127
COLA stands for what?
C cut in pressure
O cut out pressure
L air leakage rate
A alarms - low pressure warning
671
Tb127
Air compressor must cut in no lower than __psi.
LAFD vehicles usually cut-in at approx ___ psi.
85, 100
672
Tb127
Normal cut-out pressure is _______ psi.
Max cut-out pressure is ____ psi
110-120, 130
673
Tb127
Checking for Air leakage rate, apply full steady pressure to the brake pedal for how long?
1 min
674
Tb127
Low air warning devices must activate between __ and __ psi
55 and 75
675
Tb127 Apparatus is brought to the shops under __ conditions
5
annual test
scheduled repairs
unscheduled (emergency repairs)
routine lubrication
accidents
676
Tb127
Aerial ladders shall be cleaned and lubricated approx ______ prior to the annual test.
2 weeks
677
Tb127
In the MTA yard, adhere to the __ mph max speed limit, or the posted speed limit
8
678
Tb127
Reflective safety vest must be worn at all times within the yard, LAFD members shall wear a ________
brush jacket
679
Tb130
New ladder pipe assembly is the Akron Brass Company model _______.
1495
680
Tb130
The assembly contains new features and components designed to make ladder pipe operations safer, more efficient, and allow for ____ GPM flow
1000
681
Tb130
LAFD Ladder Pipe Components?
Assembly with 2 1/2" in line shut off
4" gate valve shut off (cluster)
2 1/2" stream staightner
smooth bore nozzles (1 1/2", 1 3/4", 2")
Akron turbo master spray nozzle (350 to 1000gpm)(assigned to random app)
682
Tb130
The stream straightener provided with the Akron 1495 (is ______ than the stream straightener used with the previous issue Akron 1496) shall be utilized with all nozzles during ladder pipe operations.
shorter
683
Tb130
Pressures for Akron 1495 ladder pipe include pumping through the cluster, 100' of 3", assemby and tip, with the ladder extended to ______ feet
70
684
Tb130
Tip. Gpm psi
1 1/2" 600 ___
1 3/4" 800 ___
2" 1000 ___
150, 170, 190
685
Tb130
Akron turbo master spray nozzle pressures
350, 500, 750, 1000
140, 160, 180, 220
686
Tb135
The ______ Consensus focuses on early hemorrhage control to improve survivability
Hartford
687
Tb135
Hartford Consensus recommends actions contained in acronym _______.
THREAT.
Threat suppression
Hemorrhage control
Rapid Extraction
Assessment by medical providers
Transport to definitive care
688
Tb135
During an active shooter incident, FD will be responsible for establishing what 4 things?
rescue group
medical group
fire group
communications plan
689
Tb135
As a minimum, an RTF shall have ___ fire department medical personnel and ___ force protection officers. When possible, RTFs should incorporate a paramedic.
2, 2
690
Tb135
Trauma treatment and evacuation aid bags (tactical bags) are specifically stocked to treat __ trauma patients.
2
691
Tb135
Addressing the "four preventable causes of death" utilizing the _______ algorithm
M.A.R.C.H
692
Tb135
The _____________ shall be worn when responding to reported active shooter incidents and other incidents where gunfire may be encountered
ballistic helmets
693
Tb135
TEMS is a ___ tiered program
3
1. FRO
2. Technician
3. Specialist
694
Tb135
The _______ is that area wherein a direct and immediate threat exists
Hot Zone, (should be considered an IDLH)
695
Tb135
The ________ is that area wherein a potential threat exists, but the threat may not be direct or immediate
Warm Zone (should be considered an IDLH)
696
Tb135
Allowing fire department personnel to operate for a short period of time within the ____ Zone is permissible if they are provided with Force Protection
Warm
697
Tb135
The _________ is that area where no significant danger or threat can be reasonably anticipated.
Cold Zone
698
Tb135
For the sake of fire department operations, the ________________ should be considered an IDLH.
inner perimeter
699
Tb135
A stone or concrete wall, or tree of at least __ feet in diameter would provide cover from most small arms fire.
2
700
Tb136
Aircraft emergencies. The single most important factor is what?
type of emergency declared by the pilot
701
Tb136
LAX has __ terminals with more than 140 aircraft parking spaces for commercial airlines.
9
702
Tb136
Data shows an exit via aircraft emergency chutes, an __% injury rate will occur with no hazard present
8
703
Tb136
When a pilot notifies the LAX Air Traffic Control Tower of an aircraft emergency, the Tower declares an Alert __ or Alert __ via the “RED” Telephone Notification System.
2, 3
704
Tb136
How many security access posts for escorted access to the AOA are there?
5
705
Tb136
What are the fire service 3 primary incident objectives during the initial stages of a low-impact aircraft crash where potential for survivors exist?
- exterior and interior fire extinguishment
-evacuation/rescue
-triage and treat injured patients
706
Tb136
How many passengers can an Airbus A380 carry?
800
707
Tb136
A medical supply cache and emergency backboard trailer with __ backboards is stored in a hanger immediately west of FS80.
90
708
Tb136
T/F. Aircraft and buses have the right-of-way regardless of emergency response
true
709
Tb136
What size perimeter is made around entire aircraft?
300'
710
Tb139
What is the Standard for Fire Service Respiratory Protection Training?
NFPA 1404
711
Tb139
Air management is a practice, a ________ and a mind-set to ensure all members are aware of their air supply and collectively as a team
philosophy
712
Tb139
Exit from an IDLH environment should be initiated _____ the low air alarm begins to sound.
before
713
Tb139
Activation of the low air alarm (__% of SCBA air capacity) is an immediate action item for the individual/team and according to NFPA is to be treated with the same urgency as a Mayday or firefighter emergency
33
714
Tb139
Supervisors and members share responsibility for and shall consider time needed for safe exit when objective is reached or SCBA air reserve is at __% whichever occurs first.
50
715
Tb139
Company Commanders shall ensure all members participate in quarterly, company based drills. Members are encouraged to train more frequently but in no case less than _______
quarterly
716
Tb139
__________ is a real-time heat alarm, giving an indication of the present state of the temperature, meaning that it is a sliding curve of heat and time
Thermalert
717
Tb140
What is the most effective means of transporting personnel and equipment aloft in high rise buildings?
Elevators
718
Tb140
Firefighters require approx __ min per floor to ascend stairs
1
719
Tb140
Elevator emergency service is divided into two pahses: Phase I "_________" and Phase II "_________"
Recall phase, Override phase
720
Tb140
The ____ Elevator Code requires a similar 3 position “Recall” key switch with positions marked “RESET,” “OFF,” and “ON”. Replacing previous "bypass" position
2008
721
Tb140
Elevator ascent during investigations or firefighting operations shall only be used when the reported location is ABOVE the ____ floor.
6th
722
Tb140
Elevators shall not be taken closer than __ floors below the reported fire floor or __ floors below the lowest indicated alarm floor location.
2,2
723
Tb140
If the building is equipped with split bank elevators, do not use an elevator that services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within __ floors of the fire floor.
5
724
Tb140
Elevators that travel through a “blind shaft’ should be _______ whenever possible.
avoided
725
The LA City high-rise retrofit ordinance, effective in ____) that requires all elevators on all levels in all existing high-rise buildings (except Group R, Division 1 occupancies) open into elevator lobbies which are separated from the remainder of the building, including corridors and other exits, by walls having a fire resistive rating of not less than _____.
1989, One hour
726
Tb140
All lobby openings for elevator doors shall be protected with _____ automatic closing fire assemblies with magnetic hold open devices for door closure actuated by any initiating devise located on the floor.
3/4 hr (45 min)
727
Tb140
Elevator lobbies, except for the _____________ level lobby, are provided with a smoke detector located on the lobby ceiling. All lobby doors are designed to close on actuation of any fire alarm initiating device for that specific floor.
main entrance
728
Tb140
All members, including the member identified as the elevator operator, utilizing the elevator as a means of ascent shall be equipped with what?
Full PPE, SCBA, Radio, sound powered phone, forcible entry tool, and appropriate equipment for fire suppression operations or the assigned task
729
Tb140
A ________________ shall remain in the elevator car with the elevator operator
dry chemical extinguisher
730
Tb140
Once the elevator system, either through automatic or manual mode, has been placed into Phase I recall, the elevator car alarm (buzzer) should have silenced once the elevator car(s) arrives where?
at the lobby or recall location
731
Tb140
Phase II operation is indicated on the control panel as “ON” or “_____________”
FIREMAN SERVICE
732
Tb140
If the circular “fire service,” “fire helmet,” or “Maltese cross jewel” indicator light on the elevator car control panel is _______, the elevator cars in that bank should not be used.
blinking
733
Tb140
Performing elevator checks, how many times do you check the "Reset" or "Call Cancel" feature to ensure proper operation?
Twice
734
Tb140
precautionary stops shall be made every ___ floors in order to test and confirm that the elevator is properly operating in Phase II as designed
5
735
Tb140
No more than __ personnel with equipment shall be permitted in any one elevator at a time, this will preventing exceeding the weight capacity of the elevator.
6
736
Tb140
The use of an elevator always requires more than __ people
4
737
Tb140
In a high rise fire, the fire will double for every __ min it burns unchecked
1
738
Tb145
Most combustible metal fires produce extreme temperatures ranging from __________ degrees Fahrenheit
5000 (3x temp of typical SF) to 9000
739
Tb145
Fires involving combustible metals are designated as a class “__” fire.
D
740
Tb145
Combustible metals can be divided into __ categories
2.
Alkali metals
Alkali earth metals, Transitional metals, and other metals
741
Tb145
Alkali metals (Lithium, Sodium, and Potassium) are water-reactive under non-fire conditions and should be placarded with the “__” under the NFPA ___ system
W, 704
742
Tb145
________ metals are highly reactive and therefore they are usually stored immersed in mineral oil or kerosene (paraffin oil
Alkali
743
Tb145
Full compliance of requiring an NFPA Placard with a "W" for all businesses that utilize combustible metals is expected by when ?
January 2011
744
Tb145
These metals (titanium, magnesium, zirconium, and aluminum) shall be indicated by an “__” in the fourth space if the quantities or form meet the LAFD criteria for placarding (occupancies that exceed ___ pounds of combustible metals as per Table 4-A of the Los Angeles Fire Code or that process or store ___ pounds or less of combustible metals that are in the form of dusts, chips, powders, turnings, or ribbons)
M, 500, 500
745
If multiple hazards exist, the symbols (no more than __) shall be stacked with the most ______ hazard indicated on top and the combustible metal symbol "M" (when applicable) always position at the ________.
two, severe, bottom
746
Tb145
What DOT class are Flammable Solids?
4
Red and white striped placard
747
Tb145
Extinguishment of combustible metal fires is accomplished through _______ of the burning material.
smothering
748
Tb145
Dry powder, under the brand name “________”, is the only approved product provided by the LAFD to extinguish combustible metal fires
MET-L-X
749
Tb145
S&M maintains approx ____ pounds of MET-L-X and has the ability to deliver it to the scene of the fire
500
750
Tb145
MET-L-X is applied manually through use of a _______ or by disbursing directly from the storage bucket
Shovel
751
Tb145
Per the manufacture’s recommendations, a ___ inch layer of MET-L-X is required to effectively smother a fire
One
752
Tb145
___ pounds of product is required for every ___ square foot of fire. The entire stock of MET-L-X maintained at Supply and Maintenance would only extinguish a ___ square foot fire.
10, 1, 50
753
Tb145
“Copious amounts of water in a __________” can be effective on certain types of combustible metals in small quantities.
coarse stream
754
Tb145
“Purple K” is ___ an effective extinguishing agent for combustible metal fires
not
755
Tb145
A small amount of product (approximately the size of a __________) that is in the incipient stage of burning may possibly be manually separated from exposures by a fully encapsulated Firefighter through use of a shovel or similar tool.
wastebasket
756
Tb145
Depending on the size of the fire and the amount of product, the metal will completely oxidize to the point of extinguishment, this may take ___ hours or longer.
24
757
Tb145
The LAFD is not accustomed to using products such as “_______” during structure fires; however, Incident commanders may consider its use to protect exposures and avoid run-off at the same time
Barricade
758
Tb145
Most incidents can be abated through the actions of Separation, _______, and Extinguishment
Isolation
759
Tb149
As of _______________, the State of California is requiring the installation of residential fire sprinklers in all new one and two family dwellings and manufactured homes.
January 1, 2011
760
Tb149
NFPA 13D standard that includes new construction of garages, patios extending ___ feet from house and unattached structures greater than ___ sq. ft.
4', 200
761
Tb149
The International Association of Fire Chiefs (IAFC) report that approximately 3,000 civilians perish annually from fire, with nearly _____ of those deaths occurring at home.
2/3
762
Tb149
According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), a home fire can reach deadly proportions in as little as ___ minutes, with _________ minutes passing before first responders arrive.
3, 7-10
763
Tb149
Residential sprinkler head temperatures range from ____ to ____.
135 to 175
764
Tb149
Residential sprinkler head covers a min area of _________. Extended coverage heads can cover a ___________ area
12'x12', 20'x20'
765
Tb149
Who plan checks and approves the installation of residential sprinklers?
Plumbing/Mechanical Engineering division of the LA Dept. of building and safety (LADBS)
766
Tb149
Most home systems in the City are connected to the ________ water supply
domestic
767
Tb149
LADBS requires a (minimum) water demand capable of flowing ___ heads for a period of ___ minutes.
2, 10
768
Tb149
Most all of the new systems in the City use _____ due to cost, fabrication time, fire resistiveness, connectablility to domestic water and less friction loss.
CPVC - chlorinated polyvinylchloride (orange in color)
769
Tb150
The Dräger X-am 5000 combustible gas meter (CGI) is a __ sensor gas monitor and alarm device designed for personnel monitoring and confined space applications
5
770
Tb150
Drager X-am 5000 is equipped with __ gas specific sensors and a ___ catalytic sensor for explosive vapors
4, 5th
(CO,O2,HCN,H2S)
771
Tb150
The X-am 5000 is a _______ monitor meaning it does not have a mechanical pump to draw in air samples
passive
772
Tb150
Fresh air calibrations are performed in the field by emergency responders, and gas-specific calibrations are performed by HazMat Squad personnel every __ months and anytime the meter’s start-up self test indicates a sensor problem
6
773
Tb150
The combustible gas sensor may display incorrect readings in oxygen-poor atmospheres with less than __% oxygen.
10
774
Tb150
IMMEDIATELY LEAVE ANY AREA WITH OXYGEN READING GREATER THAN ____%, THERE IS DANGER OF EXPLOSION!
23.5
775
Tb150
Hydrogen has a flammability range of _______ and acetylene has a flammability range of __________
4%-75%, 2.5%-100%
776
Tb150
The flammability range of methane is between _________
5%-15%
777
Tb150
The X-am 5000 is set to alarm at __% of the LEL for the A1 alarm and alarm at __% of the LEL for the A2 alarm.
10, 20
778
Tb150
switching on the device, press and hold the OK key for approx ___ seconds.
3
779
Tb150
When the Drager 1/3 battery full symbol flashes on the right side of the display, the battery will last for how many more minutes?
20
780
Tb150
When empty battery symbol flashes on the right side of the display, the device will automatically shut off after how many seconds?
10
781
Tb150
Drager gas meter is powered by what battery?
2 AA alkaline batteries
782
Tb150
When batteries are repalced it will take up to __ minutes for the device to warm up.
30
783
Tb150
Replace batteries if less than ____ full.
3/4
784
Tb150
Recommended calibration interval for all chemical sensors is ___ days
180 days (6mo)
785
Tb150
Drager Batteries last no more than what?
2 to 3 weeks
786
Tb151
The methodology to anchor, flank and _____ in coordination with helicopter support and structure protection remains the desired operational objective
pinch
787
Tb151
What are the two methods for deploying hose?
Simple and progressive
788
Tb151
A Company given the task of establishing a progressive hose lay is expected to, at a minimum, be able to put in __ drops
3
789
Tb151
Each Pack weighs approximately __ lbs
26
790
Tb151
While loading, secure the hose every ________ until the 1” line is completely loaded.
8’-10’
791
Tb156
There are over ______ hillside structures in the city
400,000
792
Tb156
There are __ general categories of hillside homes.
3
Descending, Ascending, Cantilever
793
Tb156
The type of home also known as a stilt home?
Cantilever
794
Tb156
Cantilever hillside homes cantilever out as much as __ to __ feet over the hillside.
50 to 75
795
Tb156
One of the biggest challenges with hillside homes is access to _________ from grade level
lower floors
796
Tb156
If the building features make it impossible to attack the fire at or below the lowest level of fire involvement, concerned officers should consider utilizing the tactic of “_____________,” with limited and focused application of water from the exterior, directly through windows only when visible fire is showing.
Transitional attack
797
Tb156
It is the LAFD practice that any hillside home that has one or more floors below grade with access, be attacked whenever possible from a portal of entry at or ____ origin of the fire.
below
798
Tb156
One of the most overlooked effects of natural ventilation on hillside home is the ______ wind influence. Usually change directions twice per day.
Diurnal
799
Tb156
In a descending hillside home, the level below grade would become what level?
Sub-Division 1, may be communicated as Sub-1
800
Tb156
What is an alternative to sounding the floor system of potential fire below on a hillside home?
Axe or similar tool for indicator hole
801
Tb156
A normal response for a hillside, single or multi-family dwelling is a "__" assignment
C
802
Tb159
Establishing the outer perimeter may be accomplished by who?
Police officers
803
Tb159
Although the maximum recommended floor level from which a person may fall into the Air Rescue Cushion may be exceeded, it may still be __________ to deploy the Air Rescue Cushion.
advisable
804
Tb159
Approval to pick-up or move any deployed equipment must come from who?
Unified Command
805
Tb159
Currently there are __ 70-foot and __ 100-foot Air Rescue Cushions
8, 4
806
Tb159
What is the preferred source of electricity for air cushion blowers?
Trucks on-board generator
807
Tb159
If the on-board generator or other 110 AC power source is not available, ___ portable generators will be required to deploy the Air Rescue Cushion.
2
808
Tb159
What are two negatives to using gas-powered blowers?
- significant noise
-CO, long term degeneration on fabric of cushion
809
Tb159
The Air Rescue Cushion will fully inflate in less than __ seconds and re-inflate in __ seconds.
60, 20
810
Tb164
The LAFD definition of a Transitional Attack is the coordinated application of water with a ________ stream from the exterior of a structure that provides a brief “break of the fire triangle” by cooling the environment prior to transitioning into an offensive attack.
straight
811
Tb164
The UL, ATF, and NIST studies all show that water applied through a window or door exhausting fire or high velocity _________ smoke can have a positive impact on interior conditions by reducing temperatures thus, improving survivability of civilians and increasing firefighter safety.
turbulent
812
Tb164
Transitional Attack streams SHALL only flow water until when?
change in conditions are seen
813
Tb164
Always __________ and __________ your tactical intent on the tactical radio channel to all companies prior to employing transitional attack
Communicate, coordinate.
814
Tb164
To use this technique effectively, direct a STRAIGHT STREAM through an open window or door at an _______ angle towards the ceiling of the involved room.
exaggerated/steep
815
Tb165
At the federal level, the United States Department of Justice currently classifies marijuana as a __________ substance under the Controlled Substances Act (CSA)
Schedule I
816
Tb165
In 1996, California voters passed Prop ___ which legalized the medical use of marijuana.
21
817
Tb165
Estimated to be over ____ Marijuana dispensaries in the City of LA
1000
818
Tb165
Illegal Marijuana Growing operations can use up to ___ times the power of an average residence
10
819
Tb165
Ballasts used to run high intensity grow lights which can maintain a charge for up to ___ minutes after being disconnected.
15
820
Tb165
Carbon dioxide and ozoe are both used in grow rooms to enhance growing conditions, which can siplace oxygen to below safe levels. An atmosphere containing less the ___% oxygen is considered oxygen deficient, creating an asphyxiation hazard
19.5
821
Tb165
During illegal grow operations, humidity levels can be up to ____%
100
822
Tb165
Illegal marijuana operations often use improved explosive devices and "booby traps". What is a APD?
Anti-personnel device
823
Tb165
Communicate "___________________" via radio as soon as it becomes known
illegal marijuana operation
824
Tb165
Transition to a ___________ stance once knock-down has been achieved and life haard has been addressed and abated
Haz Mat/ Crime scene
825
Tb165
Illegal marijuana operation, who shall be requested by IC if not included on initial assignment?
LAFD Haz Mat
LAFD Arson
JHAT (Joint Hazard Assessment Team)
826
Tb168
Training ventilation props must abide by provisions of Title__ of the California Code of Regulations
8
827
Tb168
Railings are required on buildings where workers are over ___ inches above the ground in addition to other structures where workers are over ___ inches above the ground.
30, 42
828
Tb168
Where workers are over ______ feet above the ground, and not protected by other systems, such as railings, workers must have personal fall arrest systems, and be trained in their use.
7 1/2'
829
Tb168
Surfaces over __ feet above the ground where workers can pass below require toe boards, which prevent tools or material from falling onto workers passing below.
6'
830
Tb168
The California ________________ contains regulations regarding work where workers could sustain injury due to falls.
Administrative Code
831
Tb168
The department divides the roof training props into two broad categories, what are they?
flat and pitched
832
Tb168
Any roof prop that has a pitch over _________ is considered "pitched"
1"x12" (1:12)
833
Tb168
For permission to use any of the roof props at Franks and to schedule training, members shall complete and forward an _____________ to the training division commander or ISTS
E-Request Form
834
Tb168
Drill Towers 81 and 40 are under the control of the Recruit Services Section (RSS) and permission must be secured from who for use?
RSS Commander
835
Tb168
Regional Training Center Roof Props are located at what fire stations? Who shall permission be secured from for use?
5, 21, 59, 89
Station Commander, with notification to affected Battalion Commander
836
Tb168
The department will not allow pitched roof props or roof props over ___ inches in height at Regional Training Centers or Fire stations.
30
837
Tb168
Any roof prop built at a Fire Station needs written approval through channels to the respective ______ commander as well as notification to the _________.
Bureau, ISTS
838
Tb168
The FHMTC E-Form Request can be found on the Department ________ under the In-Service Training Section tab, the form can be hand delivered to the Training Division office, or can be e-mailed to ________________.
Intranet, lafdists@lacity.org
839
Tb169
The Hot Stick consists of a high sensitivity AC amplifier for the frequency range of __ to ___ Hz
20 to 100 Hz
840
Tb169
The detector is not designed to identify _____________ voltages
Direct Current (DC)
841
Tb169
The Hot Stick USA AC is manufactured by Delsar. It is made of high strength plastic and is _____” in length and ____” in diameter.
20 ½", 1 ¾"
842
Tb169
The Hot Stick USA is powered by __ Alkaline batteries and weighs slightly over 1lb with batteries installed
4AA
843
Tb169
How many operationsl settings does the Hot Stick have?
4.
Off, High, Low, and Front focused
844
Tb169
The red striped area of the Hot Stick indicates what?
The sensing section of the tool
845
Tb169
The Hot Stick requires no warm up and is ready for use in __ seconds after turning it on.
5
846
Tb169
After use and ______, inspect the device for any damage to the plastic housing. Clean by wiping down with a damp cloth
monthly
847
Tb169
The Hot Stick has been tested to operate continuously for ____ hours by the manufacturer. It is recommended to change the 4 AA batteries at least _______ or when discharged.
300, annually
848
Tb169
When Hot Stick batteries are low, the tool will emit a ______ sound along with a solid LED light when turned _______.
solid beeping, on
849
Tb169
Hot stick, if only one battery is installed incorrectly, the device will sound __________ and the LED light will illuminate as well.
continuously
850
Tb170
The Narcan spray is easily administered through the nose (intranasal) and works within _________.
minutes
851
Tb170
Narcan Nasal Spray administers a pre-metered dosage of __mg. It should be used in all instances where there is a suspected narcotic overdose with respiratory arrest or hypoventilation (less than __ breaths per minute)
4, 8
852
Tb170
Narcan Nasal Spray should be administered once a ______ assessment has been performed and the indications for use are confirmed.
primary
853
Tb170
If respiratory rate remains less than __ breaths per minute, a ______ 4mg Nasal Narcan Spray may be administered
8, second
854
Tb170
Upon recovery of an adequate respiratory rate and tidal volume, patients should be placed on their _____ side in order minimize the risk of emesis and aspiration.
left
855
Tb170
Nasal narcan can be administered to a pediatric pt __ year or more
1
856
Tb172
The challenges that present themselves with Lithium-ion (Li-Ion) Battery systems is that these systems continue to generate ____ well after the fire is extinguished.
heat
857
Tb172
Lithium-ion batteries can range from ___ to ____ plus volts
100 to 500
858
Tb172
A "___________________" is a term used when a battery cell suffers a short circuit; the battery heats up and continues to produce heat, even when it is extinguished and/or submerged in water.
Thermal Runaway
859
Tb172
During a thermal runaway event, temperatures can exceed over ____ degrees Fahrenheit.
900
860
Tb172
The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) statistics show that about ___ cars catch fire for every 1 billion miles driven in the United States.
90
861
Tb172
LAFD personnel shall establish a ___ foot safety zone when extinguishing an EV fire with water and wear full structure fire personal protective equipment (PPE) and self-contained breathing apparatus
30'
862
Tb172
During NFPA testing, it was determined that it could take _____ and up to _____ gallons of water to effectively cool down the battery.
2,600, 3,000
863
Tb172
One option to ensure penetration into the battery is to completely ________ the battery in water.
submerge
864
Tb172
Should foam be used on lithium ion battery fire?
No, foam will insulate the hot area to prevent further cooling
865
Tb172
For successful battery extinguishment, nozzle pressure under __ psi is more effective for prevention of heat transfer
50
866
Tb172
LAFD personnel will use a ___________ fog rather than a __________ straight stream.
low-flow, high-pressure
867
Tb172
What should you do if you detect leaking fluids, sparks, smoke, or bubbling noises coming from the high-voltage battery?
ventilate the vehicle by opening the windows and trunk to prevent the buildup of fumes
868
Tb172
According to the U.S. Fire Administration, consider the electrical system unsafe for a full ___ minutes after ignition shut down despite no engine noises
5
869
Tb172
When assigned to an Electronic vehicle incident, to eliminate electrocution hazard wear the department approved ______________ when in contact with the vehicles, including incidents that require extrication
Gauntlet gloves
870
Tb172
In all vehicle accidents or auto fires involving EV or hybrid vehicles, LAFD personnel shall make every attempt to disconnect the DC battery at the vehicles "___________________"
First Responder Loop
871
Tb172
EV/Hybrid fires. Consideration should be given to ordering a ____________ on freeway incidents where a water supply cannot be established.
Water Tender
(capacity of 2,500 gallons)
872
Tb172
Consult vehicle manufacturer for the location of the "first responser loop" and ___________ the wiring to ensure they will not touch.
double cut
873
Tb175
Post SF Decon. The “_______________” initiatives focus on minimizing the exposure of carcinogens to each of our members
Everyone Goes Home
874
Tb175
All LAFD members directly exposed to firefighting operations shall adhere to the Post Structure Fire Decon Procedures which utilize ________ exclusively and is not intended to launder PPE on scene of an incident, but reduce or eliminate any inhalation risks
water
875
Tb175
Post SF Decon. It is the overall responsibility of the ____________ to implement tis process and designate a decontamination company(s)
incident commander (IC)
876
Tb175
Post SF Decon. It is the overall responsibility of the ____________ to implement tis process and designate a decontamination company(s)
incident commander (IC)
877
Tb175
Post SF decon. The duration of ______ and ______ is currently the best line of defense against any dangerous form of gases, vapors and particulates.
time and shielding
878
Tb175
Post SF Decond. Studies have shown that duration of ______ and _______ greatly reduces the level of exposure to members in a hazardous environment
time and proper ventilation
879
Tb175
Post SF Decon. Firefighting gear provides protection from products of combustion in what two forms?
respiratory (SCBA) and skin absorption (turnouts)
880
Tb175
After removing firefighting gloves, members shall don ___________ to minimize contact with skin absorbing carcinogens and PPE shall be placed in a plastic trash bag.
EMS gloves
881
Tb175
Post SF Decon. The Department currently uses __________ for the use of decontamination of exposed skin areas and are NOT to be used to wipe down equipment.
Hero Wipes
882
Tb175
Post SF Decon. Hero Wipes are available from ____________ and can be ordered through the supply requisition System
S&M
883
Tb175
Companies identified as needing showers should change their status to “NAV” (Not Available) / Code __ Decon until they have completed showering.
29
884
Tb175
Post SF Decon. Laundering PPE ____________ following an incident will reduce the members' overall exposure to hazardous substances and toxins from wearing contaminated clothing and extend the life of PPE.
Immediately
885
Tb175
Any questions regarding the Post Structure Fire Decon Procedures shall be directed to their respective _________ Commander.
Battalion
886
Tb175
Post SF Decon. The use of _____________ to monitor the atmosphere is recommended in selecting the proper PPE, in addition to the completion of exposure reporting.
gas meters
887
Tb175
Post SF Decon consist of how many steps?
4
-Pre Rinse
-Doff w/ems gloves, into trash bag
-wipe exposed skin with Hero wipes
- bagged PPE in outside compartment
888
Tb176
The Reveal FirePRO delivers high-resolution thermal imaging and comes with a powerful ____-lumen light emitting diode (LED) light, which is available at the touch of a button
300
889
Tb176
The Reveal FirePRO is an inventory item and one unit is assigned to each ____________ position
fire suppression
890
Tb176
Seek Reveal FirePRO. The default for “Auto” is set to the “____” position to ensure the device will not accidently trigger an automatic “Power Off” during an emergency. When the device is on, it is set to a default of ___ minutes which can be adjusted more or less depending on the user’s preferences. This function can be disabled at any time by switching to “Off,” regardless of how much time is selected.
off, 15
891
Tb176
Seek Reveal FirePRO. To engage the flashlight, press the SIDE button on the RIGHT side of the camera. Pressing the button _____ times will toggle you through the options “High,” “Low,” “Strobe,” and “Off.” The flashlight will work whether the camera is on or off.
4
892
Tb176
Seek Reveal FirePRO. The temperature color bar visually displays a temperature range up to _____°F
1022°F
893
Tb176
Seek Reveal FirePRO. The ______ number in the temperature bar identifies which temperature the image begins to colorize. Anything below the bottom temperature will appear black and white, with high dynamic range, and anything above it will begin to colorize.
lower
894
Tb176
The Reveal FirePRO has ___ different modes which have been optimized for First Responders
3
895
Tb176
Reveal FirePRO. This mode is specifically designed for locating hotspots.
Fire Mode
896
Tb176
Reveal FirePRO. This mode is optimal for helping locate downed firefighters or victims during search and rescue
Survey Mode
897
Tb176
Reveal FirePRO. This is a demonstration mode and is best suited for classroom training. It highlights areas of heat in ____ with colorful borders as the temperature decreases
Color Mode, red
898
Tb176
Reveal FirePRO. The camera saves images and viewed within ____ files.
PNG
899
Tb176
Switching off the FirePRO thermal imaging camera, press and hold down the CENTER button for ___ seconds until the screen goes dark.
2
900
Tb176
The Reveal FirePRO will provide up to ___ hours of scanning time with a full charge.
4
901
Tb176
What are the methods identified by the department for carrying the Reveal FirePRO?
- Members w/ 1 radio: shall be attached to mic holder above empty radio pocket
- Members w/ 2 radios: shall be carried inside facepiece pouch while attached o a secure point
902
Tb176
If the Reveal FirePRO is not functioning properly, return it to the LAFD ____________________ for an evaluation.
Equipment Engineering Unit (EEU)
903
Tb176
Reveal FirePRO. The recommended cleaning material for the lens is a cotton swab and _________________
isopropyl alcohol
904
Tb176. Reveal FirePRO. If the device will not turn on, Plug the device in with the supplied wall charger or another ___-amp-rated charger to ensure there is enough battery remaining
1
905
Tb176
Reveal FirePRO. Battery power should be at least ___% to achieve optimal performance.
40
906
Tb179
In hillside areas, with ascending, descending, or cantilever homes, this small structure (detached garage) may be located at _______ level with the residential structure behind.
street
907
Tb179
The Los Angeles City “____________________ Ordinance” prescribes standards governing residential conversions. While some garages have been converted legally under this ordinance, it is estimated that there are __________ of structures which have been illegally converted and exist today.
Accessory Dwelling Unit (ADU), thousands
908
Tb179
Residential garage fires. A more reliable method to identify these units could be the lack of a garage door, or the presence of additional address numbering, including “___” addresses.
1/2
909
Tb179
Garage roofs may be constructed of lumber with _______ dimensions than the associated residence, spaced further apart, and with a relatively low pitch
smaller
910
Tb179
Residential garage fires. During the size up, particular attention should be paid to what?
indicators of a residential conversion
911
Tb179
Residential garage fires. Alternative tactics such as Transitional Attack combined with ______________ should be considered whenever possible.
Horizontal ventilation
912
Tb179
The decision to place a truck company on the roof of a garage to perform this function should not be an absolute. A risk analysis must be performed, and vertical ventilation on a garage fire should be the ___________, not the rule.
exception
913
Tb179
Based on the small size of an average residential garage, an adequate ventilation hole, if needed, may be accomplished either ________________, providing smoke and heat removal from the space.
vertically or horizontally
914
Tb179
Residential garage fires.If deemed necessary, a safe ventilation operation my be performed from where?
the load-bearing wall
915
Tb179
Vertical ventilation is not the perferred method on garage roofs supported by what?
lightweight truss construction
916
Tb180
An illegal narcotic laboratory or production house is also frequently referred to as a __________ drug laboratory, or "_________".
clandestine, Clan lab
917
Tb180
Clandestine drug labs generally cause ___ main types of harm.
3
-Physical injury
-environmental hazards
-child endangerment
918
Tb180
Drug labs. Fentnyl is reported to be __ to ___ times more potent than morphine.
50 to 100
919
Tb180. Drug labs. One of the most tent fentanyl analogues known as CARFENTANIL has a potency of _________ times that of morphine.
10,000
920
Tb180
Drug labs. Every pound of methamphetamine produced generates _____ or more pounds of hazardous waste
5
921
Tb180
How many illegal PCP laboratories are found because these volatile chamicals tend to explode or catch fire?
30%
922
Tb180
What gas is produced when potassium cyanide and hydrochloric acid are mixed?
Hydrogen cyanide
923
Tb180
Drug labs. The extracted THC can vary from ___% to 30% concentration in the prepared hash oil
6
924
Tb180
The method used for extracting hash oil has its basis in an industrial extraction method known as?
Supercritical Fluid Extraction
925
Tb180
Drug labs. The extraction device is often a section of ______ inch pipe (metal, plastic, glass) approx ______ feet long
1 3/4", 1 1/2"
926
Tb180
Drug labs. Butane is more than ___ times heavier than air and has an explosive range of 1.8% to 8.4%
Two
927
Tb180
Marijuana cultivation operations pose __ main hazards to responders
3
Electrical hazards, atmospheric conditions, physical harm
928
Tb180
If the presence of fentanyl is suspected, at a minimum, wear a properly fitted ______________ and eye protection, and minimize any potential skin contact
NIOSH respirator mask
929
Tb183
Thermite RS3 has an Elkhart Brass Monitor capable of flowing up to __________ gallons per minute.
2,500
930
Tb183
Thermite RS3 contains a 100' winch made of ___" braided steel cable rated at _______ lbs.
1/4", 8,000
931
Tb183
The RS3 is equipped with ___, 2 1/2" inlets
7
932
Tb183
Foam is delivered to the Thermite RS3 by what?
In-line foam eductor or JRC
(pump slightly higher to allow flow to open clapper)
933
Tb183
Thermite RS3 is housed where and operated by who?
FS88 and operated by Heavy Equipment Operators (HEO) assigned to the Wildland Fuel Management Unit WFMU
934
Tb183
Thermite RS3. The unit is only able to operate in a max of __" of water before potentially incurring damage to electrical components
8"
935
Tb184
What does LUCAS device stand for?
Lund University Cardiac Arrest System
936
Tb184
LUCAS is indicated for who?
Cardiac arrest patients older than 14 yrs and not 814
937
Tb184
LUCAS. The back plate should be high up at the patients _______
axilla
938
Tb184
LUCAS. Position suction cup and start compressions. Depress the reposition button then push the suction cup down using ___ finders until it touches the patients chest.
2
939
Tb184
(T/F) LUCAS is defibrillation safe
True
940
Tb184
The LUCAS device can be cleaned with a damp cloth and mild soap, __% isopropyl alcohol, or a 1:10 bleach cleaning solution, taking care to avoid the vent holes on the tower.
70
941
Tb184
Two buttons for the LUCAS to start CPR are what?
30:2 or continuous
942
Tb185
What is the LAFD new structure firefighting helmet?
MSA Cairns 1044
943
Tb185
MSA Cairns 1044 SF hemet meets NFPA ______: Standard on Protective Ensembles for Strucural Firefighting and Proximity Fire Fighting, 2018 edition
NFPA 1971
944
Tb185
MSA Cairns 1044 weighs approx ____ lbs and resists temperatures of over _____ degrees
3.46, 500
945
Tb185
MSA Cairns SF helmet has ___ components to the helmet.
10
946
Tb185
MSA Cairns 1044. Earlaps are a required NFPA 1971 component and are worn in _________ to a firefighting hood to provide thermal protection to the wearer’s neck and ears
addition
947
Tb185
MSA Cairns 1044. Cleaning helmet shell, Use a soft sponge or cloth dampened with a solution of warm water under ____˚ F, and mild detergent (pH of not less than 6.0 or more than 10.5)
105
948
Tb185
MSA Cairns 1044. Cleaning eye and face protection. Use mild cleaning agents such as ____________ or warm water under 105˚F with mild detergent
ethyl alcohol
949
Tb185
MSA Cairns 1044. Helmets shall be identified by the member's last name in __ inch capitalized reflective letters centered on the top side of the outer rear protective brim.
1
950
Tb 106
The member operating the nozzle might be described as having what kind of vision?
Tunnel vision
951
Tb106
The member backing up the nozzle member may be described as having what type of vision?
Funnel vision
