MB's cards Flashcards
A PT is performing the max cervical compression test on a patient to identify facet dysfunctionor or neural structure compression at the intervertebral foramen. In order to perform this test, how should the patient be positioned?
a. in a sitting position
b. in a sitting position with palms up and shoulders at 90 degrees
c. in a supin position with the head supported on the exam table
d. in a standing position with eyes closed
a. in a sitting position
* The Hautant’s test is performed with the patient in a sitting position with palms up and shoulders at 90 degrees
A pt. presents with discomfort over the lateral upper thigh, over the region of the trochanteric bursa. The PT feels that the pt. may havea tightened TFL and IT band, Which special test will the PT most likely use to confirm his feelings?
a. Thomas’s Test
b. Ober’s Test
c. Patrick’s (FABER) test
d. Ely’s test
b. Ober’s test
Ober’s test is a special hip test used to identify IT band tightness or TFL tightness. Ober’s is deemed positive if the patient’s uppermost limb cannot come to a rest on the exam table
Patrick’s (FABER) test is a special test that is used to identify hip dysfunctions, such as restriction in mobility. Thomas’s test is a special hip test used to identify hip flexor tightness. Ely’s test is a special hip test used to identify rectus femoris tightness.
Which of the following best descries how the Goldthwait’s special SIJ test is performed?
A. The PT should place the pt. in a standing position and place his finger between the pt.’s lumbar spine and spinous process
B. The PT should place the pt. in a sitting position and place his finger between the pt.’s lumbar spine and spinous process
C. The PT should place the pt. in a supine position and place his fingers between the pt.’s lumbar spine and spinous process
D. The PT should place the pt. in a SL position at the edge of the exam table and place his fingers between the pt.’s lumbar spine and spinous process
C- supine position
The Goldthwait’s test is perfor,ed in order to differentiate between SIJ dysfunction and lumbar spine dysfunction. If pain is present during lumbar segment movements, the Goldthwait’s test identifies the patient’s dysfunction as being related to the SIJ
The other options are incorrect b/c Goldthwait’s test is only preformed in the supine position.
(Info not really clear so I included a video link below)
When assessing a patient s/p CVA, the examiner notices that the patient’s complex movement is impaired due to weakened muscle association. This is displayed as akward and unsteady gait, with excessive trunk sway and uneven and uncoordinated stepping. This is BEST described by which of the following terms?
a. Dysdiadochokinsia
b. Dyssynergia
c. Dysarthria
d. Dysmetria
b. Dyssynergia
Dyssynergia occurs when an individual’s complex movement is impaired due to a weakened muscle association. This is common after a CVA. Dyssynergia is a component of ataxia.
Dysmetria occurs when an individual’s ability to judge ROM or distance is impaired.
Dysdiadochokinesia occurs when an individual’s ability to partake in rapid, alternating movement is impaired.
Dysarthria occurs when an individual’s speech production is impaired due to central or peripheral nervous system damage.
You are working in a SNF and examining a patient w/ a sacral pressure ulcer. The patient has a pressure ulcer that is presenting as a deep crater on the skin. Which stage of severity is the patient’s pressure ulcer?
a. Stage I
b. Stage III
c. Stage II
d. Stage IV
b. Stage III
Pressure ulcers are graded based on the stage of their severity. A stage III pressureulcer occurs when there is a full-thickness skin loss that involves subcutaneous tissue damage and presents as a deep crater.
A stage I pressure ulcer occurs when the skin is fully intact, is nonblanchable, may have a temp change (cool or warm), and may have sensation (itching or pain).
A stage II pressure ulcer occurs when there is partial-thickness skin loss that involves the epidermis and/or dermis skin layers and presents as a blister, abrasion, or shallow crater.
A stage IV pressure ulcer occurs when there is full-thickness loss that involves tissue necrosis and damage to supporting structures, bone, or muscle.
A PT is working with a veteran soldier who was injured during combat, focusing on improving independence w/ bed mobility and transfers. He sustained a hemicorporectomy. Which of the following BEST describes this type of amputation?
a. an amputation of the entire LL with the lower half of the pelvis resected
b. an amputation above the knee
c. an amputation in which both LLs are amputated along w/ the pelvis below the L4, L5 level
d. an amputation of the entire LL w/ a preserved pelvis
c. an amputation in which both LLs are amputated along w/ the pelvis below the L4, L5 level
A hemicorporectomy is an amputation in which both LLs are amputated along w/ the pelvis below the L4, L5 level
A hip disarticulation is an amputation of teh entire LL with a preserved pelvis.
A hemipelvectomy is an amputation of the entire LL with the lower half of the pelvis resected.
A transfemoral amputation is an amputation above the knee.
An individual’s parasympathetic nervous system is known to do all except which of teh following?
a. slows heart rate
b. dilates blood vessels in the gut
c. relaxes urinary bladder
d. stimulates digestion
c. relaxes urinary bladder
The PNS does not relax the urinary bladder. The PNS stimulates the urinary bladder to contract.
The PNS is known to dialte blood vessels in teh gut, stimulate digestion, and slow HR. The PNS is also known to stimulate tearing, constrict pupils, and constict airways. The PNS is responsible for body functions in the rest-and-digest stage, in non-stressful situations.
If a PT asks a patient to walk while counting backwards from the number 10, what is being assessed?
a. memory
b. emotional response
c. attention
d. higher-level cognitive ability
c. attention
The PT is testing the patient’s attention, specifically his ability to dual-task.
A patient’s memory can be tested by asking the patient to recall items that he has just seen, recall recent events, or recall past events. A patient’s emotional responses can be tested by judging the patient’s judgement, frustration tolerance, or self-centeredness. A patient’s higherlevel cognitive abilities can be tested by examining the patient’s abstract reasoning or problem-solving abilities.
Hypercalcemia occurs when an indivdual has an increased volume of calcium concentration in the blood. In regards to the heart, what does hypercalcemia cause?
a. depressed heart actions
b. cardiac arrest
c. coronary artery vasospasm
d. increased heart actions
d. increased heart actions
Hypercalcemia, or increased calcium concentrations, causes increased heart actions. It is known to cause hypertension
Hypocalcemia, or decreased calcium concentrations, causes depressed heart actions.
Hypermagnesemia, or increased magnesium concentrations, causes cardiac arrest
Hypomagnesemia, or decreased magnesium concentrations, causes coronary artery vasospasm
You notice that your patient displays a lateral shift in their trunk. If a patient has a noted lateral shift of teh trunk, which of the following special lumbar tests is performed to differentiate between scoliotic curvature versus an abnormal curvature due to a neurological dysfunction?
a. quadrant test
b. babinski test
c. Lasegue’s test
d. McKenzie’s side glide test
d. McKenzie’s side glide test
McKenzie’s side glide test is a special lumbar test performed if a patient has a noted lateral shift. McKenzie’s SG test is performed w/ the patient in a standing position and is used to differentiate between neurological dysfunction and scoliotic curvature.
The quadrant test is used to identify facet dysfunction and neural structure compression at the patient’s IVF. Lasegue’s test is used to identify if the patient’s neurological structures, which spply the lower limbs are functioning correctly. The babinski test is used to identify UMN lesions.
Regarding the heart and circulation physiology, which of the 4 chambers receives blood from the systemic circulations?
a. left ventricle
b. left atrium
c. right ventricle
d. right atrium
d. right atrium
You are performing a gait analysis of patient 4 weeks s/p right TKA. She has full ROM for knee extension and flexion. During the stance phase, your patient displays excessive knee flexion. Excessive knee flexion is the result of which of the following?
a. weakened dorsiflexors
b. tightened hip flexors
c. weakened quadriceps
d. weakened plantar flexors
c. weakened quadriceps
Excessive knee flexion is a common gait deviation that occurs during the stance phase as a result of weakened quadriceps or knee flexor contracture.
Toe first is a common gait deviation that occurs during stance phase as a result of weakened dorsiflexors. Excessive dorsiflexion with uncontrolled foward motion of the tibia is a commongait deviation that occurs during the stance phase as a result of weakened plantar flexors. Limited hip extension is a common gaitdeviation that occurs during the stance phase as a result of tightened hip flexors.
The thoracic springing test is a special thoracic test used to evaluate mobility of the intervertebral joint in a patient’s thoracic spine. All except which of the following is a + finding when performing this test?
a. pain
b. restricted movement
c. numbness
d. excessive movement
c. numbness
Numbness is not a + finding that is associated w/ the performance of the thoracic springing test. The test is meant to evaluate the intevertebral joint mobility in the T-spine.
This test is deemed + when pain, excessive movement, or restricted movement is present. It is performed by placing the patient in a prone position and applying posterior glides, posterio springs, anterior glides, or anterior springs to the transverse processes of the thoracic vertebra.
Your patient presents with c/o cold feet w/ impaired sensation. You are suspicious of circulation insufficiency. Which type of pulse is used to monitor circulation integrity into the feet?
a. brachial pulse
b. carotid pulse
c. radial pulse
d. pedal pulse
d. pedal pulse
