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RRPA Pharmacology II > Table 1a: Summary of Antibacterial Agents > Flashcards

Table 1a: Summary of Antibacterial Agents Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mechanism of action of penicllins?

A

cell wall synthesis inhibition (stage 3)

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2
Q

Are penicillins bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

bactericidal

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3
Q

Penicillin G and Penicillin V covers what spectrum of bacteria?

A

Gram + cocci (staph, strep, entero)
Gram - cocci (M. catarrhalis)
Gram + rods
Most anerobes (not Bacteriodes)

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4
Q

What drugs would you consider using on a penicillinase producing MSSA infection?

A

Penicillinase-resistant class (oxacillin, dicloxacillin, nafcillin)
Beta-lactamase inhibitors (Amox/clav, pip/tazo)

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5
Q

What are the extended spectrum penicillins?

A

Amoxicillin, ampicillin

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6
Q

Extended spectrum penicllins cover what bacteria?

A

Gram - rods (H. flu, E. coli, Proteus)

Gram + cocci (but not as well as Pen G/ Pen V)

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7
Q

What Penicillin covers pseudomonas?

A

Pip/tazo

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8
Q

How are most penicllins excreted?

A

Renal excretion

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9
Q

What are the adverse reactions to penicillins?

A

Anaphylaxis (rare)
Rash (common)
Convulsions at very high doses

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10
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cephalosporins?

A

Cell wall synthesis inhibition (stage 3)

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11
Q

Are cephalosporins bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

bactericidal

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12
Q

What are the 1st generation cephalosporins?

A

Cephalexin, cephradine, cefazolin

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13
Q

What are the 2nd generation cephalosporins?

A

Cefaclor, cefuroxime, cefoxitin

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14
Q

What are the 3rd generation cephalosporins?

A

Cefdinir, cefotaxime, ceftriaxone

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15
Q

What is a 4th generation cephalosporin?

A

Cefepime

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16
Q

1st generation cephalosporins cover what bacteria?

A

Gram + cocci, gram - rods

most anaerobes

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17
Q

2nd generation cephalosporins cover what bacteria?

A

Gram - rods (better than 1st gen coverage of gram - rods)

Most anaerobes

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18
Q

3rd generation cephalosporins cover what bacteria?

A

Gram - rods, moderate pseudomonas activity

most anaerobes

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19
Q

What gen of cephalosporins has good CNS penetration?

A

3rd generation

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20
Q

Which generation of cephalosporins has the best gram + cocci coverage

A

1st>2nd>3rd

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21
Q

Which generation of cephalosporins has the best gram - rod coverage?

A

3rd>2nd>1st

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22
Q

What cephalosporin covers for N. gonorrheoeae?

A

ceftriaxone

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23
Q

Which 3rd generation cephalosporin covers pseudomonas?

A

Ceftazidime

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24
Q

What is the mechanism of action of vancomycin?

A

Cell wall synthesis inhibition (stage 2)

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25
Q

Is vancomycin bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

bactericidal

26
Q

Vancomycin covers what bacteria?

A

Narrow spectrum gram + cocci (MRSA, enterococci)

Anaerobes including C. diff

27
Q

How are most cephalosporins excreted?

A

Renal excretion

28
Q

How is vancomycin excreted?

A

Renal excretion

29
Q

What is the mechanism of action for the carbapenems?

A

Cell wall synthesis inhibition (stage 3)

30
Q

What type of bacteria would be appropriate to treat with carbapenems?

A

Multidrug resistant organisms

31
Q

How are carbapenems excreted?

A

renal excretion

32
Q

Are carbapenems bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

Bactericidal

33
Q

Which drugs are macrolides?

A

Azithromycin, erythromycin, clarithromycin

34
Q

Mechanism of action of macrolides?

A

Protein synthesis inhibition (50S)

35
Q

Are macrolides bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

Bacteriostatic

36
Q

Macrolides cover for what bacteria?

A

Gram + cocci
Gram + rods
Some gram - rods
Atypical bacteria: mycoplasma, chlamydia pneumonia

37
Q

Macrolides concentrate in what part of the body?

A

Lungs

38
Q

pharmacokinetics of azithromycin, erythromycin, and clarithromycin?

A

azithromycin: biliary
Erythromycin: liver metabolism
Clarithromycin: active metabolite

39
Q

Which macrolides have a lot of drug drug interactions and why?

A

Erythromycin and clarithromycin because they are inhibitors of P450 metabolism

40
Q

What drugs are the tetracylines?

A

Tetracycline, doxycycline, minocycline

41
Q

Mechanism of action of tetracyclines?

A

Protein synthesis inhibition of 30S ribosomes

42
Q

Tetracyclines bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

bacteriostatic

43
Q

Tetracyclines cover for what bacteria?

A

MRSA
atypical: chlamydia, mycoplasma
Broad spectrum gram +/- but resistance is common

44
Q

contraindications to tetracylcines?

A

Pregnancy or age <8y.o.

45
Q

Why are tetracyclines contraindicated in pregnant patients and children <8y.o.

A

Causes abnormal bone/tooth development

46
Q

Excretion of tetracycline, doxycycline, minocycline?

A

tetracycline: renal

Doxy/minocycline: non-renal

47
Q

Tetracyclines have drug drug interactions with what?

A

metal cations in stomach such as antacids, iron

48
Q

Mechanism of action of clindamycin?

A

Protein synthesis inhibition of 50S ribosomes.

49
Q

Is clindamycin bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

bacteriostatic

50
Q

Clindamycin covers for what bacteria?

A

Gram + cocci, MRSA

Anaerobes, but not C. diff

51
Q

What are the aminoglycosides?

A

Tobramycin, gentamycin, neomycin, streptomycin.

52
Q

Mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?

A

Protein synthesis inhibition of 30S ribosomes

53
Q

Are aminoglycosides bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

Bactericidal

54
Q

Aminoglycosides cover what bacteria?

A

Gram - aerobes (E. coli, pseudomonas)

55
Q

Linezolid is what class of antibacterial?

A

Oxazolidinone

56
Q

Mechanism of action for Linezolid

A

Protein synthesis inhibition of 50S ribosomes

57
Q

Is linezolid bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

Bacteriostatic (except strep, its bactericidal for strep)

58
Q

Linezolid covers for what organisms?

A

Excellent gram + coverage (staph, strep, entero, MRSA, anaerobes, rods)

59
Q

When is use of linezolid acceptable?

A

Multi drug resistant organisms

60
Q

What 4 abx are renally exreted?

A 
Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Vancomycin
Aminoglycoside
Tetracycline (not doxy or mino)
61
Q

What are the DCRIMES abx that are non-renal excretion?

A 
Doxycycline
Clindamycin
Rifampin
Isoniazid
Metronidazole
Erythomycin-like (not azithro)
Sulfa

RRPA Pharmacology II (23 decks)

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