BK Flashcards
1
Q
Bk 3
Rules and Regulations. The Board of Fire Commissioners establishes the Rules and Regulations for the Fire Department as set forth in Section ___ of the Los Angeles City Charter.
A
506
2
Q
Bk 3
Rules and Regulations. Labor, management and employee resource groups have agreed that the Rules and Regulations serve as the LAFD’s _______________.
A
Code of Conduct
3
Q
Bk 3
Rules and Regulations. Who is the head of the Fire Department?
A
Board of Fire Commissioners
4
Q
Bk 3
Rules and Regulations. What are privileges granted by the Fire Chief?
A
- Early relief
- Exchange of time
- Parking POV in yards
- Family visitation to QTR
- Occupying beds in QTR while off duty
5
Q
Bk 3
Rules and Regulations. Allow no visitors in quarters after _____ hours.
A
2300
6
Q
Bk 3
Rules and Regulations. Apparatus drivers shall Acquaint themselves with the topography, physical conditions, street named, numbers, locations, and other matters affecting response in their first-alarm districts. Have a general knowledge of their _______________ districts
A
greater alarm
7
Q
Bk 3
Rules and Regulations. A member is entitled to consideration for this award by performing an act of conspicuous heroism and/or bravery under extreme personal risk above and beyond the calculated personal risk demands of the fire service.
A
Medal of Valor
8
Q
Bk 3
Rules and Regulations. Members taking conspicuous action in rendering aid during a life-saving or life-threatening situation under circumstance: which pose calculated risk to the members, or performing an endeavor which brings significant credit to the Fire Department, are entitled to consideration for this award.
A
Award of Merit
9
Q
Book 3
Rules and Regulations. An act performed of unusual character during emergency or non-emergency conditions, requiring initiative or ability worthy of recognition entitles a member to consideration for this commendation.
A
Letter of Special Commendation
10
Q
Book 3
Rules and Regulations. Unexcused absence of over ____ minute’s duration will be considered absence without leave. Tardiness shall be reported immediately
A
120
11
Q
Book 6
AOTM. What things must be considered when selecting a spot for raising the aerial ladder?
A
- aerial stability
- overhead wires
- steepness of grades
12
Q
Book 6
AOTM. Ground jacks serve what dual purpose?
A
- Prevent tilt of turntable from flattening of the tires on operating side.
- relieving tires of added weight.
13
Q
Book 6
AOTM. The best climbing angles are from ___ to ___ degrees inclination from horizontal
A
70 to 80
14
Q
Book 6
AOTM. Proper placement for maximum stability and preferred climbing angle is a matter of what?
A
experience and good judgment
15
Q
Book 6
AOTM. In the downtown area the curbs are approximately ___ feet from the building line.
A
11
16
Q
Book 6
AOTM. Spotting next to the curb, the aerial can operate between the ___ and ___ floors and maintain a climbing angel of 70 to 80 degrees.
A
5th and 8th
17
Q
Book 6
AOTM. Any operation below the ___ floor will result in climbing angles of less than 70 degrees.
A
5th
18
Q
Book 6
AOTM. Spotting outside the line of cars, any operation below the ___ floor will be conducted at a climbing angle of less than 70 degrees.
A
7th
19
Q
Book 6
AOTM. All ladders are stronger with load applied __________ to the rungs than when the load is applied in a sideways direction.
A
perpendicular
20
Q
Book 6
AOTM. The rungs of the aerial may be considered ______ any time that they are not parallel with the horizontal plane of the earth’s surface.
A
tilted
21
Q
Book 6
AOTM. The tilt with a 45 degree angle will be ________ as great as the tilt at a 90 degree angle.
A
one-half
22
Q
Book 6
AOTM. The apparatus is ____ stable with the ladder extended uphill than down.
A
more
23
Q
Book 6
AOTM. The ideal angle for jack-knifing is about ___ degrees from the in-line position, and away from the direction of ladder extension. (outside jack-knife)
A
60
24
Q
Book 6
AOTM. Even when the tractor is jack-knifed as much as __ degrees, the truck stability is more than twice as great as when in the in-line position.
A
30
25
Book 6
AOTM. It is best to have the ladder hoisted to at least a ___ degree angle before operating the other controls.
45
26
Book 6
AOTM. For windows and fire escape balconies, raise the ladder ___ foot above the sill or railing.
one
27
Book 6
AOTM. During high winds, 35 mph and over, use extra caution in operating the aerial. It may be advisable to attach guy ropes to top of fly if extended above ___ feet.
75
28
Book 6
AOTM. How many companies are required to put ladderpipe into operation?
two
29
Book 6
AOTM. It is desirable to prevent cylinder gauge from dropping below what psi while doing ladderpipe operation?
100psi
30
Book 6
AOTM. Lines on the ladder are loaded when inclination is about what degrees?
50
31
Book 6
AOTM. While doing ladderpipe, if more than a ___ degree horizontal sweep from the center is required it is best to rotate the turntable
15
32
Book 6
AOTM. Defensive driving involves making what two types of predictions?
- predict the predictable
- predict the unpredictable
33
Book 6
AOTM. Safe driving is made up of what?
20% safe vehicle
20% good physical condition of driver
60% driver attitude
34
Book 6
AOTM. Drivers over ___ years old have increasing difficulty in seeing well at night
50
35
Book 6
AOTM. As an average, it is considered that perception time is what?
3/4 of a second
36
Book 6
AOTM. As an average, it is considered that reaction time is what?
3/4 of a second
37
Book 6
AOTM. How far ahead of a turn should you switch on turn signals?
100 or more feet
38
Book 6
AOTM. Watch all objects for a block ahead when in town, ____ mile ahead when on rural roads.
1/2
39
Book 6
AOTM. "Around the corner" audibility at intersections where buildings are located, is as much as ____ less than on straightaway.
2/3
40
Book 6
AOTM. Audibility is diminished by how much inside of a vehicle when all the windows are closed, compared to when windows are open?
1/3
41
Book 6
AOTM. What is Average brake lag, time required for air to pass through a properly installed air brake system in good condition?
0.4 seconds.
42
Book 6
AOTM. The operating gages must be checked each tie the engine is started and should be referred to ______ during the driving process.
periodically
43
Book 6
AOTM. Gear split is ___% of peak engine speed
90
44
Book 6
AOTM. When descending grades and the braking effect of engine compression is utilized, it is good practice to hold the engine speed in the lower _____ of the operating range.
2/3
45
Book 6
AOTM. Both hands should be kept on the steering wheel, suggested position is about what?
10 and 2 o'clock
46
Book 6
AOTM. If in a skid, do not apply the brakes. Let up on the throttle gradually and turn the wheel which way?
in the direction of the skid
47
Book 6
AOTM. If the speed of an apparatus doubles, the perception-reaction and brake lag distances are doubled, the effective braking distance is increased how much?
4x
48
Book 6
AOTM. The engine heater should maintain the coolant temperature above what?
120F
49
Book 6
AOTM. If engine rotates but does not start within ___ seconds, release and allow to cool. Wait one to two minutes before repeating operation
30
50
Book 6
AOTM. Lubricating oil pressure should be at least __ psi
10
51
Book 6
AOTM. An excess of __ minutes of idling may result in clogged injectors, gumming of piston rings and/or engine part failure from lack of lubrication.
30
52
Book 6
AOTM. After a hard run or a long climb, the temperature of a turbocharger will rise as much as ___ degrees over normal operating temperature of 900F 1100F.
100F
53
Book 6
AOTM. No person shall stop, park, or leave standing any vehicle or any Harbor department roadway within __ feet of any fire hydrant except when attended by a licensed operator
15
54
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. How many classroom modules are in the Drivers Training Manual?
8
55
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. How many Phases are in Drivers Training Manual?
2.
Phase I: Classroom Study and Review
Phase II: Driver Training Course and Driving Rodeos
56
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Those who do not pass the training course and rodeo will be required to complete remedial training and reexamined within how long?
3 months
57
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. According to National Highway Traffic Safety Administration studies, safety belts are __ to __ percent effective in preventing fatalities and injuries.
50 to 65
58
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What governs the legal operation of emergency vehicles in the state?
California vehicle code
59
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Do any exemptions apply during non-emergency operations?
No, only under emergency response
60
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. All probationary members must possess a valid Class ___ license upon appointment. After completion of all applicable steps, a Class __ will be issued.
3, 2
61
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What are our exemptions when operating heavy apparatus? Only those stated in Vehicle Code Sections, _______ and ________
21055, 21056
62
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What is an F-51?
Vehicular Accident Procedure. Outline form of reports and forms used in each situation
63
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Pressure developed by the compression stroke is much greater in diesel engines, in which pressures as high as ____ psi are common.
500
64
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. With Diesel engines, for each pound of pressure exerted on the air, there will be a temperature increase of about ___ F.
20
AOTM states 2F
65
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. The difference in diesel engines and gasoline, is that diesels control the quantity of fuel, whereas the gasoline engines regulate the quantity of what?
air
66
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. It is very important that the clutch is not allowed to slip for more than about ___ seconds.
1-1/2
67
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What are the basic elements of a torque converter?
The pump(driving member), the turbine(Driven or output member), and the stator (reaction member)
68
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. How many functions does the torque converter serve?
two
- acts as a fluid coupling to connect engine power to transmission
- multiplies the torque
69
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. With the engine operating at full throttle, transmission in gear, and the vehicle standing still, the converter is capable of multiplying engine torque by approximately ____ to 1.
2.2
70
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Before towing or pushing beyond a few blocks, what must be done to the driveline?
disconnected
71
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What is a flexible coupling between two shafts that permits one shaft to drive another at an angle to it. This unit is necessary to provide flexibility in the power train as the vehicle travels over uneven surfaces
A universal joint
72
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. A slip joint provides the necessary telescopic action in the drive line. The male spline is an integral part of the propeller shaft and the _______ portion is fixed to the universal joint.
female
73
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Propeller shaft. Drive shaft/drive line. A solid shaft is stronger than a hollow shaft of the same diameter, but a hallow shaft is ________ than a solid shaft of the same weight.
stronger
74
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Final Drive. Its function is to change the direction of the power that is transmitted by the propeller shaft through ___ degrees to the driving axles.
90
75
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. A common final drive ratio for LAFD apparatus is ____ to 1.
4.11 to 1
(Approx 4 revolutions of the propeller shaft to 1 revolution of the rear wheels)
76
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What is a live axle?
one that supports part of the weight of the vehicle and also drives the wheels connected to it.
77
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What is a dead axle?
one that carries part of the weight of the vehicle but does not drive the wheels
78
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Semi-floating drive axles vs full floating drive axles?
- semi floating has wheels attached directly to end of the axles (stresses applied directly to axle)
- full floating has wheels attached to a hub, hub rides on axle housing though wheel bearings (stresses applied directly to axle housing, designed to carry heavy loads)
79
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. When should apparatus pre-checks on all apparatus be accomplished?
each morning at relief, or any other time during the day when a change of relief is required and after each incident when the apparatus or its equipment is used.
80
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. The _______________ is ultimately responsible for the condition of apparatus under his command, but each member shares equally in the responsibility of maintaining Department apparatus.
Station Commander
81
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Turn battery switch to correct position Number 1 or "A" battery on ___ numbered days of the month and Number 2 or "B" battery for ____ numbered days.
odd, even
82
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Pre-heater cords on diesel apparatus should be maintaining engine coolant temperature above ___ degrees F.
120
83
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Airhorn pump, if unit is equipped with oil cups, put __ drops of engine oil in each cup
2
84
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. When is need for determining brake adjustment?
Every two months (F377)
85
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Slack adjuster lever should never go beyond ___
90
86
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. All belts shall be check for wear and tension, if loose enough to allow ____ or more deflection, measured at point midway between pulleys, call shops for adjustment.
1/2"
87
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Checking steering gear and connections. Have assistant sit in driver's seat and take hold of wheel and, with short, fast motions, approximately __ to __ on wheel, move wheel back and forth.
6" to 8"
88
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. A reading on the tire tread gauge where the black line under the number 4 is visible above the top of the plastic collar would indicate a tread depth of ___ or less and should be reported on F377 as needing replacement.
1/8"
89
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. How do you check wheel bearings?
chock wheels to prevent rolling, release brakes. raise one wheel. position valve stem midway from top and bottom of wheel. take 4' crowbar and place 2' length 1-1/2 salvaged hose on chisel end to prevent damage. place in hole in wheel closest to floor and slight pressure toward top of wheel. have assistant look at wheel and spindle. chock opposite wheels being raised.
90
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. All companies concerned should keep on hand ___ spare filter-to-compressor gaskets.
2
91
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What is the difference between a heavy and light apparatus?
Heavy is 465 cubic inches or over
Light is under 465 cubic inches
92
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Heavy apparatus shall be lubricated and receive an oil change at ______ miles or ___ month, whichever first. Oil filter shall be changed every ___ months
4, 12
93
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Reserve Heavy apparatus, lubricate and change oil at 2,000 miles or ___ months, whichever first. Change oil filter every ___ months.
6, 12
94
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Appointments should be made approximately ___ miles before the actual milage is recorded on the odometer.
500
95
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What is one of the worst consequences of heat due to excessive braking?
"brake fade"
96
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Brake lag. Depending on the type of vehicle, it will take between __ to __ second for the air to reach the brakes after you press the foot pedal
1/4 to 1
97
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. The use of _____ mirrors greatly reduces the blind area on most apparatus.
convex
98
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What is the average weight of a truck?
24 tons
99
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What is the average height of a truck ?
10' 6"
100
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What is the average width of newer trucks and triples?
9' 9"
101
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What is the average length of a truck?
52 feet
102
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Studies show that in 80 to 90 percent of all vehicle accidents, _______ disturbance is a contributing cause.
emotional
103
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Has psychological make-up of a child. Type of driver who considers nothing but their own interests and immediate desires. May be recognized by such characteristics as:
Demanding right-of-way
Parking vehicle illegally
Cutting in to fast after passing a car
Making turns from an improper lane
Egotist
104
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Like the egotist, the show-off discloses that they have never quite grown up. The show-off is competitive and boastful, often suffering from a sense of inferiority which is covered up by trying to appear superior.
The show-off is a poor risk driver because of driving practices like the following:
Driving too fast for conditions
Driving more recklessly the larger their audience
Boasts of vehicle's speed, power and own skill
Boasting of the time it takes to get to a location
Passing red lights and stop signs with an air of bravado
Passing cars at risky places and talking about their luck
Show-off
105
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. The uncontrolled or over-emotional driver is another sign of immaturity. Most adults learn to control their emotions and remain calm under stress. Some persons never develop the maturity to overcome this psychological weakness to become a good driver. They take the slightest criticism as a personal offense. Unimportant trifles seem big to them. Persons with stunted emotional development show driving characteristics as follows:
- Lack presence of mind in emergencies - Get overly nervous in unusual situations - Lose their temper and,, consequently, their judgment - Show impatience in traffic jams - Express anger by driving recklessly - Easily distracted from the main business of driving - Talks loud, or uses profanity
Over-Emotional
106
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What is The Smith System?
1. Aim high in steering
2. Get the big picture
3. Keep your eyes moving
4. Leave yourself an "out"
5. Make sure they see you
107
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. When directed to "discontinue" an emergency response, the transition shall be made how?
safe and inconspicuous manner
108
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Total stopping distance is determined by what three factors?
vehicle breaking, perception time, and reaction time
109
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Members driving heavy apparatus should be concerned about emergency stops of apparatus traveling over ___ mph.
30
110
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What two factors are considered to determine adequate spacing between you and the vehicle in front of you?
reaction time and stopping time
111
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What is a general rule used to calculate vehicle spacing for heavy and light apparatus?
heavy- three vehicle lengths for every 10mph
light - two vehicle lengths for every 10mph
112
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What is a system for determining safe following distance?
three second rule
113
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What is the three second rule?
Allow the rear bumper of the vehicle in front to pass a stationary object and then count off three seconds. If the front of your vehicle passes the object before three seconds, you are driving too close.
114
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What three factors affect the ability of a driver to pass safely?
1. Visibility
2. Road information
3. Vehicle Characteristics
115
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. While only ___% of all accidents happen at night, ___% of fatal accidents occur at night.
30, 47
116
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Lights can be used on the high beam position to facilitate night vision, but they must be diminished at least ___ feet ahead of approaching vehicle and ___ feet behind a vehicle you are following.
500, 300
117
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Twilight driving. Almost _____ of all motor vehicle accidents occur between hours of 4pm and 8pm.
1/3
118
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. It takes how much longer to stop on a wet road as it does on a dry one?
twice
119
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. After rain begins, extremely slick conditions last for approximately how long?
one-half to three-quarters of an hour
30min to 45min
119
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. After rain begins, extremely slick conditions last for approximately how long?
one-half to three-quarters of an hour
30min to 45min
120
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. When wet brakes are applied, the breaks will pull violently to the ___ side, possibly setting up a skid.
dry
121
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Nationwide, with rescue ambulances alone, backing accidents account for ___ percent of all single-vehicle collisions.
85%
122
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Hazard zone is defined as the area ___ feet behind the apparatus and ___ feet to each side of the apparatus
15, 3
123
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Each station shall establish a specific rehousing procedure that is uniform on ll shifts and approved by the the ________________.
Battalion Commanders
124
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What three things can a driver do to avoid a collision?
Braking, Acceleration, Steering out of the way
125
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. What is the largest single factor in total stopping distance?
speed
126
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Is the air horn a legal emergency vehicle audible device?
no
127
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. A wet concrete roadway will require approximately ___ to ___% more stopping distance than dry concrete roads.
35 to 40
128
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. An aerial ladder truck is roughly ____ the length of a triple apparatus.
twice
129
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. URM pre-33 can collapse without warning and fall a horizontal distance how far?
equal to or greater than the vertical height of the original structure
130
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. With fire showing on high rise, park rigs well back and away from "fire" side of building if possible approx how far?
200'
131
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. At less than ___ mph your front tires begin to lose contact with the pavement.
30
132
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. At around ___ mph they're lifted up on a tough film of water and only the outer ribs are touching
50
133
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. At about ___ mph your front tires lose all contact
55
134
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Hydroplaning may begin when you can hear your wheels splashing in ____ inch of water or more.
1/5
135
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Driver error is still the major cause of traffic accidents and accounts for approximately ___% of al traffic accidents
72%
136
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. A "motorized bicycle" or moped is any two wheeled or three wheeled device with an automatic transmission and a motor which produces less than two gross brake hp and does not propel the device in excess of ___ mph on level ground
30
137
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. In case of service brake air system failure, the springs apply brakes automatically when brake air pressure is reduced to approximately ___ psi or less
60
138
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. Controlled test have demonstrated that fuel conservation of at least ___% is possible through proper vehicle operation, use, maintenance, and trip planning.
10
139
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. The average vehicle on the road today gets its best fuel economy at approximately ___ mph
45
140
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. For every two pounds under recommended pressure, you lose about ___ percent in fuel economy
1
141
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. When your two hands are on the steering wheel, have them at the __ and __ o'clock positions (or at least the 10 and 2)
9 and 3
142
Book 8
Driver's Training Manual. To aim high, look at least __ seconds ahead.
5
143
Book 3
Station commanders shall assemble command for roll call at _____ hrs and at times deemed necessary.
0800
144
Book 3
Fire department procedure for reporting discrimination or sexual harassment complaint is to pursue the complaint through any of the following department internal procedures?
- Immediate supervisor
- F225 to Fire Chief and fire commission
- Any chief officer
145
Book 3
When relieved from duty under charges, the member shall promptly surrender all department property to his or her commanding officer, who will do what with it pending disposition?
Retain it
146
Book 101
Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.
NFPA 1500
147
Book 101
Emergency Services Incident Management Systems
NFPA 1561
148
Book 101
Who is responsible for overall personnel accountability for the incident?
The IC
149
Book 101
Command channel is a radio channel, designated by the incident commander, that is provided for communications between the IC and the ________________________ components (i.e. divisions or groups) during emergency incidents.
tactical level management
150
Book 101
Emergency channel 6 - (monitored by MFC) This radio channel is used by Department personnel as an "________________" for notifying or reporting firefighter emergency situations.
Emergency Trigger
151
Book 101
A term used to clear designated radio channels during incident to make way for important radio traffic for a firefighter emergency situation, safety concerns for members on scene, or an immediate change in tactical operations.
"Emergency Traffic"
152
Book 101
"Emergency Traffic" Radio Tone is a distinctive high/low tone initiated by who on the incident tactical channel and the command channel?
MFC
153
Book 101
The 800 MHz radio is a component of the Fire Command and ____________ system. It is a computer controlled radio system.
Control
154
Book 101
Whenever a hand-held radio is turned in for repairs or reassigned to another position, the ______________ shall be immediately notified.
MFC floor Captain
155
Book 101
If the EMERGENCY TRIGGER BUTTON is depressed on a hand-held radio, the identifier is transmitted which identifies the radio by a _____-digit number and indicates that this radio is in the emergency mode
four
156
Book 101
Upon Trigger Activation, An alarm tone will sound on the dispatch consoles at MFC and the monitors at those consoles will indicate the radio identifier with a _________________ around the identifier.
red flashing rectangle
157
Book 101
Who resets the alarm at MFC after a Trigger Activation?
MFC Floor Captain
158
Book 101
What happens when emergency triggers from multiple radios are pressed?
Activated emergency triggers from multiple radios will delete previous radio identification numbers
159
Book 101
What is the most common hand-held radio currently in use?
MX 800 Hand Held Radio
Tigger located top of radio near base of antenna
160
Book 101
These radios are smaller than the MX 800 radios and are Black and Yellow in color. Currently purchased as replacement for MX 800.
MX-3000
Trigger located on top of radio in front of the antenna
161
Book 101
Astro Hand-Held Radios (800MHz). These radios are engraved with letters LAFD in what color? Where is trigger located?
Red
- On top of radio opposite side away from the antenna
162
Book 101
Astro Hand-Held Radios (500MHz) Used for comms with other agencies. They are engraved with letter LAFD in what color? Does the tigger work on this?
Blue
- NO, trigger is disabled on this radio
163
Book 101
When Trigger is activated, The radio will beep ___ times and the display on the radio will read “EMERGENCY”.
four
164
Book 101
After trigger activation, when the radio signal is received at MFC the computer will automatically acknowledge it and the display will then read what?.
“ACK RCV”
165
Book 101
Members may encounter radio problems when operating in the following locations?
- Below ground level (basement, tunnels)
- Within or adjacent to shielded rooms (x-ray rooms, sound stages, etc)
- In enclosed elevator cars
- In steep or narrow canyons
- Outside of City limits
166
Book 101
All company personnel shall carry their assigned radio in the "________" mode in their turnout coat or brush jacket pouch
repeat
167
Book 101
How often and when is the Emergency traffic radio tone tested?
Emergency traffic radio tone is transmitted for testing purposes on each Division Tactical Channel every Sunday at 0800 hours.
168
Book 101
The Incident Commander shall have ______ transmit the Emergency Traffic radio tone and announce “EMERGENCY TRAFFIC” with the type of emergency on the appropriate radio channels.
MFC
169
Book 101
What details shall be given during "emergency traffic"?
Who, what, where, why, how many
170
Book 101
When a field chief officer becomes the IC, the following radio channels shall be monitored for possible communication with affected members.
1) dispatch channel
2) Incident Command channel
3) Incident Tac channel
4) Rescue Tac channel (if assigned)
5) Emergency Channel 6
171
Book 101
Although the “Two In/Two Out” rule requires a standby team of at least ____ members to be organized to back up the initial entry team before they enter into an IDLH atmosphere, during the initial stages of an incident a standby Rapid Intervention Company does ____ have to be designated.
two, NOT
172
Book 101
In the early stages of an incident, who may be reassigned to perform the duties of a Rapid Intervention Company?
A company not working in an IDLH and not assigned to a critical task
173
Book 101
When shall the IC designate a RIC company to stand by?
As incidents expand beyond the first alarm assignment
174
Book 101
The IC should consider who as a minimum for assignment as a Rapid Intervention Company?
An engine company or a squad company
175
Book 101
The IC should not use companies from the first alarm assignment as RIC unless what?
significant hazard to firefighters exists
176
Book 101
There may be a need for more than one Rapid Intervention Company based on what?
size and complexity of incident
177
Book 101
The IC should consider assigning a Task Force for RIC for large or potentially complex rescue situations. This provides for what?
Unity of Command in rescue operations
178
Book 101
RIC companies should normally be located where to ensure rapid dissemination of information from the IC and rapid deployment?
in proximity to the command post
179
Book 101
The rapid intervention mission can be separated into what two categories?
- Standby Mode
- Deployment Mode
180
Book 101
What should companies in Standby Mode do to prepare for rapid intervention?
- gather equipment
- perform reconnaissance
- liaison with the Command Post
181
Book 101
In standby mode, resources assigned as RIC shall monitor the following channels
1) Incident Command Channel
2) Incident Tactical Channel
3) Rescue Tactical Channel (if assigned)
4) Emergency Channel 6
182
Book 101
When assigned RIC and in the "deployment mode" what radio channels should be monitored?
1) Rescue Tactical Channel
2) Emergency Channel 6 and/or Inc Tac
Incident tac if this is the only means of communicating by affected member
183
Book 101
In high-rise fire incidents the RIC companies shall be located where?
staging
184
Book 101
When shall the IC consider assigning a Rescue Group Supervisor?
As rescue scenarios become more complex or when 2 or more RIC companies are assigned
185
Book 101
Who is responsible for the overall firefighter rescue operation?
Rescue Group Supervisor
186
Book 101
Each ___________________ has been issued a thermal imaging camera
Battalion Commander
187
Book 101
If a Rapid Intervention company/companies are deployed to affect a rescue of a firefighter, the IC shall do what?
assign additional RIC as a backup for the RIC that was deployed
188
Book 101
What tactical worksheet provides a space for tracking and identification of Rapid Intervention Companies?
F-666
189
Book 101
What is the key to success of a firefighter rescue?
effective communication and a timely search and rescue operation
190
Book 101
When Branches, Divisions or Groups are formed and an Emergency Trigger has been activated, the IC shall attempt to confirm the status of member how?
Go through branch director, division or group supervisors via incident command channel
191
Book 101
How do you identify the member affected?
by position and company ID
192
Book 101
If affected member attempts to communicate emergency on channel 6 with no response, reset and attempt to contact IC on TAC channel, if no acknowledgement member should contact who?
MFC on dispatch channel
193
Book 101
Who should attempt to contact affected member during deployment mode?
RIC
194
Book 101
If the affected member is unable to initiate their emergency trigger, the IC may have to consider what?
moving all other companies, with exception of rescue companies to another TAC channel
195
Book 101
What information will be contained on the members magnetic strip assigned to each apparatus that day?
- Members full civil service name
- The members rank
196
Book 101
Where are magnetic strips carried on heavy apparatus, rescue ambulances, and Division and Battalion SUV's?
- in a visible location on the captains side of the cab
- passenger side in RA's and other staffed apparatus
- in a visible location on the communication console, dashboard, or visor.
197
Book 101
Who shall ensure that members magnetic strips are changed when the staffing of that apparatus changes?
Company Commanders
198
Book 101
In addition to radio traffic concurrent with the Department "Operational Retreat Policy" what audible signal can be used to indicate evacuation?
The "Evacuation Signal" will consist of repeated short blasts of the air horn for a period no longer than 10 seconds, followed by 10 seconds of silence. Repeated 3x for a total of 50 seconds.
199
Book 101
Who will sound the evacuation signal using air horns for operational retreat?
The IC shall designate the specific apparatus. (should not be in close proximity to Command Post)
200
Book 101
After an "Emergency Traffic" evacuation of a building, what shall be conducted to assure all companies and members are accounted for at the incident?
Personnel Accountability Report (PAR)
201
Book 101
When will MFC start an incident clock?
When the first dispatched unit arrives on scene of a structure fire, or other incidents, which appear to be time sensitive or dangerous.
202
Book 101
At each ___ minute interval, MFC will advise the IC of the elapsed time on the incident clock until the IC request cancellation.
15
203
Book 101
MFC will continue to advise the IC of the elapsed time at each 15 min interval until when?
cancelled by IC or incident declared under control (knockdown)
204
Book 101
What frequency is most commonly used for Automatic/Mutual Aid fire ground communication?
OES White 2 & 3
205
Book 101
Who developed L.C.E.S?
A member of the US Forest Service after being involved in several fatal wildland fires
206
Book 101
What does L.C.E.S. stand for?
- Lookout
- Communication
- Escape Route
- Safety Zone
207
Book 101
The Department recognized that there are __ additional direct causes of firefighter injury or death in the wildland and added these to LCES. What are they?
3
- Location
- Conditions
- Safety Equipment
208
Book 101
The member operating the nozzle might be described as to having what type of vision?
tunnel vision
209
Book 101
The hydrant member backing up the nozzle member will have what type of vision?
somewhat wider field of vision than nozzle
210
Book 101
The company officer operating a hoseline with their crew may be described as having what kind of vision?
surrounding vision
211
Book 101
The engineer operating immediately outside the structure has what type of vision?
gets the big picture
212
Book 101
In many cases it will be the changes that _____________ that should drive the risk analysis of crews.
do not occur
213
Book 101
The location that you select to initiate operations as a first arriving company on scene, will become a ____________ for operations by the balance of the assignment.
focal point
214
Book 101
Communication among members operating at incidents is best when accomplished how?
face to face
215
Book 101
An additional method of communicating to a company operating inside, that the fire conditions are changing is what?
pulling on the hoseline
216
Book 101
A safety zone or ___________________ is one that does not require any protection for survival.
safe refuge area
217
Book 101
The exception to not take safe refuge above a fire would involve high-rise, where depending on intensity of fire, a minimum of _____ floors above the fire maybe designated a safety zone
two
218
Book 101
How many watch outs are there for brush and for interior structure firefighting?
- 18 for brush
- 12 for structure (TB106 lists 14)
219
Book 101
What was the fire that identified interior structure firefighting watch outs as a contributing factor in the Significant Incident Report?
LAFD Western Fire
220
Book 101
What are the 12 interior structure "watch outs"?
1) You have a working fire and your entry will be delayed.
2) Multiple companies have been assigned to enter through one entry
3) Roof Division is being driven off as you prepare to go inside
4) Air is being drawn in rapidly in zero visibility and the heat is banking down
5) You can hear the fire burning above you but cant see it.
6) You realize you are working underneath a mezzanine.
7) You feel uncomfortable.
8) Your SCBA alarm bell sounds and you still haven't found the fire.
9) You flow water for several minutes and make no progress.
10) You hear the sound of roof ventilation being conducted behind you.
11) You are unable to communicate with the IC, or your division or group supervisor.
12) You are working with unfamiliar members.
221
Book 101
What is the Golden Time?
That period of time that a down, missing or trapped member will have the greatest chance of survival if he or she is in need of rescue
222
Book 101
All members assigned rapid intervention responsibilities must have an operational _____ and be thoroughly familiar with its operation.
radio
223
Book 101
If the need for monitoring additional channels is necessary, additional hand-held radios may be obtained from?.
the command vehicles
224
Book 101
With the assignment of a Chief Officer to a Rescue Group, location of deployed resources and monitoring radio communications when in the Standby Mode will be most effective if accomplished from the command vehicle, except at High Rise incidents where it is performed at _________.
staging.
225
Book 101
IC and RIC considerations for structure size up can be broken down into what three categories?
- Enroute
- On scene (reconnaissance)
- Continuous size-up (throughout incident)
226
Book 101
Who released a set of compliance instructions regarding the number of firefighters required to be present on the fire ground prior to commencing an initial attack on a structure fire?
The Federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
227
Book 101
There must be at least ___ individuals on-scene at the incident to initiate interior firefighting operations
4
228
Book 101
What communication between the two-member team making entry is not allowed?
radio communication, therefore must be in close proximity
229
Book 101
How many of the two backup personnel outside the IDLH may be engaged in other duties?
only one
230
Book 101
Who shall be permitted to serve as a standby member when other activities to which they are engaged inhibit their ability to assist in performing a rescue, or are of such importance that they cannot be abandoned without placing other firefighters in danger
No one
231
Book 101
What is the exception to operate with less than four members on-scene?
If initial attack personnel find an imminent life-threatening situation where immediate action could prevent the loss of life or serious injury, such action shall be permitted with less than four personnel when conducted with a risk management consideration.
232
Book 101
Any such actions taken with less than four members on scene shall be thoroughly investigated and a written report (F-225) shall be submitted to ____________________, who will advise the Fire Chief
the Commander, Bureau of Emergency Services
233
Book 101
When more than one company is assigned to rapid intervention functions, assign who as the rescue group supervisor?
an officer, preferably a TFC or BC
234
Book 101
Department procedure mandates the IC to designate a single resource, specifically for rapid intervention, on a __________ for any additional resources beyond the first alarm assignment. Department Incident Commanders shall, at a minimum, designate at least one Rapid Intervention Company upon the _________ of additional resources above the original structure assignment.
request, arrival
235
Book 101
Which RIC member is the Infrared Camera Operator?
Firefighter
236
Book 101
All members assigned as RIC shall have what as the minimum?
Full protective clothing donned, SCBA with drop bag, 800 MHz radio, flashlight, and RIC kit
237
Book 101
What does RIC kit consist of?
Nylon bag with sling and carrying handles, 60 min air cylinder, first stage reducer with 10' intermediate pressure hose, second stage regulator, facepiece, pelican flashlight with integrated holder, and 150' drop bag line.
238
Book 101
For complex rapid intervention missions requiring specialized resources, the incident commander should consider requesting who?
USAR Task Forces or staff USAR Company. Heavy Rescue and Emergency Lighting
239
Book 101
It is the responsibility of all on scene __________ to turn all apparatus pick-up lights and side mounted quartz lights on aerial apparatus towards the involved structure, to illuminate the potential openings of the building.
Engineers
240
Book 101
Any search and rescue operation should be preceded with a basic knowledge of what factors?
- Structure (construction and layout)
- Fire (location and extension)
- Victims (number and location)
- Resources (personnel and equipment)
- SOPs (methods and training)
241
Book 101
RIC members should consider using signal line for communicating. What are they?
1 O - OK (give frequently)
2 A - Advance
3 T - Take up
4 H - Help Emergency, send it back up teams
242
Book 101
Tether between personnel: There are how many basic methods used to tether between personnel, utilizing the 12' nylon strap.
four
243
Book 101
When performing nozzle fan, the RIC leader utilizes nozzle fan drop bag that contains 150' of cord with overhand knots tied at every ___ feet.
6
244
Book 101
The officer in charge of RIC should obtain or request what after communicating with IC at command post to check in?
- Infrared Camera
- Additional RIC kits (1 kit assigned to each TF)
- A Paramedic RA if not already assigned
- A Rescue TAC Channel
245
Book 101
What is a consideration when changing over to a one hour SCBA bottle if time permits?
half company at a time so there is always available personnel should immediate rescue be needed during change over process
246
Book 101
If conditions and visibility allow, should you stand and walk as far as it is safe to do so?
yes
247
Book 101
How many watts do apparatus radios transmit at?
35 watt
248
Book 101
RIC at a high-rise should involve what resources at a minimum?
Light force, Engine, or squad and RA
249
Book 101
Companies assigned RIC at a high-rise initially report to who?
IC/Operations, as incident escalates, RIC should expand to a Task Force for standby in staging
250
Book 101
If you utilize the 1" hose line method for RIC rescue, on a high rise, have the necessary fittings and use what?
1" brush rolls
251
Book 101
Assigned RIC at high rise. After checking in with IC/Operations, prior to making ascent, who do you check in with?
Lobby
252
Book 101
RIC at a Metro rail incident should involve a company at each ____________________
train station
253
Book 101
Metro rail comms are limited to what channels on repeat mode?
2, 4, 6, 7, 12, 15, 16, 17
254
Book 101
RIC in Metro rail, where do you deploy?
Platform Level, check in with "station division" for acquisition of a "rescue train". Utilize uninvolved tunnels, cross passages every 750'
255
Book 11
No size up is required for single company response except when?
when help is needed
256
Book 11
When requesting assistance from outside agencies, allow approximately how long prior to requesting ETA?
30 min
257
Book 11
When is a code 20 notification automatic?
greater alarm or larger incident
258
Book 11
What is a Code 20?
Occurrence has potential value to the news
259
Book 11
What does "available" mean?
available for response within 60 seconds
260
Book 11
Over land, an aircraft has, or is suspected to have an operational issue that affects normal flight operations to the extent there is danger of an accident.
Alert 2
261
Book 11
Over water, an aircraft has, or is suspected to have an operational issue that affects normal flight operations to the extent there is danger of an accident.
Blue 2
262
Book 11
An aircraft accident has occurred on, or in the vicinity of the airport.
Alert 3
263
Book 11
An aircraft accident has occurred in the water.
Blue 3
264
Book 11
Department has adopted the standard international Phonetic Alphabet word list to be used when transmitting alphabetical letters. What are they?
Alpha
Bravo
Charles
Delta
Echo
Foxtrot
Golf
Hotel
India
Juliett
Kilo
Lima
Mike
Nora
Oscar
Papa
Quebec
Romeo
Sierra
Tango
Uniform
Victor
Whiskey
X-ray
Yankee
Zulu
265
Book 11
How far do you keep mic from mouth when transmitting?
about one inch
266
Book 11
The LAFD has two different wireless communications systems. What are they?
"voice" radio system and "data" radio system
267
Book 11
LAFD voice system operates in the ____MHz range, and the data system operates in the ____ MHz range
800, 500
268
Book 11
How many remote transmit/receive sites (repeaters) serve the LAFD voice radio system?
10 (9 with 1 back up)
269
Book 11
MFC, METRO or the backup signal office is located where?
Fire Station 108 (Coldwater)
270
Book 11
Data radio network (MDT) coverage is provided through how many fixed sites?
6
271
Book 11
LAFD radio transmitters amplify signals to a maximum of _______ watts.
155
272
Book 11
The 800 MHz mobile units transmit at ___ watts
35
273
Book 11
LAFD portable radios transmit _______ watts of power and have a transmitting range of up to about ____ miles in "simplex" or direct mode
2 to 4, 2-3
274
Book 11
What colors correspond for each radio band?
800, UHF, VHF
800 - Red
UHF - Blue
VHF - White
275
Book 11
There are mutual aid channels in the 800 MHz band that are identified as state wide fire and law enforcement mutual aid channels which the LAFD does support, these channels include?
- Firemars (Fire Mutual Aid Radio System)
- Clemars (California Law Enforcement Mutual Aid Radio System)
276
Book 11
What are the three basic modes of operations for a radio system?
Simplex, Duplex, and Simulcast
277
Book 11
What is the difference in Duplex and Simulcast systems?
Simulcast systems sends the "down" leg at all transmit sites
278
Book 11
To overcome radio system in-building coverage difficulties, _______ often are used to rebroadcast the system in buildings.
BDAs - Bidirectional Amplifiers
279
Book 11
The department has two interoperability vehicles. Radio Interoperability vehicle 100 “_______” and Radio Interoperability vehicle 200 “________”
RI-100, RI-200
280
Book 11
IMPRES chargers have additional LED indication capability to supply you with even more information during a charge cycle. The alternating red/green LED indicates batteries have fallen below a certain capacity threshold (typically less than ___% of rated minimum capacity)
60
281
Book 11
Accessory devices that pass inspection will be clearly marked with a "_______" stripe to identify that is has passed inspection
silver
282
Book 11
Trigger activation, In the event that no acknowledgement is received, the LAFD portable radio (700/800 MHz) will continue to attempt to send the emergency signal (long tone every ____ seconds) for 60 seconds. If no acknowledgement is received by the radio from the network within _____ seconds, the radio has failed to access a repeater and communication is not possible.
two, 60
283
Book 11
If communication acknowledgement is not acknowledged as indicated by the ___-short tones, the user MUST EXIT EMERGENCY TRIGGER MODE to communicate the emergency traffic
4
284
Book 11
When the radio is __________ and reset by turning the power off and back on, it WILL NOT reset back to the previously selected channel, it will stay on channel 6.
unlocked
285
Book 11
ALERT 6 is moved to the ____th position on the channel select rotary knob in all zones.
16
286
Book 20
Identification of a minimum of ___ percent of the major and visible businesses in the area
20
287
Book 20
The Community Liaison Team is 3 tiered effort. Involving who?
1) Company involvement
2) Battalion level coordination and control
3) Division level guidance and support
288
Book 20
Each division will have a designated Liaison Officer (one per division), held by rank of?
Battalion Chief
289
Book 20
Battalion Liaison Officers (one per platoon) will be held by rank of?
Captain
290
Book 20
As part of our decentralization, each request should be handled how?
at the lowest level possible
291
Book 20
Which request are only ones that shall be forwarded in writing to department headquarters?
ones requiring the Fire Chief's approval
292
Book 20
Fire Chief approval is required for what 3 things?
1- outside request for ride alongs
2 - Commercial use of fire stations or apparatus use
3 - Request for the CE to appear in person
293
Book 20
Bureau Commander (Emergency Services) or Deputy Department Commander (DDC) approval is required for what 2 things?
1 - Request for companies to be placed out of service CAV when MFC is unable to approve
2 - RA's CAV at events. (normally remain available during events)
294
Book 20
When the Fire Chief is requested but unable to attend who should attend in his place?
Division Commander
295
Book 20
BC acknowledging receipt of all requests that are forwarded to the Battalion Office within ____ hours or as soon as practical, of receipt of request, regardless of shift responsibility.Battalion Commanders shall make contact with the requesting party, even though Company Officers may actually handle the requests.
24
296
Book 20
All verbal requests received by Fire Stations for community events should be logged. Inform the Battalion Commander and
handle at the _________ level if appropriate
Battalion
297
Book 20
If the event appears to be politically oriented or elected officials and the media are expected to attend, the _________ Commander shall be notified.
Division
298
Book 20
If unable to fulfill request due to conflict during scheduling who should arrange an alternate plan or date if possible?
Battalion
299
Book 20
(Fire/Emergency professional) Ride-Along requests shall be made in writing, a minimum of ____ days prior to the date of the desired visit. In the event circumstances do not permit the time frame to be met, a verbal request may be considered by the fire Chief through the Community Liaison Office.
14
300
Book 20
(Fire/Emergency professional) The Ride-Along will be a one time only, ____-day maximum stay. Extenuating circumstances requiring longer stays may be considered by the Fire Chief.
two
301
Book 20
(Fire/Emergency professional) LAFD Indemnity Agreement (F_______) must be filled out by station commander or company officer
1109
302
Book 20
Non-fire service professional ride alongs shall be for observation purposes only and not to exceed how long?
8 hours
303
Book 20
Non-fire service professional. Requesting party must show the need for a ride along, request will be approved how?
on individual basis
304
Book 20
All requests for rides on Department apparatus shall be approved by the affected Battalion Commander. Unusual requests received by field personnel and/or those in question shall be forwarded to the _________________________ for approval.
Bureau of Emergency Services
305
Book 20
Ride-On shall be for how long?
one time only and of short duration
306
Book 20
When does formal visitation commence for guests at the fire station?
30 min prior to dinner
307
Book 20
When setting up an event it is divided into 4 areas which are?
- purpose
- preparation
- event
- post event
308
Book 20
The LAFD's community goal is what?
Community oriented fire service
309
Book 20
What will determine the primary concerns on which the members in a fire station will focus?
The physical and Social make up of a specific location or neighborhood
310
Book 20
Are explorers from other agencies allowed to ride-a-long?
never
311
Book 20
Prior to ride-a-long who shall fill out the F1109?
Station or Company Commander
312
Book 20
When a station commander is notified of a community event, they should first do what?
verify first in district
313
Book 20
If the fire station can handle the event, notify BC and coordinate event with assistance of the battalion liaison officer. If the fire station requires additional assistance, confer with who?
battalion liaison officer
314
Book 30
In order to effectively manage personnel and resources and to provide for the safety and welfare of personnel, the Department will always operate within the ______________________ at the incident scene
Incident Command System (ICS)
315
Book 30
Who is responsible for the overall management of the incident?
The IC
316
Book 30
Prior an officer being assigned, The IC shall also be directly responsible for the completion of incidents tactical priorities. Once assigned, who will manage all activities and address tactical priorities?
Operations
317
Book 30
What are tactical priorities, listed in order of priority?
1. Rescue
2. Hazard Control
3. Loss limiting
4. Victim/Occupant Stabilization (on-going throughout incident)
5. Safety (on-going throughout incident)
318
Book 30
What are those standard activities that are performed by the IC to achieve the tactical priorities and incident objectives?
Standards of Command
319
Book 30
What are standards of Command?
- assumption of command
- situational awareness
- communications
- incident objectives, strategy and incident action plan
- resource deployment
- incident organization
- evaluate and revise
- transition of command
320
Book 30
As the Incident Command is transferred, so is the responsibility for what?
Standard of Command
321
Book 30
The first ___ Standards of Command must be addressed immediately, anytime there is an assumption of incident command.
6
322
Book 30
When is Incident Command terminology required to be used?
anytime a "B" assignment is held to work at an incident
323
Book 30
How does the first arriving fire department resource/member initiate the Incident Command process?
providing the initial size-up
324
Book 30
Why is incident command transferred?
to improve the quality of the incident command organization
325
Book 30
When the incident command is transferred it should trigger ________ in the incident command structure.
upgrades
326
Book 30
Assumption of Incident Command is discretionary for all ranks above what?
Battalion Chief
327
Book 30
Incident Command shall NOT be passed or transferred to who?
an officer who is NOT on the scene
328
Book 30
What is the preferred method to transfer incident command?
face-to-face
329
Book 30
The __________________ provides the most effective foundation for Incident Command transfer as it outlines the location and status of personnel and resources in a standard format that should be well-known to all members.
tactical worksheet
330
Book 30
The person being relieved will brief the officer assuming IC indicating at least what?
Conditions, Actions, Needs. (C.A.N.)
331
Book 30
The mere arrival of a higher ranking officer on scene does not mean that Incident Command has been automatically transferred to that officer. Incident Command is only transferred when the ________ of Incident Command process has been completed.
transfer
332
Book 30
A ranking officer may elect to have a subordinate continue the role of “___________”, in cases where an individual is effectively managing an incident, and satisfactory progress is being made to bring the incident under control.
Operations
333
Book 30
Who does the incident commander outrank?
everyone
334
Book 30
Any member can effect a change in incident management in extreme situations relating to ________ by notifying IC and initiating corrective action.
safety
335
Book 30
ICS is in a constant state of readiness. When there are no working incidents MFC operates as Department Command under the supervision of who?
Deputy Department Commander (DDC)
336
Book 30
Who is the highest ranking on duty member?
Deputy Department Commander (DDC)
337
Book 30
Who will normally be the highest ranking officer in the incident command post?
platoon duty assistant chief
338
Book 30
After being relieved as IC, officer will normally be transitioned to what position(s) as necessary?
Deputy IC, Operations, Planning section chief or other critical role as needed
339
Book 30
When a Division Command Team is working with a Battalion Command Team at an Incident Command Post there are ____ members responsible for implementing the Standards of Command.
4
340
Book 30
In order for the Incident Commander to manage the incident, there must first be able to direct, control, and ______ the position and function of all operating Companies.
track
341
Book 30
The basic configuration of Incident Command addresses what 3 operational levels?
- Strategic Level
- Tactical Level
- Task Level
342
Book 30
The _______ Level involves the overall incident Command and direction of the incident. Defines where and when resources will be assigned to the incident and how they are intended to impact the situation.
Strategic
343
Book 30
The ________ Level directs activities to execute or implement specific objectives. Officers include Division/Group supervisors.
Tactical
344
Book 30
The _______ Level refers to those activities normally accomplished by a company(ies) or specific personnel. Where hands-on work is actually done.
Task
345
Book 30
The accomplishment of the tactical priorities are the accumulated achievements of what level activities?
Task Level
346
Book 30
A company officer that is assigned to manage a Division or Group beyond how many companies should designate an acting Captain for their own company, or assign the members to another Officer?
one or two
347
Book 30
FIRESCOPE, NWCG, and MIMS provide for a span of control from 3-7 with _____ being optimal.
five
348
Book 30
In fast moving complex operations, a span of control of no more than ____ Division/Groups is preferred.
five
349
Book 30
In incidents with minimal activity, slow moving, less complex operations, the Incident Commander may effectively manage ___ or more Division/Groups.
6
350
Book 30
Where the number of Divisions/Groups exceed the span of control that the Incident Commander can effectively manage, the incident organization should be divided into what?
Branches
351
Book 30
The use of _______________ effectively reduces the overall amount of radio traffic.
Divisions/Groups
352
Book 30
In most situations ____ companies represents the maximum effective span of control for a Division/Group Supervisor.
5
353
Book 30
Rehab is part of what unit in the Logistics section?
Medical Unit
354
Book 30
In multi-story buildings, upon completion of rehab, companies shall normally report back to where for reassignment?
staging
355
Book 30
As the incident organization grows in complexity and/or scope and/or the span of control within existing Divisions/Groups is maximized, the Incident Commander may implement an additional intermediate level within the Incident Command organization know as?
Branching
356
Book 30
The Branch level of the organization is designed to provide ________________ between the Divisions/Groups and Incident Command.
COORDINATION
357
Book 30
Who supervises and manages a number of division/group supervisors, and report to the IC or operations?
Branch Directors
358
Book 30
What operational level does IC, Branch directors, Division/group Supervisors, and company officers work at?
IC - Strategic Level
Branch director - Coordination Level
Division/ Group Supervisors - Tactical Level
Company Officers - Task Level
359
Book 30
Normally, the Fire Departments involvement and needs at an incident can be managed implementing 4 of the 5 ICS sections. What are they?
- Incident Command
- Logistics Section
- Operations Section
- Planning Sections
360
Book 30
Implementing "Operations" radio designation indicates what?
a transition of command
361
Book 30
Who is responsible for developing and maintaining the incidents situational awareness? Situational awareness would include the gathering, assimilating, analyzing, and processing of incident relevant information needed for effective decision making.
The planning section
362
Book 30
The _________ section is the support mechanism for the organization. Provides services and support systems to all the organizational components involved in the incident.
Logistics
363
Book 30
INCIDENT BRIEFING - During the transfer-of-command process, an ICS _____ formatted briefing provides the incoming Incident Commander (IC)/Unified Command (UC) with basic information regarding the incident situation and the resources allotted to the incident.
201
364
Book 98
The movement between the North American Plate and the Pacific Plate pushes Los Angeles north, at a rate of about _____ inches per year.
1-3/4
365
Book 98
During a local emergency, who is the Director of the Emergency Operations Organization?
the Mayor
366
Book 98
What are the basic components of the ICS ?
- IC
- General Staff
- Command Staff
367
Book 98
The General Staff consists of who?
- Finance/Administation Section
- Logistics Section
- Operations Section
- Planning Section
368
Book 98
The Command Staff consists of who?
- Public Information officer
- Liaison officer
- Safety officer
369
Book 98
When will EOC be activated?
Level I, II, or III depending on magnitude of event. For earthquake event, it will be activated at full Level III (approx 70+ personnel)
370
Book 98
If MFC is able to assign and track incidents, they will assign an incident number. When MFC is unable to assign and track incidents and the Department becomes aware of incidents through still alarm reports or when found by field resources during their district surveys, Area Command Posts will track incidents utilizing pre-determined incident numbers. What are Incident numbers assigned to each geographic bureau?
OCB 5000-5999
OSB 6000-6999
OVB 7000-7999
OWB 8000-8999
371
Book 98
When will the department initiate Earthquake Emergency Mode?
any time a detectable earthquake tremor is felt
372
Book 98
After activation, the Department will remain in Earthquake mode until who determines otherwise?
Fire Chief or DDC
373
Book 98
Earthquake response is divided into how many operational modes, what are they?
3
- Normal operational Mode
- Expanded operational Mode
- Disaster Mode
374
Book 98
During NORMAL earthquake operational mode, the Department may immediately go to _____________ and remain there until the magnitude of situation is known.
DISCON II (Dispatch Condition II)
375
Book 98
When will the Department go into the expanded operational mode?
for earthquakes that are felt throughout the area, cause significant damage and injuries, and/or require the commitment of a significant number of resources
376
Book 98
In NORMAL operational mode, company officers will survey their districts for damage, as directed by Battalion Command, normally in what response mode?
non-emergency response mode
377
Book 98
In EXPANDED operational mode, company officers will commence their district surveys in what response mode?
Emergency response mode, except as directed by Battalion Command
378
Book 98
In Expanded & Disaster operational modes, company officers should not commit to any single incident without direct knowledge or a very strong likelihood of what?
significant injuries or that lives can be saved
379
Book 98
Expanded Mode, Battalion Commanders will be responsible for resource allocation within their command. Request for additional resources will be made to who?
Area Command
380
Book 98
When will Department go into Disaster mode?
A significant earthquake strikes that will potentially impact infrastructure and cause wide spread disaster
381
Book 98
In DISASTER mode, Company officers will report their status and ability to respond and commence district survey in what response mode?
Emergency mode, except as directed by Battalion Command
382
Book 98
During Disaster mode, resource tracking will be accomplished at what level?
Battalion/Zone Commander level
383
Book 98
All personnel are responsible for their own ____________.
preparedness
384
Book 98
Upon going into earthquake mode, Companies will immediately vacate quarters and respond to their pre-designated safe location. Companies will operate from their pre-designated safe location, pending direction from who?
Battalion Commander
385
Book 98
If the earthquake was felt at their location, or as directed by the Battalion/Zone Commander, companies will immediately commence a drive-through survey of their district. The drive-through shall be done in the _____________ mode, unless otherwise directed by the Battalion Commander
non-emergency
386
Book 98
Companies will follow a pre-designated route, paying specific attention to what buildings and evaluating impact on infrastructure?
high potential for life loss (schools, hospitals, large residential, office, commercial, or industrial and public assemblage, etc.)
387
Book 98
If unable to leave quarters, company officers shall notify their ______________ Commander and make every attempt to become available for response as soon as possible.
Battalion/Zone
388
Book 98
If quarters cannot be secured when vacated, what should be done?
arrangements made for a security watch (utilize police if possible)
389
Book 98
What are the three strategic priorities ?
- protecting life
- protecting property
- protecting the environment
390
Book 98
Upon entering earthquake emergency mode, MFC may be compromised. Therefore, all units shall begin documentation of all actions asap, using form ICS ______.
214
391
Book 98
When companies vacate stations in Earthquake Emergency Mode, Battalion/Zone Commanders will initiate the radio check or MDC message with their stations, starting with?
the lowest numbered Battalion assigned to the Bureau Tactical Channel.
392
Book 98
Stations will check-in to the Battalion Commander in what order?
numerical sequence, beginning with the lowest numbered station
393
Book 98
What are the Bureau Tactical Channels?
OCB - LFD T-1
OSB - LFD T-2
OVB - LFD T-3
OWB - LFD T-13
394
Book 98
What is the preferred method of radio status-check in to Battalion Commander?
MDC
395
Book 98
If any Battalion Commander is unable to fulfill any of these duties, who will assume the responsibilities of completing the status-check?
The Station Commander of the Battalion headquarters station
396
Book 98
If the Assistant Bureau Commander is unable to fulfill any of these duties who will fill in?
The Commanders of the lowest numbered Battalions in the Valley and Central Bureaus
Batt 10 in OVB
Batt 1 in OCB
- If first priority battalion is unable to fulfill duties, responsibility will move to next battalion
397
Book 98
If a Battalion does not begin its status-check within _____________________, the Assistant Bureau Commander will have the next Battalion begin and send someone to check on the non-responsive Battalion.
a reasonable amount of time
398
Book 98
Following station/battalion level check in, Battalion Commanders will conduct their check in to 24hr Assistant Bureau Commanders on what channel?
Batt 1,2,11 OCB T-1
Batt 6,13,18 OCB T-1
Batt 4,5,9 OVB T-3
Batt 10,12,14,15,17 OVB T-3
399
Book 98
If ______ is non-operational, the 24-hour Assistant Bureau Commanders in OCB and OVB will communicate their situation status to each other and share resources as necessary.
MFC
400
Book 98
Rescue Maintenance will check-in (for Supply and Maintenance) with Battalion ___ (following FS -___)
2, 55
401
Book 98
If there is no radio traffic from MFC, Battalion ___ will be responsible for ensuring that MFC is safe.
1
402
Book 98
Department will evaluate the city through aerial and ground reconnaissance. Aerial reconnaissance will be accomplished by who?
LAFD and LAPD helicopters
403
Book 98
Whenever the Department goes into Earthquake Emergency Mode, LAFD helicopters will immediately respond to each Bureau. LAFD pilots will forward reconnaissance information to ___________ commanders.
Area
404
Book 98
Ground units will vacate their stations, report to their Battalion Commander and commence the drive-through surveys in the _________________ (unless otherwise directed by their Battalion Commander.
non-emergency mode
405
Book 98
If survey routes are impassable, command personnel should consider what?
foot patrols
406
Book 98
Firefighting may be done in a “______________” mode to allow companies to be as efficient as possible. Salvage and overhaul operations may be de-emphasized or eliminated.
quick-knock-down
407
Book 98
Firefighters should shut off _____ and ______ services to badly damaged buildings to eliminate potential sources of fire.
gas and electric
408
Book 98
START is a triage system that provides guidelines for pre-hospital personnel to rapidly classify victims into 1 or 4 categories?
- Deceased
- Immediate
- Delayed
- Minor
409
Book 98
Once activated it may take Disaster Medical Assistance Teams (DMATs) how long to arrive on-scene?
12-24 hours
410
Book 98
Los Angeles County has deployed six caches of medical supplies throughout Los Angeles County. These caches are located at county facilities and available within ____ hours from the request. Each cache contains supplies and pharmaceuticals to treat _____ patients
2-3, 1000
411
Book 98
The search and rescue of collapsed structures should be done in what way?
organized and systematic manner
412
Book 98
When a search begins, the entry point should be marked by a ____________, which will be crossed when the team leaves the area.
diagonal line
413
Book 98
Clockwise, starting from far left what is identified on "X" search markings?
- Search team identification
- Date & Time search was complete
- Hazards
- Location/Number of Victims remaining inside
414
Book 98
Records show that a Tsunami is likely to occur once every ___ years in the Pacific Ocean
4
415
Book 98
Statistics of Tsunami damage have shown that most losses occur in coastal areas below ___ foot elevations.
20
416
Book 98
Tsunamis create acoustic waves, traveling at 780 mph, quickly outdistance the tsunami which travels between ___ and ___ mph.
40, 50
417
Book 98
Who has concurrent jurisdiction in emergencies involving evacuation related to a tsunami within the City?
Both Police and Fire Departments
418
Book 98
MFC normal operations are referred to as what?
dispatch condition one (DISCON I)
419
Book 98
When an earthquake is felt, or when reports of a significant earthquake are reported to MFC, the MFC BC may switch to a degraded mode until the extent of damage is known and impact areas are identified. Initial consideration should be ___________________ until additional information is received.
resource conservation
420
Book 98
MFC shall simulcast "earthquake emergency mode" department wide to all field units on what channels?
4, 7, and 8
421
Book 98
If MFC can continue to dispatch Department resources, dispatch will be done at one of four levels (known as dispatch conditions or “DISCON”)
- DISCON I (Normal daily operational mode)
- DISCON II
- DISCON III
422
Book 98
What is normal operating condition. MFC is not in any degraded dispatch mode and full resource assignments are sent, upon request.
DISCON I
423
Book 98
What is a degraded dispatch mode. The most probable situations requiring the Dept. to operate in DISCON II are when resources are depleted due to Multiple major incidents, extreme weather condition, minor earthquake.
DISCON II
- Reduce initial response by conserving engine companies
- Limit SF to "A" assignment
- EMS response reduced to single company or unit in many cases (conserve engine co)
424
Book 98
The Dept will go into this when MFC is being inundated with 9-1-1 calls. The dispatch floor is unable to keep up with incoming calls and priority dispatching must be implemented to gain control. Department resources are depleted due to Multiple "Major" incidents, extreme weather conditions, major earthquake.
DISCON III
- Reduce initial response to single engine
- Identify "no-send" incident types
- Limit EMS response to single unit on most inc types
425
Book 98
The Command and General staff positions for an Area Command will consist of an Area Commander, Planning Section Chief, Logistics Section Chief, Liaison Officer, and Information Officer. General Staff positions may have ___________. Command staff positions may have ___________.
Deputies, Assistants
426
Book 98
If MFC is non-operational, will the emergency trigger function?
NO
427
Book 98
Individual members are encouraged to provide for their own wellbeing by knowing what to do and how to evacuate, when an earthquake hits. They should also provide an adequate amount of food, water, and personal items for sustained operations (possibly at a remote location) for up to ___ hours
72
428
Book 98
After an earthquake, As soon as possible, all uniformed personnel should monitor what for emergency information?
a Department radio
429
Book 98
The Fire Chief or _______________________ will have ultimate responsibility for the deployment of special duty and civilian personnel.
Department Duty Officer (DDO)
430
Book 98
The authority for Recall must be obtained from who?
Fire Chief or Deputy Department Commander (DDC)
431
Book 98
If there is a recall, members should monitor radio and television channels for emergency broadcast information. If directed to respond, and unable to reach their place of assignment, they shall report to the nearest _________________ (every attempt should be made to have necessary PPE)
Battalion or Area Command Post
432
Book 98
This volunteer is one who appears at the scene of a disaster, not as part of an organized response effort, and whose skill level is unknown.
Convergent Volunteer
433
Book 98
Statistics have shown that approximately ___% of live rescues from earthquake damaged structures are accomplished by untrained spontaneous rescuers
90
434
Book 77
Establish a safe zone at ___ feet minimum, more expansive as incident dictates
50
435
Book 77
Conduct a preliminary evaluation by interviewing who and or performing a visual inspection?
Bus operator or MTA field supervisor on-scene
436
Book 77
Though CNG is considered non toxic, large volumes of the gas in a confined space can do what?
displace oxygen and cause asphyxiation
437
Book 77
What are different ways to determine if a gas leak is present?
odor detection, sharp hissing sound, icing on fuel components or use a hand-held gas detection device
438
Book 77
How are specific bus types within this guide indexed?
by series number
439
Book 77
If there is a gas leak with fire or explosion who can you use as a resource/liaison?
MTA field supervisor/on-scene coordinator
440
Book 77
Turn the Black or Red handle how far to stop fuel flow to the engine?
1/4 turn
441
Book 77
How many steps are in Emergency Operating Procedures?
5
442
Book 77
Where are roof vent outlets usually located?
right rear of roof area. DO NOT ATTEMPT TO STOP THIS GAS FROM VENTING
443
Book 96
Low back syndrome accounts for approximately ___% of all medical expenses and disability pensions incurred by the fire service
20%
444
Book 96
Exercise a minimum of 3 times per week for at least ___ min per session is required
30
445
Book 96
Body temperatures during extreme physical stress in the heat may reach what temp?
104F
446
Book 3
Members shall promptly report any violation of the policies, Rules and Regs, practices and procedures of the Department to their immediate supervisor within how many hours?
24 hrs, if not asap with explanation for delay
447
Book 3
When relieved from duty under charges, the member so relieved shall promptly surrender all Department property to _________________, who will retain such property pending disposition
his or her commanding officer
448
Book 3
Who may summarily relieve a member under his or her command from duty, when in his or her judgment; an offense committed is sufficiently serious to warrant immediate action?
Any Chief Officer
449
Book 3
At all times, drive and operate apparatus in a safe manner, with __________ for the welfare of the public and the department
due regard
450
Book 37
What is any substance or material capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety and property?
Hazardous material
451
Book 37
When does a a hazardous material become a hazardous waste?
when it can no longer be used for the purpose it was originally intended.
452
Book 37
During secondary decon, approx how much contaminents will be removed by removing clothing?
approx 80% or more
453
Book 37
What are the 4 tear off tags on triage tag to indicate patient condition?
Minor
Delayed
Immediate
Morgue
454
Book 37
Contents of decon bucket?
- 1- 5 gal bucket
- 1 liquid dish soap
- 2- foxtail counter brush
- 10- trash bags 40" x 48"
- 10- zip lock bag 10" x 12" x 2 mil
- 10- disposible coveralls, XL
- 10- HazMAt Triage Tags
455
Book 37
To differentiate victim rescue from rescue of first responders, the term used to describe actions directed at retrieving civilian exposure victims is?
Rapid extraction
456
Book 37
How are extractions categorized? What are they?
by who performs the rescue
- self rescue
- bystander rescue
- responder rescue
- technical rescue
457
Book 37
Which extraction method represents the least risk to the responder?
self-rescue or bystander rescue (low risk, high benefit)
458
Book 37
Extraction of ______________ victims may result in exposure to levels of contamination that exceed the capability of the protective clothing available to first responders.
unresponsive
459
Book 37
The primary factor in determining whether the environment is appropriate for structural PPE and SCBA is the viability of what?
victims
460
Book 37
When are victims considered viable?
when they are able to control their movement, or are able to respond verbally or physically
461
Book 37
Those victims who are unable to respond or are unable to voluntarily control their movement, may still be considered viable under what conditions?
the number of victims is low, they are not located in an enclosed space or the enclosed space can be adequately ventilated, and access to decontamination and treatment is immediately available.
462
Book 37
The existence of unprotected viable victims is a strong indication that the toxicity of the environment is below that which would impact a firefighter protected by full structural PPE and an SCBA for _______ exposures.
short
463
Book 37
Prior to initiating rapid extraction, first responders shall take what actions?
1. Establish there are viable victims and need for extraction
2. Establish decon, at min a charged hoseline
3. Establish rapid intervention, 2 in 2 out
4. Announce intent to initiate rapid extraction
a. identify access point
b. identify number of personnel on team
5. Maintain continuous comms during extraction efforts
464
Book 37
When conducting rapid extraction, when must first responders immediately leave the rescue site, make appropriate notifications and proceed to decon?
1. any symptoms of exposure for any member of team
2. Encounter area with ONLY non-viable victims
3. The first SCBA alarm (approx 25% reserve for exiting and decon)
465
Book 37
How much reserve air do you want in SCBA for exiting rapid extraction and decon?
25%
466
Book 37
Statistically, the most significant route of exposure for hazardous materials continues to be?
inhalation
467
Book 37
During extraction operations, what part of the responders bodies are most at risk to become contaminated?
feet and hands
468
Book 37
What is the first responders min PPE for all hazmat incidents?
full structure PPE, SCBA and personal dosimeter
469
Book 37
The Level __ splash suits provided for performing decontamination do not enable firefighters to enter hazardous zones, and shall not be worn for that purpose. If evacuation is required, evacuation teams shall enter only those areas where standard structural PPE and SCBA’s provide an appropriate level of protection.
B
470
Book 37
If material has not been identified, officers may use what page of ERG for estimate of min distances?
Guide 111
471
Book 37
Certain listings found in the blue and yellow pages of the ERG may be highlighted. These entries identify materials that qualify as TIH materials. What is TIH?
Toxic Inhalation Hazard
(use green-bordered pages for initial isolation and protective action distances)
472
Book 37
The ERG contains a discussion of the two methods of protecting people during a hazardous materials incident: evacuation and sheltering in-place. Evacuation is preferred where the material is ____________, it may take a long time to clear the vapor from the area, or buildings cannot be tightly secured against atmospheric incursion. Sheltering in-place is indicated where the process of evacuation would expose people to a greater level of risk than leaving them indoors, or an evacuation cannot be performed.
flammable
473
Book 37
DOT placards are diamond-shaped signs that are required to be affixed on each side and each end of vehicles carrying hazardous materials. What size are they?
10-3/4" on each side
474
Book 37
DOT labels are __-inch diamonds (or smaller, for cylinders) affixed to non-bulk packages of hazardous materials. They are generally required for the same materials for which placards are necessary.
4
475
Book 37
What are the following DOT placard colors?
Orange, Red, Green, White, Yellow, Blue?
Orange - explosive
red - flammable/combustile
green - nonflammable gas
white - poisonous
yellow - oxidizer (including oxygen) or organic peroxide
blue - dangerous when wet
476
Book 37
What are the following DOT placard colors?
Red with white band in center, White over red, white with vertical red stripes, yellow over white, white over black, black stripes over white?
red with white band in center - dangerous
white over red - spontaneously combustible
white with vertical red stripes - flammable solid
yellow over white - radioactive
white over black - corrosive
black stripes over white - misc haz material
477
Book 37
How many classes are in DOT system? what are they?
Class 1 - explosives
Class 2 - Non flammable gas
Class 3 - Flammable/combustible liquids
Class 4 - Flammable solids, spont combustible
Class 5 - Oxidizers
Class 6 - Poison
Class 7 - Radioactive
Class 8 - Corrosive
Class 9 - Misc Dangerous (ORM - other regulated materials)
478
Book 37
United Nations (UN) ID numbers may replace the descriptive text in the center of the placard for bulk shipments of hazardous materials, they contain how may digits and what size?
4 digits, 4" black numbers on orange panel
(cannot replace Dangerous placard or Radioactive/explosives)
479
Book 37
What is a placarding system for fixed facilities to indicate the dangers associated with various hazardous materials found at a location. This placarding system is not used in transportation, but is mandated by Los Angeles City ordinance on fixed facilities?
NFPA 704
480
Book 37
NFPA 704 - The Health, Flammability, and Reactivity Hazards are ranked from _____, with __ indicating no risk and __ indicating the greatest risk.
0-4, 0, 4
481
Book 37
How long is the evacuation table on the ERG used for?
good for first 30 minutes only
482
Book 37
ERG - If the product ID number is known use what color pages? If not, but the NAME is known use what color pages?
Yellow, Blue
(highlighted entries on these pages indicate TIH materials, use green pages for isolation distances)
483
Book 37
ERG - Once a material is found, using yellow or blue pages, find ___ digit guide number that corresponds with the chemical, then go to ______ color pages
3, orange
484
Book 37
Typical methods of containment for first responders include what?
Dike, Damn, Divert, Disperse, Dilute, Cover, Foam
(normally DIKES are used for spills involving small quantities of materials)
485
Book 37
BP-8 Computer listing of inventory submitted , list is required to maintained on site for how long
not less than 3 year
486
Book 37
Whenever the Department is notified of a Homeland Security Advisory System threat level of “HIGH” (____________) or greater, and at such other times determined by the Department’s Administration, the PEK/Mini-Radiac shall be worn when dispatched on ALL incidents.
ORANGE/LEVEL 4
487
Book 37
Whenever the Department is notified of a Homeland Security Advisory System threat level of “SEVERE” (__________) or greater, and at such other times determined by the Department’s Administration, the following policy shall be in effect. Mini-Radiacs shall be worn when?
RED/LEVEL 5
- on any incident
- when out of qtr
- when away from app
- when in enclosed space/building
NOT required on FD property
488
Book 37
how often should level B suits, all equipment and contents of the decon bucket be checked?
monthly
489
Book 37
Housed at HMTF stations and on the HazMat Tender, Zumro Tents provides ___ shower stalls for mass decon
6
490
Book 37
A normal HazMat assignment consists of what ?
BC, HMTF (includes squad), EM, AE, RA
491
Book 37
The HazMat ICS divides the incident scene into 3 zones, what are they?
- Exclusion Zone (Hot Zone) - line surrounding this zone is the "Hot Line" , which is established by HMTF with approval of IC
- Contamination Reduction Zone - line surrounding this zone is "Perimeter Control Line" , is established by the first responder
- Support Zone - All functions not part of the HazMat group are located in this zone, can use fireline tape for civilian control outside this
492
Book 37
Ideally, a min distance of ___ should be used for the depth of the contamination reduction zone. This distance will allow the HazMat TF enough room to conduct their operations
100'
493
Book 37
The assigned ____________ will establish baseline vitals for all Entry Team members.
paramedic engine company
494
Book 37
What is the level of PPE worn by technical decon team, set up inside the contamination reduction corridor?
same level as the Entry Team or one level below.
495
Book 37
The Entry Team Leader will have a minimum of one Back-Up Team ________ suited up and prepared for relief or rescue (rapid intervention) of an Entry Team. The Dresser and Back-Up Team(s) will monitor the Entry Team tactical channel for possible deployment
partially
496
Book 37
The Entry Team will leave meters, equipment, and outer gloves at a drop point just ______ the Exclusion Zone for later decontamination. If necessary, the Entry Team will remove any gross contaminants at a pool or pre-established area inside the Exclusion Zone adjacent to the CRC.
inside
497
Book 37
Normally, the members of the Technical Decon Team are Hazardous Materials ________ from the Hazardous Materials Task Force. However, other fire suppression personnel who are trained to perform Entry Team Technical Decontamination procedures may also staff the team.
Technicians
498
Book 37
How many pools are used for technical decon?
The standard decontamination process is accomplished in three pools. In the first two pools in the CRC, Entry Team members will be soaped, scrubbed, and rinsed. The final rinse, using only water, is performed in the last pool.
a 4th pool just inside the hot line when needed
499
Book 37
The goal of the Fire Department is to have every member assigned to the Hazardous Materials Task Force trained to the Hazardous Materials ________ level.
Technician
500
Book 37
What are different hazmat entry suits?
level A
level B
flash suit
cold suit
501
Book 37
The only low air warning device on the haz mat SCBA is?
bell on first stage. (noise inside suit)
no front/rear pass, no buddy breathing connection,
502
Book 37
Air cart uses how many 60 min scba bottles?
2
503
Book 37
What are three different size chlorine kits?
A - 150lb cylinders
B - 1 ton cylinders
C - railroad cars
504
Book 37
There are five Threat Conditions, each identified by a description and corresponding color. From highest to lowest, the levels and colors are? homeland security advisory system
severe - red
high - orange
elevated - yellow
guarded - blue
low - green
505
Book 37
Unless there is specific information that would impact on local conditions, the normal level of preparedness of Department resources is also sufficient for an ____________ Threat Condition.
Elevated (Yellow)
506
Book 37
Whenever first responders believe that they shall be engaged in providing decontamination to victims of a terrorist incident, the Level “___” ensemble, with SCBA on and operating, shall be worn.
B
507
Book 70
IC or medical group Sup shall handle the medical portion of an MCI incident through additional emergency and hospital personnel and equipment hbased upon three finding. What are they?
-number of victims
- severity of injuries
-magnitude of incident
508
Book 70
Medical groups are the ____ level established at LAFD incidents when the number of resources exceeds the span of control of the IC or operations.
Basic
509
Book 70
No matter the size of the incident there is only one ___________unit leader
transportation
510
Book 70
During MCI, transporter rotation relief should be every ____ minutes?
30
511
Book 70
The START system atands for what?
simple triage and rapid transport
512
Book 70
START system allows first responders to triage a patient in ___ seconds
60
513
Book 70
When triaging, what physical assessments shall be completed?
- perfusion
- mental status
- ventilations
514
Book 70
Patient destination will be determined by department personnel based upon hospital info provided by the ________
medical alert center (MAC)
515
Book 70
How many parts are there to a triage tag?
2
516
Book 70
What are the perforated sections and colors of the triage tag?
Deceased - BLACK with white lettering
Immediate - RED with black lettering
Delayed - YELLOW with black lettering
Minor - GREEN with black lettering
