Delia's cards Flashcards
A PT is performing the vertebral artery test on a pt. What does this special cervical test assess?
a) upper Cervical spine ligament integrity
b) cervical nerve root dysfunction
c) vertebrobasilar vascular system integrity
d) facet dysfunction
C
Arterial ulcers can be found on an individual’s lower leg, but they are most commonly found on bony areas. Which of the following is not a cause associated with arterial ulcers?
a) Atheroembolism
b) Arteriosclerosis
c) Chronic arterial insufficiency
d) Peripheral neuropathy
D
Peripheral neuropathy is not associated with causing arterial ulcers. Peripheral neuropathy is associated with causing diabetic ulcers.
Arteial ulcers can be caused by:
a) Atheroembolism
b) Arteriosclerosis
c) Chronic arterial insufficiency
Arterial ulcers generally cause severe pain tropic changes and can cause gangrene to the adjacent skin.
The epidermis is the skin’s outer, most superficial layer? Which of the following does the epidermis skin layer contain?
a) five layers
b) contains hair follicles
c) composed of three layers
d) Contains Blood vessels
A
The epidermis is a skin layer that contains five layers itself. These are: stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale.
The epidermis does not contain blood vessels; however the dermis layer does contain blood vessels and hair follicles.
The subcutaneous tissue (hypodermis) layer contains loose connective tissue.
In regards to GI pain patterns, a PT should know that visceral pain from the diaphragm, liver or pericardium can refer to which of the following?
a) the scapular and mid back region
b) the midback
c) the lower back, pelvis or sacrum
d) the shoulder
D
A PT should know that visceral pain from the diaphragm, liver or pericardium can refer to the shoulder.
- A PT should know that visceral pain from the esophagus can refer to the midback;
- from the gallbladder, pancreas, small intestine or stomach can refer to the scapular and midback region;
- from the appendix, colon, or pelvic viscera can refer to the lower back, pelvis or sacrum.
when a pt suffers from an elbow burn the common deformity is pronation and flexion. Which of the following PT goals should be stressed?
a) pronation
b) supination and extension
c) dorsifelxion
d) elbow flexion
B
The pt’s elbow should be placed in a posterior arm splint and positioned in extension.
Hyperextension is the PT goal that should be stressed when a pt has an anterior neck burn. Extension should also be stressed when a pt has a knee burn. Dorsiflexion should be stressed when a pt has an ankle burn.
The GI tract extends from the mouth to the anus and is divided into upper, middle and lower GI tract. Which of the following make up the middle GI tract?
a) small intestine
b) large intestine
c) salivary, gland, liver and panacreas
d) mouth, esophagus and stomach
A
small intestine makes up the middle GI. It is where the body’s main digestion and absorption process take place.
The mouth, esophagus and stomach make up the upper GI. The large intestine makes up the lower GI
The salivary gland, liver and pancreas are the accessory organ that aid the GI in digestion.
The brainstem contains the midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata. which of the following functions does the medulla oblongata perform?
a) Connection of the pons to the cerebrum
b) connection of the cerebral hemispheres with other segments of the spinal cord and brain
c) connection of the spinal cord to the pons
d) connection of the various segments of the cerebral hemispheres.
C
medulla oblongata connects the spinal cord with the pons. It plays a vital role as it contains the vasomotor, respiratory and cardiac centers, which are vital body functions.
the midbrain is responsible for the connection of the pons to the cerebrum. Projection fibers, white matter located centrally in the brain, are responsible for the connection of the cerebral hemispheres with other segments of the spinal cord and brain. Association fibers, also white matter located centrally in the brain, are responsible for the connection of various segments of the cerebral hemispheres.
If a pt has tight extensors or weak hip flexors, it could cause which of the following?
a) limited hip extension during stance
b) excessive hip flexion during stance
c) excessive knee flexion during stance
d) limited hip flexion
D
Tight extensors and weak hip flexors can cause limited hip flexion.
Spastic or tight hip flexors can cause limited hip extension. Weak hip extensors, tight hip flexors, tight knee flexors can cause excessive hip flexion, Weak quads or knee flexion contracture can cause excessive knee flexion.
If you are assessing the volume of gas that an individual inhales during a normal breath, what type of volume are you assessing?
a) expiratory reserve volume
b) Inspiratory reserve volume
c) residual volume
d) tidal volume
D
the volume that that and individual inhales (or exhales) during normal breath = tidal volume
The volume of gas that an individual can inhale beyond his/her normal tidal inhalation = respiratory reserve volume.
The volume of gas that an individual can exhale beyond his/her normal tidal exhalation = expiratory reserve volume.
The volume of gas that remains in the ind’s lungs after the expiratory reserve volume has been exhaled, you are assessing the indiv’s residual volume.
During swing phase, common gait deviations include insufficient forward pelvic rotation. This is the result of which of the following?
a) spastic plantar flexors
b) weakened abdominal muscles
c) weakened peroneals
d) delayed contraction of dorsiflexors
B
Insufficient forward pelvic rotation occurs during swing phase as a result of weakened abdominal muscles or weakened flexor muscles.
Varus is a common gait deviation that occurs during swing phase as a result of weakened peroneals. Foot drop is a common gait deviation that occurs during swing phase as a result of spastic plantar flexors or delayed contraction of dorsiflexors.
The Rib Spring test is a thoracic special test that is used to evaluate a pt’s rib mobility. in order to perform this test, which position must the pt be in at the beginning of the test?
a) sitting
b) supine
c) prone
d) standing
C
Once the prone test is done, the pt will need to be positioned side-lying in order to complete the rib springing test. If excessive rib movement, rib restriction, or pain is found during the test, it is deemed positive.
The other options are incorrect because only a prone and side-lying position is used for this test.
In regards to the gait cycle, which of the following is active during the heel strike, in order to control a varying amount of knee flexion for shock absorption?
a) knee extensors
b) anterior tibialis
c) extensor digitorum longus
d) extensor hallucis longus
A
The heel strike occurs at the beginning of stance phase and at the end of swing phase.
The anterior tibialis, extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus are ankle dorsiflexors that are active between heel strike and foot flat in order to decelerate the foot.
When a pt has a full-thickness or subdermal burn, skin grafting is often necessary for the closure of the wound. if a skin grafting is conducted using skin from the actual pt, what type of graft was done?
a) cultured skin graft
b) xenograft
c) allograft
d) autograft
D
An allograft is conducted using skin from another human. A xenograft is conducted using skin from another species, such as pig. A cultured skin graft uses skin that is grown in the lab from the pt’s own skin.
Various heart sounds can indicate different heart conditions. Which heart sound may indicate that an individual has CHF?
a) S2
b) S3
c) S1
d) S4
B
The S3 heart sound occurs immediately after S2 and is associated with ventricular filling.
The S1 and S2 are normal heart sounds, as S1 indicates mitral and tricuspid valve closure and S2 indicates aortic and pulmonary valve closure. The S4 can indicate that an indiv. has an MI, chronic hypertension, coronary heart disease, or aortic stenosis.
If a test results in excessive anterior glide of the tibia, which of the following special knee tests is used?
a) McMurry’s
b) Lachman’s stress test
c) Hughston’s plica test
d) Posterior Drawer
B
Lachman’s stress test is deemed positive when there is excessive anterior glide of the tibia. It is used to indicate the ACL’s integrity.
McMurry is deemed positive when it can reproduce a click or a pin in the knee joint. Hugston’s plica test is deemed positive when a popping sound is noted during the test. The ballotable patella test is deemed positive when there is a perception that the patella is floating.
The human kidneys consist of over one million nephrons, and each of those nephrons consist of a glomerulus. Each glomerulus is responsible for which of the following?
a) movement of urine
b) filtration of blood and nephron tubules
c) drainage of the kidney into the lower urinary tract
d) collection of urine
B
The renal pelvis is responsible for the drainage of the kidney into the lower urinary tract. The bladder is responsible for the collection of urine. The ureter is responsible for the movement of urine.
When assessing a pt, the examiner notices that the pt’s complex movement is impaired due to weakened muscle association. This is best described by which of the following terms?
a) dysarthria
b) dysmetria
c) dysdiadochkinesia
d) dyssynergia
D
Dyssynergia occurs when an individual’s complex movement is impaired due to a weakened muscle association.
Dysmetria occurs when an individual’s ability to judge ROM or distance is impaired.
Dysdiadochokinesia occurs when an indiv’s ability to partake in rapid alternating movements is impaired .
Dysarthria occurs when an indiv’s speech production is impaired due to central or peripheral nervous system damage.
A PT is working with a pt who suffers from excessive hip flexion. The PT knows that excessive hip flexion can be a result of which of the following?
a) weak hip flexors
b) tight hip or knee flexors
c) weak gluteus medius
d) weak dorsiflexor
B
Tight hip or knee flexors can cause excessive hip flexion.
Weak hip extensors can also cause excessive hip flexion.
Tight or spastic hip flexors can cause limited hip extension. Weak hip flexors can cause limited hip flexion. A weak gluteus medius can cause lateral trunk bending.
The Modified Ashworth Scale is a scale that contains six grades for spasticity. if there is no increase in muscle tone, what grade would the pt’s spasticty receive?
a) 1
b) 1+
c) 0
d) 2
C
0 if there isn’t an increase in muscle tone.
A 1 would be awarded to a slight increase in muscle tone, if the pt showed minimal resistance at end ROM.
A 1+ = a slight increase in muscle tone if the pt showed minimal resistance through less than half of the ROM.
A 2 if the affected part is easily moved and there is a noticeable difference in muscle tone through the ROM
In regards to endocrine system, which of the following is responsible for the release of androgens?
a) kidneys
b) ovaries
c) testes
d) thyroid
C
Tested release androgens or testosterone.
Ovaries control the release of progesterone and estrogen. Kidneys are responsible for controlling the release of 1,25 - dihydroxy-vitamin D. Thyroid controls the release of Thyroxine and triiodothyronine.
A pt who uses a quad cane is being assessed using the Modified Emroy Functional Ambulation Profile Scale, which is an assessment that measures the time it takes to walk utilizing 5 environmental challenges. What will this pt’s recorded time by multiplied by?
a) 5
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3
C
If pt utilizes a quad cane or a hemiwalker, the recorded walking time will be multiplied by 4. The five environmental challenges of the scale are: stairs, up and go, obstacles, carpet and floor.
If the pt does not use an assistive device, walking time is multiplied by 1. If the pt uses an AFO, walking time is multiplied by 2. If the pt uses a single-point cane, walking time is multiplied by 3. It the pt uses an AFO and a single-point cane, walking time is multiplied by 5.
A PT is working with an OT and a Speech therapist to coordinate a pt’s physical therapy within the hospital. The practice environment in which this pt is most likely being cared for is which of the following?
a) Tertiary care
b) Subacute Care
c) Secondary Care
d) Primary Care
B
Subacute care is provided within the hospital or Skilled Nursing Facility. A subacute care practice environment is one in which the pt is too fragile to be cared for at home and his/her care is provided by physicians, nurses and rehabilitative personnel ( Speech, OT)
Tertiary care is provide in a hospital setting, however it is provided by highly specialized physicians. Secondary care can be provided in a hospital setting, however it is provided by medical specialists. Primary care is provided on a outpatient basis by primary care physicians or family practice physicians.
The dermis is the skin’s inner layer that is primarely composed of elastin fibrous connective tissues and collagen. Which of the following cells is not included in the dermis skin layer?
a) Langerhans
b) Lymphocytes
c) Macrophages
d) Fibroblasts
A
Langerhans cells are not include in the dermis skin layer; however they are included in the epidermis skin layer.
The cells that are included in the dermis skin layer are fibroblasts, macrophages, lymphocytes and mast cells. The dermis skin layer also contains sweat glands, sebaceous glands, hair follicles, nerves, nerve endings, lymphatics and blood vessels.
What is the role that a Pt should take during the reconditioning phase of PT in occupational health?
a) A focus on functional training in order to increase the pt’s ability to perform tasks.
b) A focus on vigorous therapeutic exercises in order to increase the pt’s endurance.
c) A focus on the pt’s ability to return to work by performing an objective functional capacity evaluation.
d) A focus on the containment and stabilization of the pt’s injury.
B
During the reconditioning phase of PT in occupational health a PT should focus on vigorous therapeutic exercises in order to increase the pt’s endurance.
During the acute phase of PT on occupational health, a PT should focus on the containment and stabilization of the pt’s injury.
During the post acute phase of PT on occupational health, a PT should focus on functional training in order to increase the pt’s ability to perform tasks.
During the return to work phase of PT on occupational health, a PT should focus on the pt’s ability to return to work by performing an objective functional capacity evaluation.
When a pt’s respiratory rate increases at a rate greater than or equal to 22 breaths per min, the pt has which of the following:
a) orthopnea
b) hyperpnea
c) bradypnea
d) tachypnea
D
When a pt’s respiratory rate decreases at a rate less than or equal to 10 breath per min. the pt has bradypnea. Hyperpnea occurs when a pt’s depth and rate of breathing increases. Orthopnea occurs when a pt is not able to breath when in a supine or reclining position.
In order to improve the healing potential of a wound’s surrounding tissue, it is sometimes neceassry to perform an autolytic debridment procedure. Which of the following best describes an autolytic debridmet?
a) A selective debridment method that uses occlusive or semi-occlusive dressing to solubilize necrotic tissue.
b) A selective debridment method that uses sterile instruments to remove only necrotic wound tissue and may require anesthesia.
c) A selective debridment method that uses physical forces to remove contaminated tissue.
d) A selective debridment method performed by a surgeon using sterile instruments to remove most necrotic tissue and may require anesthesia.
A
Mechanical debridment is a non-selective debridment that uses physical forces to remove necrotic tissue.
Sharp debridment is a selective debridment method that uses sterile instruments to remove only necrotic wound tissue and does not require anesthesia.
Surgical debridment is a selective debridment method performed by a surgeon using sterile instruments to remove most necrotic tissue and may require anesthesia.
Which of the following diagnostic procedures is useful for identifying changes in a pt’s tissue density?
a) Computed tomography
b) subacute setting
c) outpatient setting
d) skilled nursing facility
A
I think the rest of the options were listed incorrectly, but here is the explanation (of what it should have been)
A CT uses narrow x-ray beams to exactly measure slices of the brain, therefor a Ct is used for identifying changes in a pat’s tissue density.
A ventriculography is useful when a pt has increased intracranial pressures.
MRI is useful for presenting a high resolution brain image.
An echoencephalogram is useful for detecting carotid artery plaque and analyzing carotid artery flow.
A pt has a pressure ulcer that is presenting as an abrasion on the skin. Which stage of severity is this pt’s pressure ulcer?
a) Stage IV
b) Stage I
c) Stage II
d) Stage III
C
Pressure ulcers are staged based on the stage of their severity. stage II - when there is partial - thickness skin loss that involves the epidermis and/or dermis skin layers and presents as a blister, abrasion or shallow crater.
A stage I pressure ulcer occurs when the skin is fully intact, is nonblanchable, may have a temperature change (cool or warm) and may have sensation (itching or pain).
A stage III pressure ulcer occurs when there is full thickness skin loss that involves subcutaneous tissue damage and presents as a deep crater.
A stage III pressure ulcer occurs when there is full thickness skin loss that involves tissue necrosis and damage to supporting structures, bone or muscle.
Which of the following spacial SIJ tests is performed by PT in order to assess the anterior movement of a pt’s ilium in relation to the sacrum?
a) Gillet’s test
b) Ipsilateral Anterior rotation Test
c) Goldthwait’s test
d) Gaenslen’s test
B
The ipsilateral anterior rotation test is deemed positive when there is no posterior superior iliac spine movement identified compared to the sacrum.
Gillet’s test is performed in order to assess the posterior movement of a pt’s ilium in relation to the sacrum.
Gaenslen’s test is performed in order to identify SIJ dysfunction.
Goldthwait’s test is performed in order to differentiate between SIJ dysfunction and lumbar spine dysfunction.
A PT has a pt in the supine position with the legs resting on the table in order to identify if the pt’s neurological structures are functioning correctly. Which special lumbar test is the PT performing?
a) Babinski test
b) McKenzie’s side glide test
c) Lasegue’s test
d) Valsalva’s maneuver test
C
Lasegue’s test is a special lumbar test that is performed with the pt in the supine position and is used to identify if the pt’s neurological structures that supply his lower limbs are functioning correctly. If the PT is able to reproduce the pt’s pathological neurological symptoms while his/her foot is dorsiflexed, then the test is deemed positive.
vlasalva’s maneuver test is used to identify space-occupying lesions.
The Babiski test is used to identify UMN lesions.
McKenzie’s side glide test is used to differentiate between neurological dysfunction and scoliotic curvature that causes the trunk to have abnormal curvature.
A PT assessed a pt using the Berg Balance Scale and determined that the pt was at a high risk with a score of a 44 on the assessment. Which of the following best describes what the Berg Balance Scale examines?
a) Functional Balance
b) Dynamic Gait
c) Maximal distance a person can reach froward
d) Level of self-confidence when performing daily functional tasks.
A
The Berg Balance Scale examines a pt’s functional balance. It utilizes 14 metrics, which include standing on one leg, tandem stand, stepping up, turning 360 degrees, head turning, picking objects off the floor, forward reach, feet together, transfers, stand to sit, sit to stand, and unsupported sitting. The maximum score for this assessment is a 56. If the pt scores less than 45 he/she is at a high risk for falls.
Dynamic gait is examined using the DGI and the Functional Gait Assessment.
The pt’s level of self confidence when performing daily functional tasks is examined using the Balance Efficacy Scale.
The maximal distance that a person can reach forward is examined using the Functional Reach assessment and the Multidirectional Reach Test.
Levers are the rigid surface rotations of an axis. One type of lever is the first class lever, which transpires when there are two forces that are directed to either side of the axis. Which of the following is an example of a first class lever?
a) The flexion of one’s knee
b) The raising of one’s toe
c) The flexion of one’s elbow
d) The contraction of triceps at one’s elbow joint
D First class levers have an effort that tries to cause movement and a resistance that opposes the movement.
The raising of one's toe is an example of a second class lever which transpires when there are two forces that are directed to only one side and the resistance is between the effort force and the rotation of the axis . The flexion of one's elbow or one's knee are examples of a third class lever, which transpires when there are two forces that are directed to only one side of the axis and the effort force is closer to the axis than it is to the resistance force.
Which of the following medication is used for the prevention of MI and to decrease platelet aggregation?
a) aspirin
b) tranquilizers
c) diuretics
d) Beta-adrenergic blocking agents
A
Tranquilizers are used to decrease anxiety levels and for sympathetic effect.
Diuretics are used to decrease myocardial work and to control hypertension.
Beta-adrenergic blocking agents are used to reduce myocardial demand, to reduce blood pressure, to control chest pain and arrhythmias.
Which special hip test would most likely be used to identify hip dysfunctions, such as restrictions in mobility?
a) Craig’s test
b) Piriformis Test
c) Patrick’s (FABER) Test
d) Ober’s Test
C
Patrick;s test is deemed positive when the pt’s knee is unable to return to a relaxed position.
Piriformis test is a special hip test used to identify Piriformis Syndrome.
Ober’s test is use to identify IT Band tightness or tensor fascia latae tightness.
Craig’s test is used to identify an abnormal femoral antetorsion angle.
A PT is providing therapy to a pt who has had a hemipelvectomy. Which of the following best describes the pt’s level of amputation?
a) an amputation of the entire lower limb with the lower half of the pelvis resected
b) an amputation above the elbow
c) an amputation below the knee
d) an amputation of both lower limbs with the pelvis below the L4 and L5 level.
A
A hemipelvectomy is an amputation of the entire lower limb with the lower half of the pelvis resected.
A hemicorporectomoy is an aputation of both lower limbs with the pelvis below the L4 and L5 level.
A transhumeral amputation is above the elbow.
A transtibial amputation is below the knee.
Burns have 5 different classifications based on the severity of the burn and the layers of skin that are damaged . If a burn completely destroys the epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous tissues, how is the burn wound classified?
a) Deep partial-thickness burn (second degree)
b) full-thickness burn
c) epidermal burn (first degree)
d) superficial partial-thickness burn (second degree)
B
A full-thickness burn may or may not involve the muscle. This type of burn requires the removal of eschar and skin grafting, which makes scarring likely.
An epidermal burn is a burn that only does damage to the epidermis skin layer.
A superficial partial-thickness burn is a burn that does damage to the epidermis and the upper layer of the dermis skin layer.
A deep partial-thickness burn is a burn that severely damages the epidermis and dermis skin layers and causes damage to the sweat glands, hair follicles and nerve endings.
Diverticular disease is an intestine disorder caused by the formation of pouch-like herniations on the colon. If an individual suffers from diverticular disease, he /she may experience which of the following?
a) lower left quadrant pain
b) lower right quadrant pain
c) bowel obstruction
d) tenderness in the anterior hip, groin or thigh regions
A
Peritonitis may cause an individual to experience severe abdominal pain.
Appendicitis may cause an individual to experience lower right quadrant pain.
Constipation may cause an individual to experience tenderness in the anterior hip, groin or thigh regions.
Bilateral losses of epicritic, pressure, proprioception and vibration sensations are characteristics of which of the spinal cord injury?
a) Posterior Cord Syndrome
b) Anterior Cord Syndrome
c) Central Cord lesion
d) Brown Sequard Syndrome
A
Posterior cord syndrome is an upper motor neuron spinal cord injury that is also characterized by bilateral dorsal column loss.
The Brown Sequard syndrome is characterized by the hemisection of the spinal cord.
A central cord lesion is characterized by central cord cavitation in the cervical section.
Anterior cor Syndrome is characterized by the bilateral loss of pain and temperature with spinothalamic tract loss.
The stance phase and the swing phase are the two phases that make up the gait cycle. Which of the following happens at the beginning of stance phase.
a) toe off
b) foot flat
c) heel off
d) heel strike
D
Heel strike is when the heel of the supporting limb touches the ground. The stance phase uses both double limb support and single limb support.
The actions of the stance phase fall in the following order: heel strike, foot flat, mid stance, heel off and toe off.
Spastic paralysis below the lesion and the loss of the anterior cord are characteristics of which of the following spinal cord injuries?
a) anterior cord syndrome
b) central cord lesion
c) Brown -Sequard Syndrome
d) Posterior Cord Syndrome
A
Anterior Cord Syndrome is an upper motor neuron spinal cord injury that is also characterized by the bilateral loss of pain and temperature with spinothalamic tract loss.
The Brown Sequard syndrome is characterized by the hemisection of the spinal cord
Posterior cord Syndrome is characterized by bilateral dorsal column loss.
A central cord lesion is characterized by central cord cavitation in the cervical section.
If a PT wanted to identify ligament laxity or restriction within a pt’s wrist and hand, which Special Test would the PT most likely use?
a) Two-point Discrimination test
b) Ligamentous instability Test
c) Bunnel -Littler Test
d) Tight Retinacular Test
B
The Ligamentous instability Test is a special wrist and hand test that is used to identify ligament laxity or restriction within one’s wrist and hand. This test is primarily used to find laxity, but it may also help to identify pain.
The Two-point Discrimination test is a special wrist and hand test that is performed to identify the level of sensory innervation within the hand that correlates with grasping.
The Bunnel -Littler Test is a special wrist and hand test that is performed to identify the tightness of structures that surround the MCP joints.
The Tight Retinacular Test is a special wrist and hand test that is performed to identify tightness around the proximal interphalangeal joints.
