Tamara's Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a pelvic floor disorder associated with the bladder pushing through to the vagina?

A. Enterocele
B. Cystocele
C. Uterine prolapse
D. Urethrocele

A

B. Cystocele

Cystocele is a pelvic floor disorder that is associated with the bladder pushing through to the vagina.

Enterocele is a pelvic floor disorder associated with the rectum pushing through the back wall of the vagina. Uterine prolapse is a pelvic floor disorder associated with a bulging uterus that is pushing into the vagina. Urethrocele is a pelvic floor disorder associated with the bulging of the urethra into the vagina.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gauze dressings are used for wounds that have dead space or for clean wounds that need protection. Which of the following best describes gauze dressings?

A. Adhesive wafers that form a gelatinous mass over the wound
B. Water-based gels contained within impregnated gauze
C. Non-adhesive absorptive dressings that are composed of synthetic fiber or cotton
D. Hydrophilic or hydrophobic semipermeable membranes with varying adhesive or absorptive properties

A

C. Non-adhesive absorptive dressings that are composed of synthetic fiber or cotton.

It is permissible to use gauze dressings in various manners, including dry, wet, moist, or impregnated with antiseptics.

Hydrocolloids are adhesive wafers that form a gelatinous mass over the wound. Hydrogens are water-based gels contained within impregnated gauze. Foams are hydrophilic semipermeable membranes with varying adhesive or absorptive properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If a physical therapist asks a patient to recall ten numbers, presented in numeric order, which cognitive function is being tested?

A. Emotional response
B. Memory
C. Attention
D. Higher level cognitive ability

A

C. Attention

The PT is testing the patient’s attention span, as the ability to recall ten digits in numeric order is an example of the digit span retention test.

A patient’s memory can be tested by asking the patient to recall items that he has just seen, recall recent events, or recall past events. A patient’s emotional responses can be tested by judging the patient’s judgement, frustration, tolerance, or self-centeredness. A patient’s higher level cognitive abilities can be tested by examining the patient’s abstract reasoning or problem-solving abilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If a patient has pruritus, it means that his skin is itching. Pruritus is common in which of the following.

A. Pyrexia
B. Venous obstruction
C. Diabetes
D. Thyroid deficiency

A

C. Diabetes

Pruritus is common in diabetes. It is also common in hyperthyroidism and drug hypersensitivity.

Infection is an indication of urticaria, which is smooth, red, elevated patches of the skin (e.g. hives). Pyrexia is seen when individuals have a rash, which is local redness and eruption on the skin. Thyroid deficiency is an indication of xeroderma, which is dry skin that sheds epithelium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A physical therapist determines that the patient needs a special orthoses to control lower back motion. Which of the following spinal orthoses would the physical therapist most likely recommend to the patient?

A. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis
B. Corset
C. Cervical orthosis
D. Lumbosacral orthosis

A

D. Lumbosacral orthosis

A lumbosacral orthosis controls lower back motion, or lumbosacral motion. the lumbosacral area consists of the 5 lumbar vertebrae and the sacrum. Therefore, the PT would most likely recommend a lumbosacral orthosis to the patient.

A thoracolumbosacral orthosis controls thoracic and lumbosacral motions. A cervical orthosis control cervical motion. A corset provides abdominal compression and relieves pain in the lower back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Constipation is a common GI disorder that is caused by a reduction in normal stool eliminations. If an individual suffers from constipation, he/she may experience which of the following?

A. Tenderness in the anterior hip, groin, or thigh regions
B. Shoulder pain
C. Head and neck pain
D. Scapular pain

A

A. Tenderness in the anterior hip, groin, or thigh regions

Constipation may cause an individual to experience tenderness in the anterior hip, groin, or thigh regions.

Inflammatory bowel disease may cause an individual to experience lower back pain. Peptic ulcer disease may cause an individual to experience radiating back pain. Gastroesophageal reflux disease may cause an individual to experience head and neck pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A patient has been experiencing dizziness, and the PT would like to determine if the patient’s dizziness is due to vascular or vestibular causes. Which special cervical test would the physical therapist most likely use?

A. Romberg Test
B. Anterior Shear test
C. Lhermitte’s sign
D. Hautant’s test

A

D. Hautant’s Test

Hautant’s Test is a special cervical test that is used to differentiate between vestibular causes and vascular causes of vertigo. If the patient’s arms move during this test, the test is deemed positive.

Lhermitte’s sign is a special cervical test used to identify spinal cord dysfunction. The Romberg test is used to identify upper motor neuron lesions. The anterior shear test is used to assess upper cervical spine ligament integrity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Apocrine glands are sweat glands that are stimulated by which of the following?

A. Increased body temperature
B. Infections
C. Emotional Stress
D. Hydration

A

C. Emotional stress

Apocrine glands are sweat glands that are stimulated by emotional stress. Apocrine glands are located in the axillary and genital vacinities. These glands open into the hair follicles found within these areas.

The other options are incorrect because apocrine glands are not stimulated by blood flow, temperature, or infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hypokalemia is associated with ECG changes and is best described by which of the following?

A. Decreased potassium concentrations
B. Decreased magnesium concentrations
C. Decreased calcium concentrations
D. Decreased blood pressure

A

A. Decreased potassium concentrations

Hypokalemia occurs when an individual as decreased potassium concentrations in the blood. Hypokalemia can cause arrythmias and ventricular fibrillation.

Decreased calcium concentrations is know as hypocalcemia. Decreased magnesium concentrations is known as hypomagnesemia. Decreased blood pressure is know as hypotension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A physical therapist is providing therapy to a patient who has had a shoulder disarticulation. Which of the following best describes the patient’s level of amputation?

A. An amputation through the elbow joint
B. An amputation below the elbow
C. An amputation above the elbow
D. An amputation through the shoulder joint.

A

D. An amputation through the shoulder joint

A shoulder disarticulation is an amputation through the shoulder joint. An elbow disarticulation is an amputation through the elbow joint. A transradial amputation is below the elbow. A transhumeral amputation is above the elbow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following special knee tests is conducted in order to identify meniscal tears?

A. Hughston’s plica test
B. Fluctuation test
C. Clarke’s sign
D. McMurray’s test

A

D. McMurray’s test

McMurray’s test is deemed positive when it can reproduce a click or pain in the knee joint.

Hughston’s plica test is a special knee test that is used to identify plica dysfunction. Clarke’s sign is a special knee test that is used to indicate PF dysfunction. The fluctuation test is a special knee test that is used to indicate effusion of the knee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A patient has a pressure ulcer on his fully intact skin that is nonblanchable, cool to the touch, and itchy. Which stage of severity is this patient’s pressure ulcer?

A. Stage III
B. Stage II
C. Stage I
D. Stage IV

A

C. Stage I

Pressure ulcers are graded based on the stage of their severity. A stage I pressure ulcer occurs when the skin is fully intact, is nonblanchable, may have a temp change (cool or warm), and may have sensation (itching or pain).

A stage II pressure ulcer occurs when there is partial-thickness skin loss that involved the epidermis and/or dermis skin layers and presents as a blister, abrasion, or shallow crater. A stage III pressure ulcer occurs when there is full thickness skin loss that involves subcutaneous tissue damage and presents as a deep crater. A stage IV pressure ulcer occurs when there is full thickness skin loss that involves tissue necrosis and damage to supporting structures, bone, or muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Levers are rigid surface rotations of an axis. One type of lever is the first class lever, which transpires when there are two forces that are directed to either side of the axis. Which of the following is an example of a first class lever?

A. the flexion of one’s elbow
B. the contraction of triceps at one’s elbow joint
C. the flexion of one’s knee
D. the raising of one’s toes

A

B. the contraction of triceps at one’s elbow joint

First class levers have an effort that tries to cause movement and a resistance that opposes the movement.

The raising of one’s toes is an example of a second class lever, which transpires when that are two forces that are directed to only one side of the axis and the resistance is between the effort force and the rotation of the axis. The flexion of one’s elbow or one’s knee are examples of third class lever, which transpires when there are two forces that are directed to only one side of the axis and the effort force is closer to the axis than it is to the resistance force.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Epicardium is heart tissue that forms which of the following?

A. the heart muscle
B. the protective sac that encloses the heart
C. the pericardium’s inner layer
D. the heart’s inner surface and cavities

A

C. the pericardium’s inner layer

Pericardium is heart tissue that forms the protective sac enclosing the heart. Myocardium is heart tissue that forms the heart muscle. Endocardium is heart tissue that forms the heart’s inner surface and cavities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When assessing a patient, the examiner notices that the patient’s speech production is impaired due to central or peripheral nervous system damage. This is best described by which of the following items?

A. dysdiadochokinesia
B. dyssynergia
C. dysmetria
D. dysarthria

A

D. dysarthria

Dysarthria occurs when an individual’s speech production is impaired due to CNS or PNS damage.

Dyssynergia occurs when an individual’s complex movement is impaired due to a weakened muscle association. Dysmetria occurs when an individual’s ability to judge range of motion or distance is impaired. Dysdiadochokinesia occurs when an individual’s ability to partake in rapid, alternating movements is impaired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In order to test a patient’s memory, and examiner may ask a patient to recall recent events. Which of the following identifies how an examiner would assess one’s higher level cognitive abilities?

A. assess the patient’s ability to stay on task
B. assess the patient’s ability to recall past events
C. assess the patient’s abstract reasoning
D. assess the patient’s self-centeredness

A

C. assess the patient’s abstract reasoning

To assess higher level cognitive abilities=abstract reasoning, judgement, problem solving, and general knowledge.

In order to examine a patient’s emotional response or behavior, the examiner may assess the patient’s self centeredness. In order to examine a patient’s attention span, the examiner may assess the patient’s ability to stay on task. In order to examine a patient’s memory, the examiner may assess the patient’s ability to recall past events.

17
Q

When a patient suffers from a knee burn, the common deformity is flexion. Which of the following physical therapy goals should be stressed?

A. extension
B. dorsiflexion
C. supination and extension
D. external rotation, abduction, and flexion

A

A. extension

The patient’s knee should be placed in a posterior knee splint and positioned in extension.

External rotation, abduction, and flexion are the PT goals that should be stressed when a pt has a shoulder burn. Supination and extension are PT goals that should be stressed when a pt has an elbow burn. Dorsiflexion is the PT goal that should be stressed when a pt has an ankle burn.

18
Q

If during a PT intervention for bronchial drainage, the PT claps over the pt’s lower ribs near the spine on either side, the secretion most likely needs to be removed from which of the following areas?

A. right middle lobe
B. posterior basal segments of the lower lobes
C. posterior segments of the upper lobes
D. anterior segments of the upper lobes

A

B. posterior basal segments of the lower lobes

A PT can assist secretion drainage in the posterior segments of the upper lobes by standing behind the pt and clapping over both sides of the upper back. A PT can assist secretion drainage in the anterior basal segments of the lower lobes by using a slightly cupped hand to clap over the patient’s lower ribs. A PT can assist secretion drainage in the anterior segments of the upper lobes by clapping between the patient’s clavicle and nipple on both sides.