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LB's questions Flashcards

1
Q

Carrying oxygenated blood form high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas is the primary function of which of the following?

A. Veins
B. Lymph nodes
C. Arteries
D. Capillaries

A

C. Arteries: Arteries carry oxygenated blood from high-pressure areas. The volume of blood that is carried by the arteries is influenced by the volume of blood in the system, peripheral resistance, and the elasticity of vessel walls.

A. Veins: carry unoxygenated blood to the heart from the tissues.
B. Lymph nodes: part of the lymphatic system and collect cellular debris and bacteria.
D. Capillaries: exchange fluids and nutrients between tissues and blood.

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2
Q

A PT has a pt in supine position with his legs resting on the table. The therapist passively flexes on hip with the leg extended until the pt complains of shooting P. Then the leg is slowly lowered until the pain subsides, and the therapist DF the foot. The therapist is conducting this test in order to identify dysfunction of the LE. Which special lumbar test is the PT performing?

A. Valsalva’s maneuver test
B. Babinski test
C. Lasegue’s test
D. McKenzie’s side glide test

A

C. Lasegue’s test: is a special lumbar test that is performed with the pt in a supine position and is used to identify if the pt’s neurological structures that supply his LEs are functioning correctly. If the PT is able to reproduce the pt’s pathological neurological symptoms while his/her foot is DF, then the test is deemed positive

A. Valsalva’s maneuver test: used to identify space-occupying lesions.
B. Babinski test: used to identify UMN lesions.
D. McKenzie’s side glide test: used to differentiate between neurological dysfunction and scoliotic curvature that causes the trunk to have abnormal curvature.

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3
Q

A pt presents with peripheral nerve injury after motor vehicle accident. If the patient has the inability to flex a fully extended arm or experienes winging that starts at 90* forward flexion, which peripheral nerve is MOST LIKELY involved?

A. suprascapular N
B. spinal accessory N
C. Axillary N
D. Long thoracic N

A

D. Long thoracic N: most likely involved when an ind has the inability to flex a fully extended arm or experiences winging that starts at 90* forward flexion. The LTN may also be involved if the ind experience P when flexing a fully extended arm.

A. suprascapular N: most likely involved when a pt experiences increased P with forward shoulder flexion or shoulder weakness.
B. spinal accessory N: most likely involved when an ind has the inability to abd his/her arm beyond 90* or experiences P in his/her shoulder on abduction.
C. Axillary N: most likely involved when an ind has the inability to abduct his/her arm with neutral rotation.

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4
Q

You are evaluating a 62-year old male who complains of shoulder P and decreased functional use of his arm. If you are suspicious of a rotator cuff tear, which special test would most likely confirm this condition?

A. Speed’s test
B. Drop arm test
C. Yergason’s test
D. Clunk test

A

B. Drop arm test: identifies a tear and/or full rupture of the rotator cuff. This test is performed by having the pt sit with the shoulder passively abducted to 120*. The pt is instructed to slowly bring the arm down to the side, while the therapist guards in case the arm drops. The test is positive if the pt is unable to lower arm to the side with control.

A. Speed’s test: used to identify bicipital tendinopathy
C. Yergason’s test: used to test the integrity of the transverse ligament and also identify bicipital tendinopathy
D. Clunk test: used to identify a glenoid labrum tear

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5
Q

A pt is diagnosed with end stage renal failure and is no longer going to receive care to improve his comfort while resting. Which of the following is a practice environment in which a dying, Medicare-eligible pt receives care from a nurse in an inpatient or home-based setting?

A. Hospice care
B. Subacute care
C. Tertiary care
D. Skilled nursing facility

A

A. Hospice care: a practice environment in which a dying, Medicare-eligible pt receives care from a nurse in an inpatient or home-based setting.

B. Subacute care: is an intermediate level of health care practice environment in which the patient receives treatment in a hospital or skilled nursing facility by medical, nursing, and rehabilitative service providers.
C. Tertiary care: a practice environment in which the pt receives treatment provided by highly specialized physicians in a hospital setting.
D. Skilled nursing facility: a practice environment in which the patient is continuously cared for by nursing staff and can be freestanding or part of a transitional care unit.

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6
Q

A PT is treating a pt for lateral epicondylitis and would like to position the pt’s humeroulnar elbow joint in a resting position. Which of the following identifies the appropriate resting position of the pt’s humeroulnar elbow joint?

A. 70* flexion and 10* supination
B. 90* flexion and 5* supination
C. Full extension and supination
D. Neutral with no flexion

A

A. 70* flexion and 10* supination

The humeroulnar elbow joint is in a resting position when it is positioned using a 70* flexion and 10* supination.

The humeroulnar elbow joint is in a close-packed position when it is positioned using full extension and supination. The humeroradial elbow joint is in a resting position when it is positioned using full extension and supination, and it is in a closed packed position when it is positioned using a 90* flexion and 5* supination.

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7
Q

Hemodynamics are important statistics that relate to the function of the heart and its efficiency in pumping blood. The volume of blood that is pumped by the heart per minute is known as which of the following?

A. Stroke volume
B. Atrial filling pressure
C. Cardiac output
D. Ejection fraction

A

C. Cardiac output: The volume of blood that is pumped by the heart per minute is known as cardiac output. The normal cardiac output for an adult at rest is 4-5 liters per minute.

A. Stroke volume: the volume of blood that is emitted from each myocardial contraction
B. Atrial filling pressure: the variance between that atrial and venous pressure
D. Ejection fraction: the percentage of blood emitted during systole from the ventricle

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8
Q

As part of a cervical examination, a physical therapist is performing the anterior shear test on a pt. What does this special cervical test assess?

A. Cervical nerve root dysfunction
B. Upper cervical spine ligament
C. Spinal cord dysfunction
D. Transverse ligament integrity

A

B. Upper cervical spine ligament: The anterior shear test is a special cervical test that assesses the upper cervical spine ligament integrity. In order to perform this test, the pt will need to be in a supine position with the head supported on the exam table. The therapist glides C2-7 anteriorly, assessing the end feel.

A. Cervical nerve root dysfunction: The foraminal compression test is used to assess cervical nerve root dysfunction.
C. Spinal cord dysfunction: Lhermitte’s sign is used to assess spinal cord dysfunction.
D. Transverse ligament integrity: used to assess the transverse ligament integrity.

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9
Q

If a PT asks the pt to walk while counting backwards from the number 10. What is being assessed?

A. Memory
B. Emotional response
C. Attention
D. Higher-level cognitive ability

A

C. Attention: the PT is testing the pt’s attention, specifically his ability to dual-task

A. Memory: can be tested by the pt to recall items that he just seen, recall recent event, or recall past events.
B. Emotional response: can be tested by judging the pt’s judgement, frustration tolerance, or self-centeredness
D. Higher-level cognitive ability: can be tested by examining the pt’s abstract reasoning or problem-solving abilities.

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10
Q

Prostatitis occurs when the prostate gland is infected and inflamed. There are three different types of prostatitis: acute bacterial, chronic, and non bacterial. Which of the following are not a symptom related to acute bacterial prostatitis?

A. Malaise
B. Urethral discharge
C. Impotence
D. Fever and chills

A

C. Impotence: is not associated with acute bacterial prostatitis; however, it is associated with nonbacterial inflammatory prostatitis.

Urethral discharge, fever and chills, and malaise are all symptoms associated with acute bacterial prostatitis. Other symptoms related to acute bacterial prostatitis include urinary frequency, nocturia, dysuria, myalgia and arthralgia, and pain. Acute bacterial prostatitis is associated with multiple sex partners and catheterization.

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11
Q

Venous ulcers can be found on an individual’s lower leg and are commonly located over a medial malleolus area. Which of the following causes is associated with venous ulcers?

A. Arteriosclerosis obliterans
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Vascular incompetence
D. Unrelieved pressure

A

C. Vascular incompetence: is associated with venous ulcers. Other causes are associated with venous ulcers include chronic venous insufficiency, venous hypertension, and a history of deep venous thrombosis.

A. Arteriosclerosis obliterans: is a cause associated with arterial ulcers.
B. Peripheral neuropathy: is a cause associated with diabetic ulcers.
D. Unrelieved pressure: is a cause associated with pressure ulcers.

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12
Q

A cerebral angiography is a diagnostic procedure that x-rays the patient’s skull after injecting dye into which of the following?

A. Vertebral arteries only
B. Lateral ventricles
C. Spinal subarachnoid space
D. Carotid and/or vertebral arteries

A

D. Carotid and/or vertebral arteries

A cerebral angiography is a diagnostic procedure that x-rays the patient’s skull after injecting due into the carotid and/or vertebral arteries. This invasive procedure may cause an anaphylactic reaction to the dye, meningeal irritation, vasospasms, or hemorrhage.

During a ventriculography, dye is injected into the lateral ventricles. During a myelography, dye is injected into the spinal subarachnoid space.

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13
Q

A patient presents with discomfort over the lateral upper thigh, over the region of the trochanteric bursa. the PT feels that the pt may have a tightened tensor fascia latae and iliotibial band. Which special test will the PT most likely use to confirm his feelings?

A. Ober’s test
B. Thomas’s test
C. Ely’s test
D. Patrick’s (FABER) test

A

A. Ober’s test: is a special hip test used to identify IT band tightness or TFL tightness. Ober’s test is deemed positive if the pt’s uppermost limb cannot come to a rest on the examination table.

B. Thomas’s test: a special test used to identify hip flexor tightness.
C. Ely’s test: a special hip test used to identify rectus femoris tightness.
D. Patrick’s (FABER) test: a special test that is used to identify hip dysfunctions, such as restriction in mobility.

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14
Q

Working as a PT, you are conducting pelvic floor strengthening for a man with erectile dysfunction. Erectile dysfunction is a male reproductive system disorder that causes the inability to achieve and maintain an erection. Which of the following is a vascular cause associated with erectile dysfunction?

A. Coronary heart disease
B. Cerebral trauma
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Amphetamine use

A

A. Coronary heart disease: a vascular cause associated with erectile dysfunction. Other vascular causes associated with ED include hypertension, hyperlipidemia, pelvic irradiation, diabetes mellitus, and cigarette smoking.

Amphetamine use is a drug-induced cause with ED. Hypothyroidism is a hormonal cause associated with ED. Cerebral trauma is a neurologic cause associated with ED.

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15
Q

Hypomagnesemia occurs when the blood has decreased concentration of magnesium ions. Hypomagnesemia can cause all expect which of the following?

A. Ventricular arrhythmias
B. Sudden death
C. Coronary artery vasospasm
D. Atrial fibrillation

A

D. Atrial fibrillation: Hypomagnesemia DOES NOT cause A-fib.

Hypomagnesemia occurs when the blood has decreased concentration of magnesium ions. IT can cause ventricular arrhythmias, coronary artery vasospasm, and sudden death. Decreased magnesium concentrations results in increased intracellular calcium levels, which can lead to increased heart actions such as ventricular arrhythmias, vasospasm, and sudden death.

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16
Q

When a pt suffers from a knee burn, the common deformity is flexion. As a PT, which position should you position the leg to reduce the likelihood of a contracture?

A. Supination and extension
B. Dorsiflexion
C. Knee extension
D. External rotation, abduction, and flexion

A

C. Knee flexion: the PT goal that should be stressed when a pt has a knee burn. The pt’s knee should be placed in a posterior knee splint and positioned in extension.

ER, abduction, and flexion are the PT goals that should be stressed when a pt has a shoulder burn. Supination and extension are the PT goals that should be stressed when a pt has an elbow burn. DF is the PT goal that should be stressed when a pt has an ankle burn.

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17
Q

A PT is preforming Thompson’s test on a pt by squeezing the pt’s calf muscle. What is the PT accessing the pt for?

A. Abnormal rearfoot
B. The integrity of the Achilles’ tendon
C. Posterior tibial nerve dysfunction
D. Possible presence of a deep vein thrombosis

A

B. The integrity of the Achilles’ tendon: The Thompson’s test is performed to evaluate the integrity of the pt’s Achilles’ tendon. If the pt’s foot does not move while his calf is being squeezed, then Thompson’s test is positive.

A. Abnormal rearfoot: The neutral subtalar positioning test is used to access patient’s abnormal rearfoot.
C. Posterior tibial nerve dysfunction: Tinel’s sign is a special ankle and foot test that is used to access pts fir posterior tibial nerve dysfunction.
D. Possible presence of a deep vein thrombosis: Homan’s sign is used to assess for DVT.

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18
Q

The femoral nerve traction is a special lumbar test that is used to identify femoral nerve compression anywhere along the course of the nerve. Which of the following findings would deem that test as positive?

A. Neurological symptoms when the foot is DF
B. Neurological symptoms into the buttocks
C. Neurological pain in the anterior thigh
D. Neurological symptoms as the truck’s alignment is corrected

A

C. Neurological pain in the anterior thigh: The femoral nerve traction test is deemed positive when the test finds neurological pain in the anterior thigh. The femoral nerve traction test is performed by having the pts lie on his non-P side with his truck in a neutral position, his head slightly flexed, and his lower limb’s knee and hip flexed. The PT passively extends the hip.

A. Neurological symptoms when the foot is DF: Lasegue’s test is deemed positive when the test finds neurological symptoms when the foot is DF.
B. Neurological symptoms into the buttocks: Sciatica is indicated with P into the buttocks.
D. Neurological symptoms as the truck’s alignment is corrected: McKenzie’s side glide test is deemed positive when the test finds neurological symptoms as the truck’s alignment is corrected.

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19
Q

An individual’s parasympathetic nervous system is known to do all except which of the following?

A. Relaxes urinary bladder
B. Dilates blood vessels in the gut
C. Stimulate digestion
D. Slow heart rate

A

A. Relaxes urinary bladder: The PNS does not relax the urinary bladder. The PNS stimulates the urinary bladder to contract.

The PNS is know to dilates blood vessels in the gut, stimulate digestion, and slow heart rate. The PNS is also known to stimulate tearing, constrict pupils, and constrict airways. The PNS is responsible for body functions in the rest-and-digest stage, in non-stressful situations.

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20
Q

A pt ambulates independently, but the therapist motes that she displays supination throughout the stance phase of gait. The PT knows that supination can be a result of which of the following?

A. Genu Valgum
B. Pain in the forefoot
C. Plantar flexor contracture
D. Spastic invertors

A

D. Spastic invertors: Supination can be a result of spastic invertors. Supination can also be a result of genu varum, pes varus, and weak evertors.

A. Genu Valgum: can cause pronation
B. Pain in the forefoot: can cause an inadequate push-off.
C. Plantar flexor contracture: can cause excessive PF.

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21
Q

Medicare Part A benefits are provided by the federal government and covers all EXCEPT which of the following?

A. Hospice care
B. Inpatient hospital care
C. Primary care physician visits
D. Skilled nursing facility care

A

C. Primary care physician visits: Medicare Part A does not cover PCP visits. Physicians visits are considered medical care that is covered by Medicare Part B.

Medicare Part A does over inpatient hospital care, hospice care, and skilled nursing facility care. Medicare Part A provides basic health care expense coverage in which the beneficiary is responsible for an annual deductible. Medicare Part A is considered hospital insurance, Medicare Part B is considered medical insurance.

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22
Q

A PT is performing a neurological examination to determine a pt’s level of consciousness. At what level of consciousness is the pt when he can only be aroused from sleep using a painful stimuli, responds slowly, and returns to an unresponsive state once the stimuli has been removed?

A. Coma
B. Stupor
C. Obtundation
D. Lethargy

A

B. Stupor: the pt’s level of consciousness is categorized as stupor when he can only be aroused from sleep using a painful stimuli, responds slowly, and returns to an unresponsive state once the stimuli has been removed. This pt has minimal awareness of himself or the environment.

A. Coma: is a level of consciousness that is described as an unconscious state in which the pt can not be awakened.
C. Obtundation: is a level of consciousness that is described as a confused state in which the pt can open his eyes and look at the examiner, but is confused.
D. Lethargy: is a level of consciousness that is described as a drowsy state in which the pt can open his eyes and respond, but falls back to sleep quickly.

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23
Q

A central cord lesion is a spinal cord injury of the upper motor neuron that is characterized by which of the following?

A. Lateral corticospinal tract lost
B. Variable nerve root damage
C. Spastic paralysis that occurs below the lesion
D. Cavitation of the central cord in the cervical section

A

D. Cavitation of the central cord in the cervical section: in the cervical section is a characteristic that is associated with a central cord lesion. A central cord lesion is a spinal cord injury of the upper motor neuron that also causes ventral horn loss with a bilateral loss of motor function.

A. Lateral corticospinal tract lost: is a characteristic of anterior cord syndrome.
B. Variable nerve root damage: is a characteristic of a Cauda Equina injury.
C. Spastic paralysis that occurs below the lesion: is a characteristic of a complete cord lesion, Brown-Sequard syndrome, and anterior cord syndrome.

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24
Q

You are treating a 72-year old woman for gait and balance training. During analysis, you not that your pt displays inadequate push-off. Inadequate push-off is the results of which of the following?

A. Spastic toe flexors
B. Contracture of PF
C. Tightened PF
D. Weakened PF

A

D. Weakened PF: Inadequate push-off is a common gait deviation that occurs during the stance phase as a result of weakened PF, pain in the forefoot, or decreased ROM.

A. Spastic toe flexors: Toe clawing is a common fait deviation that occurs during the stance phase as a result of spastic toe flexors.
B. Contracture of PF: Excessive PF is a common gait deviation that occurs during the stance phase as a result of the contracture of PF.
C. Tightened PF: Toe first stepping is a common gait deviation that occurs during the stance phase as a result of tightened PF.

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25
If a pt has weak peroneals or spastic invertors, it could cause which of the following during swing phase of gait? A. Foot drop B. Foot flat C. Inverted foot D. Equinovarus
C. Inverted foot: weak peroneals or spastic inverted can cause inverted foot. An abnormal synergistic pattern could also cause an inverted foot. A. Foot drop: can be caused by a spastic PF or impaired delayed contraction of DF. B. Foot flat: can be caused by limited ROM or weak DF. D. Equinovarus: can be caused by a developmental abnormal or spasticity of the gastrocnemius-soleus.
26
Cesarean childbirth is pregnancy-related procedure that occurs when a fetus is delivered by an incision that is made through the pt's abdominal and uterine walls. Which of the following is NOT a PT intervention that should be used after a cesarean childbirth? A. Friction massage B. Rigorous abdominal exercises C. Postural exercises D. Pelvic floor exercises
B. Rigorous abdominal exercises: is nto a PR intervention that should be used for a cesarean childbirth. A PT should educate on how to perform gentle abdominal exercise. A. Friction massage: should be preformed on pts who have cesarean childbirth, as they will help prevent incisional adhesions. C. Postural exercises: should be included, but heavy lifting should be avoided for the first 4-6 weeks. D. Pelvic floor exercises: should also be used due to the pressure of carrying the baby and potential pressure of labor.
27
When a pt has a full-thickness or subdermal burn, skin grafting is often necessary for the closure of the wound. If a skin graft is conducted form the actual pt, what type of skin graft was done? A. Allograft B. Autograft C. Xenograft D. Cultured skin graft
B. Autograft: is conducted using skin from the actual pt. A. Allograft: is conducted using skin from another human, such as cadaver skin. C. Xenograft: is conducted using the skin from another species, such as a pig. D. Cultured skin graft: is conducted using skin that is grown in a laboratory from the pt's own skin.
28
When preforming gait analysis, the PT notes that the pt displays forward trunk lean while ambulating. The PT knows that a forward trunk lean can be a result of which of the following? A. Weak gluteus maximus B. Weak knee and hip flexors C. Knee and hip flexion contractures D. Tight or spastic PF
C. Knee and hip flexion contractures: can cause a forward trunk lean. Weak quadriceps can also cause a FTL. A. Weak gluteus maximus: can cause backward trunk lean B. Weak knee and hip flexors: can cause circumduction D. Tight or spastic PF: can cause toe first stepping.
29
The positive of which of the following special knee tests is ligament laxity as demonstrated by the pt's tibia relocation during the test? A. Pivot shift B. Reverse Lachman C. Posterior sag test D. Fluctuation test
A. Pivot shift: a positive fining is ligament laxity as demonstrated by the pt's tibia relocation during the test. It is also used to indicate integrity of the ACL. B. Reverse Lachman: the positive find for this is ligament laxity. C. Posterior sag test: the positive finding of this test is sag of the tibia that is associated to the femur. D. Fluctuation test: the positive finding of this test is fluid movement during the test.
30
Radiographic tests are used when assessing a pt's pulmonary system. Which of the following is radiographic test that uses a computer-generated image of a cross-sectional plan of the pt's body? A. Fluoroscopy B. CT scan C. Ventilation-perfusion scan D. Chest x-ray
B. CT scan: is a radiographic test that uses a computer-generated image of a cross-sectional plane of the pt's body. A. Fluoroscopy: is a radiographic test that utilizes an x-ray beam for continuous observation of diaphragmatic excursion. C. Ventilation-perfusion scan: is a radiographic test that has the ability to match the lung's ventilation pattern to the perfusion pattern. D. Chest x-ray: is a radiographic test that uses a 2D radiographic film and can expose a change in the pt's pulmonary parenchyma.
31
You are evaluating a pt in the intensive care unit and the medical chart states that he underwent a pneumonectomy. The pt had which of the following procedures done? A. A portion of the lung, which does not contain anatomical divisions, removed B. A lobe of lung removed C. A lung removed D. A segment of a lobe removed
C. A lung removed: if a pt has had a pneumonectomy, then he/she has had a lung removed. A. A portion of the lung, which does not contain anatomical divisions, removed: a wedge resection is if he/she has had a portion of the lung removed, which does not contain anatomical divisions. B. A lobe of lung removed: a lobectomy is if he/she has had a lobe removed D. A segment of a lobe removed: a segmental resection is if he/she has had a segment of a lobe removed
32
Hemodynamics are important statistics that relate to the function of the heart and its efficiency in pumping blood. The volume of blood that is pumped by the heart per minute is known as which of the following? A. Stroke volume B. Atrial filling pressure C. Ejection fraction D. Cardiac output
D. Cardiac output: the volume of blood that is pumped by the heart per minute is known as the cardiac output. The normal cardiac output for an adult at rest is 4-5 L per minute. A. Stroke volume: is the volume of blood that is emitted from each myocardiac contraction. B. Atrial filling pressure: is the variance between the atrial and venous pressures. C. Ejection fraction: is the percentage of blood emitted during systole from the ventricle.
33
Burns consist of 3 zones. One of the zones is associated with minimal cell injury in which the cells should recover. Which of the following zones does this best describe? A. Zone of hyperemia B. Zone of destruction C. Zone of coagulation D. Zone of stasis
A. Zone of hyperemia: is the burn would zone that has minimal cell injury in which the cells should recover. B. Zone of destruction: is incorrect bc it is NOT one of the 3 burn wound zones. C. Zone of coagulation: is the burn would zones that causes irreversible cell injury in which cell death occurs. D. Zone of stasis: is the burn would zone that causes cells to become injured in which cell death may occur if not treated.
34
In regards to the physiology of integumentary glands, eccrine glands are sweat glands that do which of the following functions? A. Defend against fungus B. Control body temperature C. Lubricate skin D. Defend against bacteria
B. Control body temperature: eccrine glands are sweat glands that control body temperature and are open on the skin and are widely distributed on the body. Sebaceous glands are exocrine glands that secrete sebum, which defend against fungus and bacteria and lubricate skin.
35
A PT is using an intermittent mechanical compression unit to apply external pressure to a pt's extremity. Which of the following represents that first step to this procedure? A. Place the unit over the pt's extremity B. Increase the unit's pressure until it reaches the desired level C. Check the pt's blood pressure. D. Elevate the pt's limb 45*
C. Check the pt's blood pressure: When using an intermittent mechanical compression unit, the first step is to check the pt's BP. After checking the pt's BP, the PT would then elevate the pt's limb 45*, place the unit over the pt's extremity, and increase the unit's pressure until it reaches the desired level.
36
You are working with a 70 year old man with COPD and choose to perform huffing for airway clearance technique that is used on which of the following types of pts? A. Pts who have collapsible airways B. Pts who have not been able to clear their airways in any other manner C. Pts who do not have the necessary abdominal muscles to perform an effective cough C. Pts who do not have the ability to cough on command
A. Pts who have collapsible airways Huffing is an airway clearance technique that is used on pts who have collapsible airways. This technique is performed by asking the pt to inhale deeply and to exhale the air by saying "Ha, ha." An assisted cough is an airway clearance technique that is used on pts who do not have the necessary abdominal muscles to perform an effective cough. Tracheal stimulation is an airway clearance technique that is used on pts who do not have the ability to cough on command. Endotracheal suctioning is an airway clearance technique that is used on pts who have not been able to clear their airways in any other manner.
37
The thoracic springing test is a special thoracic test that is used to evaluate the mobility of the intervertebral joint in a pt's thoracic spine. All except which of the following is a positive finding when performing the thoracic springing test? A. Pain B. Restricted movement C. Numbness D. Excessive movement
C. Numbness Numbness is not a positive finding that is associated with the performance of the thoracic springing test. The test is meant to evaluate the intervertebral joint mobility in the thoracic spine. The thoracic spring test is deemed positive when P, excessive movement, or restrictive movement is present. This test is performed by placing the pt in a prone position and applying posterior glides, posterior springs, anterior glides, or anterior springs to the transverse processes of the thoracic vertebra.
38
Your pt presents with knee P and an audible clicking sound with certain movements. You are suspicious of a possible meniscal tear. Which of the following special knee tests is conducted in order to identify meniscal tears? A. Clarke's sign B. Fluctuation tests C. Hughston's plica test D. McMurray's test
D. McMurray's test: is a special knee test that is conducted in order to identify meniscal tears. It is deemed positive when it can reproduce a click or a P in the knee joint. A. Clarke's sign: is a special knee test that is used to indicate PF dysfunction B. Fluctuation tests: is a special knee test that is used to indicate effusion of the knee joint. C. Hughston's plica test: is a special knee test that is used to identify plica dysfunction
39
You are a PT working a sporting event in which one of the players injured his foot and ankle, suspicious of an Achilles' tendon tear. Which special test is utilized to identify the integrity of the Achilles' tendon? A. Tinel's sign B. Thompson's test C. Talar tilt test D. Anterior drawer test
B. Thompson's test: is utilized to evaluate the integrity of Achilles tendon. The pt is prone wit the foot off the edge of the table. The PT squeezes the calf muscle and looks for movement. No movement of the foot while squeezing the calf indicates positive finding for Achilles' tendon injury. A. Tinel's sign: identifies dysfunction of the posterior tibial nerve. C. Talar tilt test: identifies ligamentous instability (particularly calcaneofibiular ligament) D. Anterior drawer test: identifies ligamentous instability (usually for the anterior talofibular ligament.)
40
The normal sodium serum level for urinary regulation is 135-146 mEq/L. If an individual's sodium serum level is greater than 146mEq/L, hypernatremia occurs. Which of the following is a cause associated with hypernatremia? A. Hypothyroidism B. Water deficiency C. Blood transfusions D. Water intoxication
B. Water deficiency: or an insufficient intake of water, is a cause associated with hypernatremia. Signs of hypernatremia include pitting edema, pulmonary edema, tachycardia and agitation. A. Hypothyroidism: is a cause associated with hypermagesemia, or an excess of magnesium. C. Blood transfusions: are causes associated with hypomagnesemia, or a deficiency of magnesium D. Water intoxication: is causes associated with hyponatremia, or a deficiency of sodium.
41
You are a PT treating a 35 year old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant, presenting with varicose veins. Varicose veins are a pregnancy related pathology that can be addressed by a PT. Which of the following is a PT intervention that should be used for viscose veins? A. Educate on minimizing water intake B. Educate on the need to avoid using elastic support stockings C. Educate on the need to elevate extremities D. Educate on he importance of crossing legs
C. Educate on the need to elevate extremities A. Educate on minimizing water intake: should stay fully hydrated B. Educate on the need to avoid using elastic support stockings: should use support stockings D. Educate on the importance of crossing legs: should educate to not cross legs
42
A pt is diagnosed with end stage renal failure and is no longer going to receive invasive medical procedures such as dialysis. Instead, he chooses to receive care to improve his comfort while resting. Which of the following is a practice environment in which a dying, Medicare-eligible pt receives are from a nurse in an inpatient or home-based setting? A. Subacute care B. Hospice care C. Tertiary care D. Skilled nursing facility
B. Hospice care A. Subacute care: is an intermediate level of health care practice env in which the pt receives treatment in a hospital or skilled nursing facility by medical, nursing, and rehab service providers. C. Tertiary care: a practice env in which the pt receives treatment provided by highly specialized physicians in a hospital setting D. Skilled nursing facility: a practice env in which the pt is continuously cared for by nursing staff and can be freestanding or part of a transitional care unit
43
A PT, working in a sub-acute setting, is providing therapy to a pt which has had a shoulder disarticulation. Which of the following best describes the pt's level of amputation? A. An amputation below the elbow B. An amputation above the elbow C. An amputation through the shoulder jt D. An amputation through the elbow jt
C. An amputation through the shoulder jt A. An amputation below the elbow: transradial amputation B. An amputation above the elbow: transhumeral amputation D. An amputation through the elbow jt: elbow disarticulation
44
You have been monitoring your pt's blood pressure at each treatment visit and you are concerned he may be prehypertensive, needing further attention from his referring physician. The AHA suggests that an individual's blood pressure is categorized as prehypertensive when which of the following occurs? A. The individual's systolic reading is greater than 180 or diastolic reading is greater than or equal to 110 B. The individual's systolic reading is between 120- 139 or diastolic reading is between 80-90 C. The individual's systolic reading is greater than or equal to 160 or diastolic reading is greater than or equal to 100 D. The individual's systolic reading is between 140-159 or diastolic reading is 90-99
B. The individual's systolic reading is between 120- 139 or diastolic reading is between 80-90 A. The individual's systolic reading is greater than 180 or diastolic reading is greater than or equal to 110: hypertensive crisis C. The individual's systolic reading is greater than or equal to 160 or diastolic reading is greater than or equal to 100: stage II hypertension D. The individual's systolic reading is between 140-159 or diastolic reading is 90-99: stage I hypertension
45
What is the role that a PT should take during the reconditioning phase of PT in an occupation health setting? A. a focus on the containment and stabilization of the pt's injury B. a focus on the pt's ability to return to work by performing an objective functional capacity evaluation C. a focus on vigorous therapeutic exercises in order to increase the pt's endurance D. a focus on functional training in order to increase the pt's ability to perform tasks
C. a focus on vigorous therapeutic exercises in order to increase the pt's endurance There are four pahses of PT intervention within the occupational health setting including: Acute: a focus on the containment and stabilization of the pt's injury Post acute: a focus on functional training in order to increase the pt's ability to perform tasks Reconditioning phase: a focus on vigorous therapeutic exercises in order to increase the pt's endurance Return-to-work phase
46
If a pt has tight extensor or weak hip flexors, it could cause which of the following gait deviations? A. limited hip flexion during stance B. excessive knee flexion during stance C. excessive hip flexion during stance D. limited hip extension during stance
A. limited hip flexion during stance B. excessive knee flexion during stance: weak quadriceps or knee flexor contractor can cause this C. excessive hip flexion during stance: weak hip extensors, tight hip flexors, or tight knee flexors can cause this D. limited hip extension during stance: spastic or tight hip flexors can cause this
47
Which of the brain's lobes contains receptive fibers that convey touch, pain, and temperature sensations from the opposite side of an individual's body? A. Parietal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Frontal lobe D. Temporal lobe
A. Parietal lobe: the postcentral gyrus is the primary sensory cortex for integrating sensation B. Occipital lobe: contains the primary visual cortex and visual association cortex C. Frontal lobe: contains the precentral gyrus, prefrontal cortex, and Broca's area D. Temporal lobe: contains the primary visual cortex and visual association cortex
48
Which of the following special ankle and foot tests is used to identify neuroma in the pt's forefoot? A. Thompson's test B. Anterior drawer test C. Talar tilt test D. Morton's test
D. Morton's test A. Thompson's test: evaluates he Achilles' tendon B. Anterior drawer test: evaluates for instability of the ATFL C. Talar tilt test: evaluates ligamentous instability of the CFL
49
A PT is performing the foraminal compression test (Spurling's test) on a pt. What does this special cervical test assess? A. Vestebrobailar vascular system integrity B. Spinal cord dysfunction C. Transverse ligament integrity D. Cervical nerve root dysfunction
D. Cervical nerve root dysfunction
50
You are examining a pt with complains of SI joint pain. Which special sacroiliac joint test is utilized by PTs to identify sacroiliac joint dysfunction that may be caused by a functional leg discrepancy? A. Ipsilateral anterior rotation test B. Long sitting test C. Gillet's test D. Goldthwait's test
B. Long sitting test A. Ipsilateral anterior rotation test: assess the anterior movement of a pt's ilium in relation to the sacrum C. Gillet's test: assess the posterior movement of a pt's ilium in relation to the sacrum D. Goldthwait's test: differentiate between sacroiliac joint dysfunction and lumbar spine dysfunction
51
A PT is providing therapy to a pt who has had a transradial amputation. Which of the following best describes this pt's level of amputation? A. An amputation below the elbow B. Removal of the radius from the forearm C. An amputation above the elbow D. An amputation through the elbow joint
A. An amputation below the elbow B. Removal of the radius from the forearm- just incorrect C. An amputation above the elbow- transhumeral D. An amputation through the elbow joint- elbow disarticulation
52
A Type I fracture occurs when the individual's entire epiphysis is deformed. Which of the following is a Type I fracture? A. Compression of the epiphyseal plate B. Torsion or avulsion forces C. Avulsion with an angular fore D. Growth plates that are partially fused
B. Torsion or avulsion forces A. Compression of the epiphyseal plate- Type V fractures C. Avulsion with an angular force- Type II fracture D. Growth plates that are partially fused- Type III
53
In regards to the physiology of integumentary glands, eccrine glands are sweat glands that do which of the following functions? A. Defend against bacteria B. Control body temperature C. Defend against fungus D. Lubricate skin
B. Control body temperature. Sebaceous glands- Defend against bacteria, Defend against fungus, Lubricate skin
54
Hypomagesemia occurs when the blood has a decreased concentration of magnesium ions. Hypomagnesemia can cause all except which of the following? A. A-fib B. Coronary artery vasospasm C. Ventricular arrhythmias D. Sudden death
A. A-fib Hypomagnesemia occurs when the blood has a decreased magnesium ions. It can cause ventricular arrhythmias, coronary artery vasospasms, and sudden death. Decreased magnesium concentrations can result in increased intracellular calcium levels, which can lead to increased heart actions such as ventricular arrhythmias, vasospasms, and sudden death.
55
If a pt has tight extensors or weak hip flexors, it could cause which of the following gait deviations? A. Limited hip flexions during stance B. Excessive knee flexion during stance C. Excessive hip flexion during stance D. Limited hip extension during stance
A. Limited hip flexions during stance B. Excessive knee flexion during stance- weak quad or knee flexors contracture C. Excessive hip flexion during stance- weak hip extensors, tight hip flexors, tight knee flexors D. Limited hip extension during stance- spastic or tight hip flexors
56
Which of the following diagnostic procedures is utilized for the measuring of intracranial pressure and spinal fluid dynamics? A. Lumbar puncture B. Electromyography C. Positron emission tomography D. Electroenephalography
A. Lumbar puncture B. Electromyography-utilized for diagnosing primary muscle diseases C. Positron emission tomography- used for physiologic mapping and brain metabolism analysis D. Electroenephalography- provides structural brain disease information in regards to the presence of seizures
57
PT intervention can be utilized for manual bronchial secretion removal. If a pt has bronchial secretions in the lateral basal segments of the lower lobes, a PT should assist the brainage by doing which of the following? A. Stand behind the pt and clap over both sides of the upper back B. Clap between the pt's clavicle and nipple on both sides C. Clap over the middle of the pt's back at the tip of the scapula D. Clap over the uppermost portion of the pt's lower ribs
D. Clap over the uppermost portion of the pt's lower ribs A. Stand behind the pt and clap over both sides of the upper back- if a pt has bronchial drainage in the posterior segments of the upper lobes B. Clap between the pt's clavicle and nipple on both sides- if a pt has bronchial drainage by standing behind the pt and clapping over both sides of the upper back C. Clap over the middle of the pt's back at the tip of the scapula- if a pt has bronchial drainage in the superior segments of the lower lobes
58
When an individual has suffered an upper most neuron and is affected by spasticity, typically the pt will follow regular patterns of spasticity. When the quadriceps is affected with spasticity, the LE displays which of the following actions? A. Hip adduction B. Knee extension C. Hip extension D. Knee flexion
B. Knee extension A. Hip adduction- present when the adductor longus/breis are affected C. Hip extension- present when the gluteus maximus is affected D. Knee flexion- not typically associated with spasticity
59
Which of the following special ankle and foot tests is used to identify neuroma in the pt's forefoot? A. Thompson's test B. Talar tilt test C. Anterior drawer test D. Morton's test
D. Morton's test A. Thompson's test- evaluate the integrity of the Achilles' tendon B. Talar tilt test- evaluate the ligamentous instability of the calcaneofibular ligament C. Anterior drawer test- evaluate for instability of the ATFL
60
In reviewing the medical chart, you learn the pt has serous drainage from his surgical wound. If a pt's wound drainage type is noted as serous, the wound drainage is BEST described as which of the follow? A. Thin, clear, and watery B. Thick and gray, green, or yellow C. None of these D. Contains blood
A. Thin, clear, and watery B. Thick and gray, green, or yellow- purulent wound drainage (milky also) C. None of these D. Contains blood- sanguineous drainage
61
Sebaceous glands are an appendage of the skin. Which of the following statements is true in regards to sebaceous glands? A. help control body temperature B. are stimulated by emotional stress C. consist of eccrine and apocrine glands D. are found on all skin surfaces except the soles and palms
D. are found on all skin surfaces except the soles and palms A. help control body temperature- eccrine glands B. are stimulated by emotional stress- apocrine glands C. consist of eccrine and apocrine glands- sweat glands
62
A PT is examining the knee of an athlete who suffered an injury playing tennis. She is performing a special knee test known as a collateral ligament stability test. What is the primary finding of a positive collateral ligament instability test? A. laxity B. sag of the tibia C. excessive posterior glide of the tibia D. excessive anterior glide of the tibia
A. laxity B. sag of the tibia- posterior sag test C. excessive posterior glide of the tibia- posterior drawer test D. excessive anterior glide of the tibia- Lachmann's stress test
63
The ejection fracture is he percentage of blood that is ejected from the ventricle during systole. Which of the following formulas is used to determine the ejection fracture? A. multiply the HR by the stroke volume B. divide the stroke volume by the left ventricle end diastolic volume C. divide the cardiac output by the body surface D. multiple the cardiac index by the stroke volume
B. divide the stroke volume by the left ventricle end diastolic volume A. multiply the HR by the stroke volume C. divide the cardiac output by the body surface= cardiac index D. multiple the cardiac index by the stroke volume
64
After conducting the Performance-Oriented Mobility Assessment on a pt, the PT scared the pt a 22, which means that the pt is at a moderate risk for falls. Which of the following is an item that the Performance-Oriented Mobility Assessment? A. ability to walk up and down a flight of ten stairs B. ability to walk with eyes closed C. ability to maintain balance while stepping over obstacles D. ability to walk and talk at the same time
C. ability to maintain balance while stepping over obstacles
65
The normal potassium serum level is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L. If an individual's potassium serum level is less than 3.5 mEq/L, hypokalemia occurs. Which of the following is a cause associated with hypokalemia? A. sickle cell anemia B. metabolic acidosis C. inadequate secretion with acute renal failure D. diabetic ketoacidosis
B. metabolic acidosis
66
The positive finding of which of the following special knee tests is associated with a popping sound and pain? A. Clarke's sign B. Lachmann's stress test C. Hughston's plica test D. Ballotable patella
C. Hughston's plica test A. Clarke's sign- pain in the knee B. Lachmann's stress test- tibia's excessive anterior glide D. Ballotable patella- perception that the patella is floating
67
A pt suffered a MVA and resultant cervical spine fracture. The trauma team determines that the pt needs a spinal orthoses to control neck movement. Which of the following spinal orthoses would the PT most likely recommend to the pt? A. Corset B. Lumbosacral orthosis C. Four-post cervical orthosis D. Soft color
C. Four-post cervical orthosis
68
Shock (hypoperfusion) is the failure of the circulatory system to perfuse vital organs. Which of the following types of shock does severe external or internal bleeding cause? A. Septic B. Hemorrhagic C. Respiratory D. Anaphylactic
B. Hemorrhagic A. Septic- severe infections C. Respiratory- insufficient oxygen D. Anaphylactic- allergic reactions
69
You are working with a 70 year old man with COPD and choose to perform huffing for airway clearance. Huffing is an airway clearance technique that is used on which of the flowing types of pts? A. pts who have collapsible airways B. pts who have not been able to clear their airways in any other manner C. pts who do no have he necessary abdominal muscles to perform an effective cough D. pts who do not have the ability to cough on command
A. pts who have collapsible airways B. pts who have not been able to clear their airways in any other manner- endotracheal suction C. pts who do no have he necessary abdominal muscles to perform an effective cough- assisted cough D. pts who do not have the ability to cough on command- tracheal stimulation
70
A PT determines that the pt needs a spinal forthoses to control thoracic and lumbosacral motions. Which of the following spinal orthoses whould the PT most likely recommend? A. Corest B. TLSO C. LSO D. cervical orthosis
B. TLSO
71
The GI tract extends from the mouth to the anus and is divided into upper, middle, and lower GI tracts. Which of the following makes up the upper GI tract? A. Salivary glands, liver, pancreas B. Small intestines C. Mouth, esophagus, and stomach D. Larger intestine
C. Mouth, esophagus, and stomach A. Salivary glands, liver, pancreas- accessory organs B. Small intestines- middle GI tract D. Larger intestine- lower GI tract
72
A PT is providing therapy to a pt who has had a transmetatarsal amputation (TMA) as a result of a non-healing diabetic foot ulcer. Which of the following best describes this type of amputation? A. an amputation through the ankle joint B. a below the knee amputation C. an amputation through the knee joint D. a partial foot amputation
D. a partial foot amputation
73
You are working in a woman's health PT clinic, treating a woman with stress urinary incontinence. Stress urinary incontinence occurs when urine is suddenly released from the bladder. Which of the following correctly identifies a cause of stress urinary incontinence? A. hypersensitive bladder B. acontractile bladder C. sphincter weakness D. impaired cognition
C. sphincter weakness- other causes of SUI include intra-abdominal pressure and weakness of the pelvic floor A. hypersensitive bladder- associated with urge urinary incontinence B. acontractile bladder- associated with overflow urinary incontinence D. impaired cognition- associated with functional urinary incontinence
74
An inverse stretch (myotatic) reflex is a spinal level reflex that has an involuntary response to what type of stimuli? A. Noxious stimuli B. Muscle contraction C. Cutaneous sensory stimuli D. Muscle stretch
B. Muscle contraction0 it functions to provide agonist inhibition, diminution of force of agonist contraction as well as stretch-protection reflex A. Noxious stimuli- Crossed extension reflexes are spinal level reflexes that have an involuntary response to noxious stimuli C. Cutaneous sensory stimuli- flexor (withdrawl) reflexes are spinal level reflexes that have an involuntary response to cutaneous sensory stimuli D. Muscle stretch- stretch (myotatic) reflexes are spinal level reflexes that have an involuntary response to muscle stretch
75
You are a PT working a sporting event in which one of the players injured his foot and ankle, suspicious of an Achilles' tendon tear. Which special test is utilized to identify the integrity of the Achilles' tendon? A. Tinel's sign B. Thompson's test C. Talar tilt test D. Anterior drawer test
B. Thompson's test A. Tinel's sign- dysfunion of posterior tibial N C. Talar tilt test- ligamentous instability (CFL) D. Anterior drawer test- ligamentous instability (ATFL)
76
When a pt has a full-thickness or subdermal burn, skin grafting is often necessary for the closure of the wound. If a skin graft is conducted using skin from the actual pt, what type of skin graft was done? A. Xenograft B. Cultured skin graft C. Autograft D. Allograft
C. Autograft A. Xenograft- skin from an animal B. Cultured skin graft- graft is conducted using skin that is grown in a lab fro the p's own skin D. Allograft- another human/ cadaver skin
77
You are working in a cancer unit of a hospital and are referred to evaluate pt with lung cancer. He ahs had a lobe of the lung removed to resec the cancer. Which of the following surgical procedures has the pt had? A. Lobectomy B. Segmental resection C. Pneumonectomy D. Wedge resection
A. Lobectomy B. Segmental resection - segment of lung removed C. Pneumonectomy- a lung removed D. Wedge resection- had a portion of lung removed that does not contain anatomical divisions
78
A pt is receiving PT bc he has had a below-the-knee amputation after serving in the army overseas. What level of amputation has this pt had? A. Transtibial B. Transradial C. Transmetatarsal D. Transfemoral
A. Transtibial
79
Which of the following areas are located within the brain's occipital lobe? A. Precentral gyrus and prefrontal cortex B. Primary auditory cortex and associative auditory cortex C. Postcentral gyrus and receptive fibers D. Primary visual cortex and visual associated cortex
D. Primary visual cortex and visual associated cortex A. Precentral gyrus and prefrontal cortex- frontal B. Primary auditory cortex and associative auditory cortex- temporal lobe C. Postcentral gyrus and receptive fibers- pariental
80
PT has been ordered for a 70-year old male with bronchial secretions limiting his oxygenation. If a pt has bronchial drainage in the lingular segments of the left upper lobe, a PT should assist the drainage by doing which of the following? A. Stand behind the pt and clap over both sides of the upper back B. Use a moderately cupped hand and clap over the pt's left nipple area C. Use a markedly cupped hand and clap over the area that falls between the pt's clavicle and the top of the scapula on both sides D. Use a slightly cupped hand and clap over the pt's lower rib
B. Use a moderately cupped hand and clap over the pt's left nipple area A. Stand behind the pt and clap over both sides of the upper back- posterior segments of upper lobe C. Use a markedly cupped hand and clap over the area that falls between the pt's clavicle and the top of the scapula on both sides- apical segments of the upper lobe D. Use a slightly cupped hand and clap over the pt's lower rib- anterior basal segments of the lower lobes
81
Hyperkalemia occurs when the blood has an increased concentration of potassium ions. Hyperkalemia can cause which of the following? A. Coronary artery vasospasm B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Decreased rate and force of contraction D. Arrhythmias
C. Decreased rate and force of contraction- Hyperkalemia can cause electrocardiographic changes, specifically widening the QRS, flattening the P wave, and the T wave becomes peaked. A. Coronary artery vasospasm- Hypomagenemia B. Ventricular fibrillation- Hypokalemia D. Arrhythmias- Hypermagesemia
82
During evaluation, you listen for your pt's heart sounds. You want to hear the heart sounds for the tricuspid valve. Where should you place your stethoscope on the pt? A. 4th left intercostal space B. 5th left intercostal space C. 2nd left intercostal space D. 2nd right intercostal space
A. 4th left intercostal space B. 5th left intercostal space- mitral valve C. 2nd left intercostal space- pulmonic valve D. 2nd right intercostal space- aortic valve
83
PT are responsible for controlling infections by following appropriate sterilization and disinfection guidelines. Any object that is introduced to a pt's body must be sterilized. Which of the following sterilization methods utilizes water that is heated to 212*F in order to kill organisms that do not form spores? A. Autoclaving B. Ionizing radiation C. Boiling water D. Dry heat
C. Boiling water
84
The heart is composed of 4 types of tissue. Which is the name of the heart tissue that is he heart muscle, composing the majority of the heart? A. Epicardium B. Pericardium C. Myocardium D. Endocardium
C. Myocardium A. Epicardium- inner layer of the pericardium B. Pericardium- protective sac that encloses the heart D. Endocardium- smooth lining of the inner surface of the heart's cavities
85
Which of the following special SI joint tests is performed by PT in order to assess the anterior movement of a pt's ilium in relation to the sacrum? A. Gillet's test B. Gaenslen's test C. Ipsilateral anterior rotation test D. Goldthwait's test
C. Ipsilateral anterior rotation test A. Gillet's test- assess the posterior movement of a pt's ilium in relation to the sacrum B. Gaenslen's test- id SI joint dysfunction D. Goldthwait's test- differentiate btw SI joint and lumbar spine dysfunction
86
An essential job duty of a PT is medical record documentation. In regards to medical records documentation, which of the following statements is false? A. All documents must be legible B. Each treatment visit must be documented C. Mistakes should be crossed out with a single line, initialed, and dated D. Abbreviations or symbols may not be used
D. Abbreviations or symbols may not be used
87
You are working in a sub-acute setting and want to examine your pt's cognitive function. How would you test your pt's recent memory function? A. By asking the pt to name the city in which he was born B. By asking the pt to name three things that had been discussed in the last 10 min C. By asking the pt to name the elementary school that he attended D. By asking the pt to name what he ate for dinner the previous evening
D. By asking the pt to name what he ate for dinner the previous evening
88
A PT is working with a veteran soldier who was injured during combat, focusing on improving independence with bed mobility and transfers. He sustained a hemocorporectomy Which of the following best describes this type of amputation? A. An amputation of the entire lower limb with the pelvic resected B. An amputation above the knee C. An amputation of the entire lower limb with a preserved pelvis D. An amputation in which both limbs are amputated along below the L4, L5 level
D. An amputation in which both limbs are amputated along below the L4, L5 level A. An amputation of the entire lower limb with the pelvic resected- hemipelvectomy B. An amputation above the knee- transfemoral C. An amputation of the entire lower limb with a preserved pelvis- hip disarticulation
89
The human renal and urological system contains a bladder, which is located behind the symphysis pubis. The bladder is responsible for which of the following? A. Movement of urine B. Drainage of the kidney into the lower urinary tract C. Collection of urine D. Filtration of blood
C. Collection of urine A. Movement of urine- ureter B. Drainage of the kidney into the lower urinary tract- renal pelvis D. Filtration of blood- the glomerulus
90
Erectile dysfunction is a male reproductive system disorder that causes the inability to achieve and maintain an erection. Erectile dysfunction can be caused by a variety of factors including neurogenic, vascular, and hormonal reasons. Which of the following is a substance or drug-induced cause associated with erectile dysfunction? A. Parkinson's disease B. Cigarette smoking C. Alcohol use D. Decreased androgen levels
C. Alcohol use
91
There are three nerve fibers, which are known as A, B, and C fibers. A fibers are the largest and are divided into alpha, beta, gamma, and delta fibers. Which of these fibers is associated with pain, touch, and temperature? A. gamma B. alpha C. beta D. delta
D. delta A. gamma- associated with motor to muscle spindles B. alpha- associated with somatic motor and proprioception function C. beta- associated with pressure and touch
92
The S2 heart sound is recognized as a "dub". The S2 heart sound is heard when which of the following occurs? A. When the aortic and pulmonary valves close B. During ventricular filling C. When the mitral and tricuspid valves close D. During ventricular filling and atrial contraction
A. When the aortic and pulmonary valves close B. During ventricular filling- S3 (abnormal) C. When the mitral and tricuspid valves close- S1 D. During ventricular filling and atrial contraction- S4 (abnormal)
93
The GI tract extends from the mouth to the anus and is divided into the upper, middle, and lower GI tract. Which of he following makes up the upper GI tract? A. Salivary glands, liver, and pancreas B. Mouth, esophagus, and stomach C. Large intestines D. Small intestines
B. Mouth, esophagus, and stomach A. Salivary glands, liver, and pancreas- accessory organs C. Large intestines- lower GI D. Small intestines- middle GI
94
You are evaluating a pt in the intensive care unit and the medical chart states that he underwent a pneumoectomy. The pt had which of the following procedures done? A. A portion of lung, which does not contain anatomical divisions, removed B. A lobe of the lung removed C. A segment of a lobe removed D. A lung removed
D. A lung removed
95
A PT is working with a pt who displays knee hyperextension during the stance phase of gait. The PT knows that knee hyperextension is a result of all except which of the following? A. weak DF B. extensor spasticity C. weak quadriceps D. PF contracture
A. weak DF
96
Various sounds can indicate certain heart conditions. Which heart sound may indicate that an individual is in congestive heart failure? A. S1 B. S2 C. S3 D. S4
C. S3
97
A PT is working with a pt who displays knee hyperextension during stance phase of gait. The PT knows that knee hyperextension is a result of all except which of the following? A. Weak DF B. Extensor spasticity C. Weak quads D. PF contracture
A. Weak DF- can also cause toe first, foot slap, or foot flat slapping
98
PT works with a variety of professionals in order to coordinate a pt's care. If a pt's treatment plan requires treatment to address swallowing issues that contribute to aspiration pneumonia, what type of professional will the pt most likely work with? A. Rehabilitation counselor B. Audiologist C. Social worker D. Speech-language pathologist (SLP)
D. Speech-language pathologist (SLP)- these professionals work to improve communication and swallowing dysfunction. A. Rehabilitation counselor- administers vocational tests and work with pt who are physically and mentally handicapped in order to improve their ability to function socially B. Audiologist- works in hearing dysfunctions C. Social worker- a caregiver who assists pts by acting as an advocate, educator, counselor, and mediator
99
Common s/s of metabolic acidosis include nausea, coma, secondary hyperventilation, and lethargy. Which of the following is a cause of metabolic acidosis? A. Alveolar hyperventilation B. Alveolar hypoventilation C. Bicarbonate ingestion D. Prolonged diarrhea
D. Prolonged diarrhea- other causes include diabetic acidosis, lactic acidosis, uremic acidosis A. Alveolar hyperventilation- common cause of respiratory alkalosis B. Alveolar hypoventilation- common cause of respiratory acidosis C. Bicarbonate ingestion- common cause of metabolic alkalosis
100
The examiner is listening to heart sounds by placing the stethoscope over the pt's 2nd R intercostal space at the sternal bladder. which auscultations landmarks is the examiner using to assess the pt's heart sounds? A. Mitral valve B. Aortic valve C. Pulmonic valve D. Tricuspid valve
B. Aortic valve A. Mitral valve- located at the 5th L intercostal space C. Pulmonic valve- located at the 2nd L intercostal space D. Tricuspid valve- located at the 4th L intercostal space
101
A burn wound consists of 3 zones. The zone of stasis is one of the 3 burn zones. Which of the following best describes the zone of stasis? A. the burn causes irreversible call injury in which cell death occurs B. the burn causes minimal cell injury in which the cells should recover C. the burn causes cells to become injured in which cell death may occur if not treated D. the burn causes no injury to the cells
C. the burn causes cells to become injured in which cell death may occur if not treated A. the burn causes irreversible call injury in which cell death occurs- zone of coagulation B. the burn causes minimal cell injury in which the cells should recover- zone of hyperemia D. the burn causes no injury to the cells- not a zone
102
Which of the following special SI joint tests is performed by PTs in order to assess the anterior movement of a pt's ilium in relation to the sacrum? A. Gaenslen's test B. Ipsilateral anterior rotation test C. Gillet's test D. Goldthwait's test
B. Ipsilateral anterior rotation test A. Gaenslen's test- to identify SI joint dysfunction C. Gillet's test- to assess the posterior movement of the pt's ilium in relation to the sacrum D. Goldthwait's test- to differentiate between SI joint dysfunction and lumbar spine dysfunction
103
Hypocalcemia occurs when the blood has a decreased concentration of calcium ions. Hypocalcemia can cause which of the following? A. Depressed heart actions B. sudden death C. increased heart actions D. arrythmias
A. Depressed heart actions B. sudden death- hypomagnesemia can cause C. increased heart actions hypercalcemia can cause D. arrhythmias- hypokalemia, hypermagnesemia, and hypomagesemia can cause
104
You are treating a 72 year old woman for gait and balance training. During gait analysis, you note that your pt displays inadequate push-off. Inadequate push off is the results of which of the following? A. Spastic toe flexors B. Contracture of PF C. Tightened PF D. Weakened PF
D. Weakened PF Common gait deviations: A. Spastic toe flexors- toe clawing B. Contracture of PF- excessive PF C. Tightened PF- toe first stepping
105
The therapist is examining the LE of a cross country runner. If the PT would like to determine if distal IT band friction syndrome is present in a pt's knee, which special test would the PT most likely perform? A. Tinel's sign B. Noble compression test C. Hughston's plica test D. McMurray's test
B. Noble compression test A. Tinel's sign- identify fibular nerve distribution dysfunction C. Hughston's plica test- identify plica dysfunction D. McMurray's test- identify meniscal tears
106
The human renal and urological systems contain a renal pelvis, which is located at the upper end of the urethra. The renal pelvis is responsible for which of the following? A. Drainage of the kidney into the lower urinary tract B. Filtration of blood C. Movement of urine D. Collection of urine
A. Drainage of the kidney into the lower urinary tract B. Filtration of blood- glomerulus C. Movement of urine- ureter D. Collection of urine- bladder
107
A 6 year old pt presents with recurring episodes of seizure-like activity and the health care team is attempting to determine a medical diagnosis. Which of the following disease information in regards to the presence of seizures? A. Electromyography B. Electroencephalography C. Positron emission tomography D. Lumbar puncture
B. Electroencephalography
108
Endocardium is heart tissue that forms which of the following? A. smooth lining of the heart's inner surface and cavities B. the heart muscle C. the pericardium's inner layer D. the protective sac that encloses the heart
A. smooth lining of the heart's inner surface and cavities B. the heart muscle- myocardium C. the pericardium's inner layer- epicardium D. the protective sac that encloses the heart- pericardium
109
When using superficial thermotherapy, PTs can use a convection heat transmission modality. Which of the following is an example of a convective modality? A. Hubbard tank B. Infrared lamp C. Hot packs D. Paraffin
A. Hubbard tank B. Infrared lamp- radiation heat transmission C. Hot pack- conductive heat transmission D. Paraffin- conductive heat transmission
110
If during a PT intervention for bronchial drainage the PT claps over the pt's lower ribs near the spine on either side, the secretion most likely needs to be removed from which of the following areas? A. Posterior segments of the upper lobes B. Posterior basal segments of the lower lobes C. R middle lobe D. Anterior segments of the upper lobes
B. Posterior basal segments of the lower lobes A. Posterior segments of the upper lobes- standing behind the pt and clapping over both sides of the upper back C. R middle lobe- clapping over the R nipple area D. Anterior segments of the upper lobes- clapping between the clavicle and nipple area.
111
The endocrine system uses hormones to regulate many body functions including growth and development and reproductive function. In regards to the endocrine system, which of the following is responsible for controlling the release of androgen testosterone? A. Kidneys B. Ovaries C. Testes D. Thyroid
C. Testes A. Kidneys- controlling the release of 1,25-dihydroxy-vitamin D B. Ovaries- progesterone and estrogen D. Thyroid- thyroxine and triiodothyronine
112
You are treating a pregnant woman in her 30th week of pregnancy for SI pain. Your pt has a notably high blood pressure and is complaining of a strong headache. You know that preeclampsia is a pregnancy-related pathology that causes acute hypertension after the 24th week of pregnancy. Which of the following is the appropriate action to take as a PT? A. Education for the proper balancing of rest with activity B. Elevation of the extremities C. Gentle abdominal exercises D. Prompt physician referral
D. Prompt physician referral
113
Hydrogels are dressings used for radiation burns and partial- to full-thickness wounds. Which of the following best describes hydrogels? A. Adhesive dressing that are clear with semipermeable membranes and permeable to atmospheric oxygen and moisture vapor B. Non-woven fluffy dressings that are derived from seaweed C. Water- or glycerin-based gels that are insoluble in water D. Non-adhesive absorptive dressings that are composed of synthetic fiber or cotton
C. Water- or glycerin-based gels that are insoluble in water A. Adhesive dressing that are clear with semipermeable membranes and permeable to atmospheric oxygen and moisture vapor- transparent films B. Non-woven fluffy dressings that are derived from seaweed- alginates D. Non-adhesive absorptive dressings that are composed of synthetic fiber or cotton- gauze
114
When assessing a pt, the examiner notices that the pt's ability to judge range of motion or distance is impaired. For example, the pt reaches for an object but completely overshoots his reach, missing the object. This is best described by which of the following terms? A. Dyssnergia B. Dysdiaochokinesia C. Dysmetria D. Dysarthria
C. Dysmetria A. Dyssnergia- when an individual's complex movement is impaired due to a weakened muscle association B. Dysdiaochokinesia- when an individual ablility to partake in rapid, alternating movements is impaired D. Dysarthria- when an individual's speech production is impaired due to central or peripheral nervous system damage
115
If a pt has pruritus, it means that his skin is itching. Pruritus is common in which of the following conditions? A. Thyroid deficiency B. Venous obstruction C. Pyrexia D. Diabetes
D. Diabetes
116
You are working in woman's health PT clinic, treating a woman with stress urinary incontinence. Stress urinary incontinence occurs when urine is suddenly released from the bladder. Which of the following correctly identifies a cause of stress urinary incontinence? A. Impaired cognition B. Hypersensitive bladder C. Acontractile bladder D. Sphincter weakness
D. Sphincter weakness A. Impaired cognition- functional urinary incontinence B. Hypersensitive bladder- urge urinary incontinence C. Acontractile bladder- overflow urinary incontinence
117
An assisted cough is an airway clearance technique that is used on which of the following types of pts? A. Pts who do not have the ability to cough on command B. Pts who have collapsible airways C. Pts who do not have the necessary abdominal muscles to perform an effective cough D. Pts who have not been able to clear their airways in any other manner
C. Pts who do not have the necessary abdominal muscles to perform an effective cough A. Pts who do not have the ability to cough on command- tracheal stimulation B. Pts who have collapsible airways- huffing D. Pts who have not been able to clear their airways in any other manner- endotracheal suctioning
118
A PT is performing he maximum cervical compression test on a pt to identify facet dysfunction or neural structure compression at the intervertebral foramen. In order to perform this test, how should the pt be positioned? A. Ina supine position with the head supported on the exam table B. In a siting position with palms up and shoulder at 90* C. In a sitting position D. In a standing position with eyes closed
C. In a sitting position
119
When using superficial thermotherapy, PTs can use a radiation heat transmission modality. Which of the following is an example of radiation modality? A. Fluidotherapy B. Paraffin C. Whirlpool D. Infrared lamp
D. Infrared lamp A. Fluidotherapy- convection heat transmission B. Paraffin- conductive heat transmission C. Whirlpool- convection heat transmission
120
Which of the following best describes how the Goldthwait's special SI joint test is performed? A. The PT should place the pt in a supine position and place his fingers between the pt's lumbar spine and spinous process B. The PT should place he pt in a standing position and place his fingers between the pt's lumbar spine and spinous process C. The PT should place the pt in a sitting position and place his fingers between the pt's lumbar spine and spinous process D. The PT should place the pt in a side-lying position at the edge of the examination table and place his fingers between the pt's lumbar spine and spinous process
A. The PT should place the pt in a supine position and place his fingers between the pt's lumbar spine and spinous process
121
The tibiofemoral patellofemoral jts are located within the knee regions and utilizes the MCL, LCL, ACL, and PCL. Which of the following statements is true in regard to the knee region's MCL A. runs oblique inferiorly and posteriorly B. runs oblique anteriorly and inferiorly C. runs oblique superiorly and laterally D. runs oblique medially and anteriorly-superiorly
B. runs oblique anteriorly and inferiorly A. runs oblique inferiorly and posteriorly- LCL C. runs oblique superiorly and laterally- ACL D. runs oblique medially and anteriorly-superiorly- PCL
122
The Trendelenburg is a special test for LE. What does a positive Trendelenburg sign indicate? A. Weakness of the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus B. Restricted hip capsular mobility C. Hamstring tightness D. Leg length discrepancy
A. Weakness of the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

NPTE exam questions (6 decks)

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