Shelby's Questions

Question 1

Carrying oxygenated blood from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas is the primary function of which of the following?

a. veins
b. lymph nodes
c. arteries
d. capillaries

Answer 1

c. Arteries

Arteries carry oxygenated blood from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas. The volume of blood that is carried by the arteries is influenced by the volume of blood in the system, peripheral resistance and the elasticity of the vessel walls.

Veins carry unoxygenated blood to the heart from the tissues. Capillaries exchange fluids and nutrients between tissues and blood. Lymph nodes are part of the lymphatic system and collect cellular debris and bacteria.

Question 2

You are treating an individual in the intensive care unit who was in a traumatic accident, causing limited motion and splinting in the right side of his thorax. This individual is a risk of developing atelectasis and therapy should aim to alter the regional distribution of gas to prevent pulmonary compromise. Which is the most appropriate breathing intervention?

a. abdominal strengthening
b. pursed lip breathing
c. segmental breathing
d. percussion and vibration to chest wall

Answer 2

c. Segmental breathing

individuals who are at risk of developing atelectasis use the segmental breathing exercise to alter the regional distribution of gas and to prevent pulmonary compromise. The purpose is to facilitate inhalation to a specific segment.

Abdominal strengthening would not be appropriate for this situation, as it is too advanced. Pursed lip breathing is used to decrease RR and improve gas exchange for patients with obstructive disease to reduce dyspnea. Percussion and vibration would be too forceful for this patient, and not indicated as this patient does not have bronchial secretions.

Question 3

In regards to the study of blood, stroke volume is BEST described by which of the following?

a. the volume of blood that is emitted from the left ventricle per minute
b. the volume of blood that is emitted from the right ventricle per minute
c. the volume of blood that is emitted during each myocardial contraction
d. the volume of blood that is emitted during hypovolemic shock

Answer 3

c. the volume of blood that is emitted during each myocardial contraction

The stroke volume is the volume of blood that is emitted during each myocardial contraction. The normal stroke volume range is between 55 and 100 mL/beat.

The volume of blood that is emitted from the left or right ventricle per minute describes cardiac output. Venous return is known to decrease during hypovolemic shock.

Question 4

The examiner is listening to heart sounds by placing the stethoscope over the patient’s fifth intercostal space as the midclavical area. Which heart sound is the examiner listening to?

a. Mitral valve
b. Aortic valve
c. Pulmonic valve
d. Tricuspid valve

Answer 4

a. Mitral valve

The examiner is using this landmark to listen to the mitral valve.

The auscultation landmark for the pulmonic valve is located at the second left intercostal space as the sternal border. The auscultation landmark for the tricuspid valve is located at the fourth left intercostal space as the sternal border. The auscultation landmark for the aortic valve is located at the second right intercostal space at the sternal border.

Question 5

The stance phase and the swing phase are the two phases that make up the gait cycle. Which of the following is the action that happens at the end of the stance phase and initiates the swing phase?

a. Mid-swing
b. Toe off
c. Heel strike
d. Mid-stance

Answer 5

b. Toe-off

Toe off is the action that happens at the beginning of the swing phase. The first portion of the swing phase is created by acceleration from the toe off, which marks the last portion of the stance phase and the first portion of the swing phase. The swing phases only utilizes single limb support.

The actions of the swing phase occur in the following order: toe-off, mid swing, and heel strike. Mid-stance is an action that falls in the middle of the stance phase.

Question 6

The physical therapist positions a patient supine with a pillow under his knees, over a flat table. Therefore, the secretion most likely needs to be removed from which of the following areas?

a. posterior segments of the upper lobes
b. posterior basal segments of the lower lobes
c. anterior segments of the upper lobes
d. anterior basal segments of the lower lobes

Answer 6

c. anterior segments of the upper lobes

A physical therapist can position the patient supine so the anterior segments of the upper lobes are in a gravity dependent position. The therapist can assist secretion drainage in the anterior segments of the upper lobes lobes by clapping between the patient’s clavicle and nipple on both sides.

A PT can assist secretion drainage in the posterior basal segments of the lower lobes by positioning the patient prone with a pillow under the hips, with the foot of the bed elevated 20 inches. A PT can assist secretion drainage in the posterior segments of the upper lobes by positioning the patient seated leaning over a pillow at 30*. A PT can assist secretion drainage in the anterior basal segments of the lower lobes by positioning the patient on his side with his head down and the foot of the bed elevated 20 inches.

Question 7

The thoracic springing test is a special thoracic test that is used to evaluate the mobility of the intervertebral joint in a patient’s thoracic spine. All except which of the following is a positive finding when performing the thoracic springing test?

a. Pain
b. Restricted movement
c. Numbness
d. Excessive movement

Answer 7

c. Numbness

Numbness is not a positive finding that is associated with te performance of the thoracic springing test. The test is meant to evaluate the intervertebral joint mobility in the thoracic spine.

The thoracic springing test is deemed positive when pain, excessive movement or restricted movement is present. This test is performed by placing the patient in a prone position and applying posterior glides, posterior springs, anterior glides or anterior springs to the transverse processes of the thoracic vertebra.

Question 8

An examiner is testing a patient for spatial relations dysfunction by identifying if the patient has topographical disorientation. Which of the following identifies how an examiner would asses topographical disorientation?

a. Asking the patient to walk down a flight of steps
b. Asking the patient to walk to the exam room from the waiting room on his own
c. Asking the patient to raise his arm over his head
d. Asking the patient to pick out the rectangle block from a variety of different shaped objects

Answer 8

b. Asking the patient to walk to the exam room from the waiting room on his own

Topographical disorientation can be tested by asking the patient to walk to the exam room from the waiting room on his own. It is utilized to determine whether a patient can navigate a familiar route on his own, without assistance.

Depth and distance imperceptions can be tested by asking the patient to walk down a flight of steps. Position in space can be tested by asking the patient to raise his arm over his head. Figure-ground discrimination can be tested by asking the patient to pick out the rectangle blocks from a variety of different shaped objects.

Question 9

Hydrogels are dressings used for radiation burns and partial-to-full-thickness wounds. Which of the following best describes hydrogels?

a. Non-adhesive absorptive dressings that are composed of synthetic fiber or cotton
b. Non-woven fluffy dressings that are derived from seaweed
c. Water or glycerine based gels that are insoluble in water
d. Adhesive dressings that are clear with semipermeable membranes and permeable to atmospheric oxygen and moisture vapor

Answer 9

c. Water or glycerine based gels that are insoluble in water

Hydrogels are water-or glycerine- based gels that come as a solid sheet, amorphous gel or impregnated gauze. Hydrogels are dressings used for radiation burns and partial-to-full thickness wounds.

Transparent films are adhesive dressings that are clear with semipermeable membranes. Alginates are non-woven fluffy dressings that stemmed from seaweed. Gauze dressings are non-adhesive absorptive dressings that are composed of synthetic fiber or cotton.

Question 10

You are working with a 78-year old man who complains of urinary incontinence. Overflow urinary incontinence occurs when the bladder continuously leaks due to urinary retention and an over distended bladder. Which of the following correctly identifies a cause of overflow urinary incontinence?

a. Detrusor muscle instability
b. Anatomical obstruction, like from an enlarged prostate
c. Laxity of pelvic floor musculature
d. Impaired cognition

Answer 10

b. Anatomical obstruction, like from an enlarged prostate

Anatomical obstruction is a cause associated with overflow urinary incontinence. Other causes associated with overflow urinary incontinence include acontractile bladder and neurogenic bladder.

Laxity of pelvic floor musculature is a cause associated with stress urinary incontinence. Detrusor muscle instability is a cause associated with urge urinary incontinence. Impaired cognition is a cause associated with functional urinary incontinence.

Question 11

A PT is performing Thompson’s test on a patient by squeezing the patient’s calf muscles. What is the PT assessing for?

a. Possible presence of DVT
b. Abnormal rearfoot
c. Posterior tibial nerve dysfunction
d. The integrity of the Achilles’ tendon

Answer 11

d. The integrity of the Achilles’ tendon

The Thompson’s test is performed to evaluate the integrity of the patient’s Achille’s tendon. If the patient’s foot does not move while his calf is being squeezed, then Thompson’s test is positive.
The neutral subtalar positioning test is used to assess patients for abnormal rearfoot. Tinel’s sign is a special ankle and foot test that is used to assess patients for posterior tibial nerve dysfunction. Homan’s sign if sued to assess or DVT.

Question 12

When assessing a patient s/p TBI, the examiner notices that the patient’s speech production is impaired due to CNS damage. This is best described by which of the following terms?

a. Dysdiadochokinesia
b. Dyssynergia
c. Dysarthria
d. Dyasmetria

Answer 12

c. Dysarthria

Dysarthria occurs when an individual’s speech production is impaired due to CNS or PNS damage.

Dyssynergia occurs when an individual’s complex movement is impaired due to a weakened muscle association. Dysmetria occurs when an individual’s ability to judge ROM or distance is impaired. Dysdiadochokinesia occurs when an individual’s ability to partake in rapid, alternating movements is impaired.

Question 13

Erectile dysfunction is a male reproductive system disorder that causes the inability to achieve and maintain an erection. ED can be caused by a variety of reasons including drugs, neurogenic conditions and vascular conditions. Which of the following is a hormonal cause associated with ED?

a. Stroke
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Hypertension
d. Antihypertensive use

Answer 13

Hypothyroidism

Hypothyroidism is a hormonal cause associated with ED. Other hormonal causes associated with ED include hypopituitarism and decreased androgen levels with hypogonadism.
Stroke is a neurogenic cause associated with ED. Hypertension is a vascular cause associated with ED. Antihypertensive use is a drug-induced cause associated with ED.

Question 14

After conducting a functional balance assessment on a patient, a PT graded the patient’s functional balance as fair. This meant that the patient’s functional balance is defined as which of the following?

a. Without hand-hold support, the patient is able to maintain balance with limited postural sway
b. With hand-hold support, the patient is able to maintain balance
c. In order to maintain balance, the patient requires hand-hold support and assistance
d. Without hand-hold support, the patient is able to maintain steady balance

Answer 14

b. With hand-hold support, the patient is able to maintain balance

When a patient’s functional balance is graded as fair, it means that the patient requires hand-hold support in order to maintain balance. A fair grade also states that the patient is able to maintain balance when turning his/her head or trunk, or other moderate challenges.
If a patient is able to maintain steady balance without hand-hold support, the patient will receive a normal grade. If a patient is able to maintain balance without hand-hold support and limited postural sway, the patient will receive a good grade. The a patient requires hand-hold support and assistance in order to maintain balance, the patient will receive a poor grade.

Question 15

The accessory glands of the male reproductive system includes the bulbourethral glands, seminal vesicles, and prostate gland. These accessory glands are responsible for which of the following?

a. Production of male sex hormones and spermatozoa
b. Elimination of semen and urine
c. Preparation of sperm for ejaculation
d. Storage and transportation of sperm

Answer 15

c. Preparation of sperm for ejaculation

The male reproductive system’s accessory glands are responsible for the preparation of sperm for ejaculation.

The tests help make up the male reproductive system and are responsible for the production of male sex hormones and spermatozoa. The male reproductive system’s ductal system (epididymides, vas deferens and ejaculatory ducts) is responsible for the storage and transportation of sperm. The urethra helps make up the male reproductive system and is responsible for the elimination of semen and urine.

Question 16

The positive finding of which of the following special tests is associated with a “popping” sound and pain?

a. Clarke’s sign
b. Lachman’s stress test
c. Hughston’s plica test
d. Ballotable patella

Answer 16

c. Hughston’s plica test

The positive finding of Hughston’s plica test is associated with a “popping” sound noted during the test, along with pain. Hughston’s plica test is used to identify plica dysfunction.

The positive finding of the ballotable patella test is the perception that the patella is floating. A positive Clark’es sign is pain in the knee. The positive finding of Lachman’s stress test is the tibia’s excessive anterior glide.

Question 17

Post-op and post-trauma patients use the diaphagmetic breathing exercise for all EXCEPT which of the following reasons?

a. to increase ventilation
b. to improve gas exchange
c. Reduce dyspnea
d. To facilitate relaxation

Answer 17

c. Reduce dyspnea

Diaphagmatic breathing is not a breathing exercise that is used to reduce dyspnea. Pursed-lip breathing is a breathing exercise that is used to reduce dyspnea. The pursed-lip breathing exercise is used with individuals who have obstructive disease and experience dyspnea.

The diaphragmatic breathing exercise is used to increase ventilation, improve gas exchange and facilitate relaxation. This exercise is also used to improve and maintain chest wall mobility and to decrease the individual’s work of breathing.

Question 18

When assessing a patient s/p TBI, the examiner notices the patient’s speech production is impaired due to CNS damage. This is BEST described by which of the following terms?

a. Dysdiadochokinesia
b. Dyssynergia
c. Dysarthria
d. Dysmetria

Answer 18

c. Dysarthria

Dysartria occurs when an individual’s speech production is impaired due to CNS or PNS damage.

Dyssynergia occurs when an individual’s complex movement is impaired due to a weakened muscle association.
Dysmetria occurs when an individuals ability to judge range of motion or distance is impaired.
Dysdiadochokinesia occurs when an individual’s ability to partake in rapid, alternating movements is impaired.

Question 19

The velocity, or walking speed, is the distance traveled divided by the time it took to travel the distance. Which if the following represents the average walking speed for a typical adult?

a. 5 mph
b. 4 mph
c. 3 mph
d. 2 mph

Answer 19

c. 3 mph

The average walking speed for an average adult if 3 mph. The average walking speed for an individual is affected by an individual’s gender, weight and height; it decreases with age and disabilities

Question 20

A massage is performed to promote sedation, muscle relaxation and lymphatic and venous flow. Which of the following BEST describes the stroking (effleurage) massage technique?

a. Using the hands to grasp and lift tissue
b. Using the hands to compress the tissue and perform small circular and long stroking movements
c. Using the hands to rapidly stroke the soft tissue
d. Using the hands to glide over the skin’s surface with light or heavy pressure

Answer 20

d. Using the hands to glide over the skin’s surface with light or heavy pressure

Thee stroking massage technique is performed by gliding one’s hands over the surface of the individual’s skin. Superficial stroking uses light contact, while deep stroking uses heavy pressure.

The kneading massage technique is performed by using the hands to grasp and lift an individual’s tissue. The friction massage technique is performed by using the hands to perform small circular and long stroking movements. The tapping massage technique is performed by using the hands to rapidly strike an individual’s soft tissue.

Question 21

Shock (hypoperfusion) is failure of the circulatory system to perfuse vital organs. Which of the following types of shock is cased by body fluid loss due to severe heat or severe vomiting?

a. Neurogenic
b. Cardiogenic
c. Psychogenic
d. Metabolic

Answer 21

d. Metabolic

The loss of body fluids due to severe heat or severe vomiting causes metabolic shock. Metabolic shock can occur with severe overheating (being left in a closed car on a ho day) or when someone is severely sick with diarrhea and vomiting, losing important hydration. Signs include: pale, gray skin; weak pulse; increased RR; and diminished LOC

Neural traumas, such as TBI or SCI cause neurogenic shock. MI or cardiac arrest causes cardiogenic shock. Emotional stress causes psychogenic shock.

Question 22

A destructive lesion on the cortex’s occipital lobe could cause which of the following?

a. Decreased ability to localize sounds
b. Visual agnosia
c. Body scheme disorders
d. Unstable emotions

Answer 22

b. Visual agnosia

A destructive lesion on the cortex’s occipital lobe could cause visual agnosia, as well as cause impairment of vision and perceptual impairment.

A decreased ability to localize sounds is caused by a destructive lesion on the cortex’s temporal lobe. Body scheme disorders can be caused by a destructive lesion on the cortex’s parietal lobe. Unstable emotions can be caused by a destructive lesion on the cortex’s frontal lobe.

Question 23

When using superficial thermotherapy, PTs can used a convection heat transmission modality. Which of the following is an example of a convective modality?

a. Hubbard tank (Warm water tank)
b. Infrared lamp
c. Hot packs
d. Paraffin

Answer 23

a. Hubbard tank (Warm water tank)

A Hubbard tank is an example of a convective modality. The large tank is designed for immersion of the patient’s trunk and/or extremities to perform underwater exercise, muscle relaxation and even wound debridement. Convection is the transfer of heat using the movement of air or fluid from a warmer area to a cooler area.

An infrared lamp is an example of radiation heat transmission. Hot packs and paraffin are examples of conductive heat transmission.

Question 24

A PT is performing the distraction test on a patient to identify DJD in the c-spine. What symptom indicates a positive test?

a. Excessive sway in standing
b. Decrease in upper limb pain
c. Pain and paresthesia in the involved dermatomal pattern
d. Soft end feel or patient experiencing dizziness

Answer 24

b. Decrease in upper limb pain

The disttraction test indicates compression of neural structures at the IVF or facet joint dysfunction. To perform the distraction test, the pt should be sitting with head passively distracted. The test is deemed positive if the patient experiences a decrease in the neck of UE pain during the test.

The transverse ligament stress test is positive if the examiner notices a soft end feel or the patient becomes dizzy or nauseous. The Romberg test is positive if the patient displays excessive sway. The foraminal compression test is positive if the patient experiences pain and paresthesia in the involved dermatomal pattern.

Question 25

PTs are responsible for controlling infections by following appropriate sterilization and disinfection guidelines. Any object that is introduced to a patient’s body must be sterilized. Which of the following sterilization methods utilizes water that is heated to 212*F in order to kill organisms that do not form spores?

a. Ionizing radiation
b. Boiling water
c. Dry heat
d. Autoclaving

Answer 25

b. Boiling water

Boiling water is a sterilization method that is utilized to kill organisms that do not form spores. Water is considered boiling once its temperature reaches 212*F.

Autoclaving is a sterilization method that is not recommended for heat-sensitive articles, as it utilizes heat and water pressure to sterilize instruments. Ionizing radiation is a sterilizing method that is utilized to sterilize plastics, sutures and some medications. Dry heat is a sterilization method that is utilized to sterilize instruments by using prolonged, high heat exposure in an oven.

Question 26

You are working in a sub-acute setting and want to examine your patient’s cognitive function. How would you test your patient’s recent memory function?

a. By asking the patient to name the elementary school that he attended
b. By asking the patient to name what he ate for dinner the previous evening
c. By asking the patient to name three things that had been discussed in the last ten minutes
d. By asking the patient to name the city in which he was born

Answer 26

b. By asking the patient to name what he ate for dinner the previous evening

An examiner can assess a patient’s recent memory by asking the patient to name what he ate for dinner the previous evening. Recent memory tests are conducted in order to assess a patient’s short-term memory and their ability to recall recent events and information.

An examiner can assess a patient’s immediate recall by asking the patient to name 3 things tat have been discussed in the last ten minutes.
An examiner can assess a patient’s remote memory, or long-term memory, by asking the patient to name the city in which he was both or by asking the elementary school

Question 27

An examiner noticed that a patient’s skin color has changed from its normal appearance to a yellow hue. This skin color change could indicate which of the following?

a. Anemia
b. CHF
c. Jaundice
d. Advanced lung disease

Answer 27

c. Jaundice

Yellowing of skin could indicate that the patient has jaundice. Yellowing of skin could also indicate liver disease.

Cyanosis (bluish or grayish) of skin could indicate that the patient has CHF or advanced lung disease. Pallor, or lack of color, of skin could indicate anemia.

Question 28

You are examining a patient with complaints of SI joint pain. Which special test is utilized by a PT to identify SI joint dysfunction that may be caused by a functional LLD?

a. Ipsilateral anterior rotation test
b. Long-sitting test
c. Gillet’s test
d. Goldthwait’s test

Answer 28

b. Long-sitting test

The long-sitting test is utilized by PTs to identify SI joint dysfunction that may be caused by a functional leg discrepancy. The long sitting test is deemed positive when limb lengths are reversed between sitting and supine positions.

The ipsilateral anterior rotation test is conducted in order to assess the anterior movement of a patient’s ilium in relation to the sacrum. Gillet’s test is performed in order to assess the posterior movement of a patient’s ilium in relation to the sacrum. Goldthwait’s test is performed in order to differentiate between SI joint dysfunction and lumbar spine dysfunction.