T or F: Communication and Veterinary Professional Support Services Flashcards

1
Q

T or F: Compulsive behaviours in pets include actions performed repetitively and out of context

A

True
They are often due to stress, anxiety, or underlying behavioural issues. Ex. are excessive grooming, tail chasing, paw licking, etc

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2
Q

T or F: Adolescent testing in animals refers to the phase when young animals test boundaries, often seen as rebellious behaviour.

A

True
Young animals often test boundaries during adolescence, manifesting as challenging or rebellious behaviour. Educating clients to know the age at which their pet is in adolescence is vital for training, as it is important to understand these boundaries are being tested and to not punish these actions negatively. Positive reinforcement, patience, and training are recommended during this phase.

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3
Q

T or F: Physical development in animals includes stages such as the neonatal period, transition period, and socialization period

A

False
These are stages of behavioural development, not physical development. Behavioural development includes the neonatal period (first few days of life), the transition period (when animals start to gain some independence), and the socialization period (when animals are most receptive to learning about their environment). Physical development would include growth, dentition, reproductive development, etc

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4
Q

T or F: Territorial aggression in dogs is triggered when they perceive an intruder in their territory, such as their home or their yard

A

True
Territorial aggression can manifest when a dog perceives someone or something as an intruder in its territory, leading to behaviours like growling, barking, or even biting. It’s important for owners to understand the signs of territorial aggression and to take steps to prevent their animals from being territorial.

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5
Q

T or F: Fear-induced aggression in dogs occurs when they feel trapped or threatened.

A

True
Fear-induced aggression can manifest when a dog feels cornered or threatened, leading to snarling, snapping, or biting behaviours. Educating owners on positive training and desensitization is important to prevent fear aggression in their pets. If aggression occurs, especially in young dogs, it’s vital to get proper training to prevent the aggression from progressing, and even medications may be required to prevent fear and anxiety.

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6
Q

T or F: Negative reinforcement involves introducing an unpleasant stimulus to reduce a undesired behaviour

A

False
Negative reinforcement involves removing an unpleasant stimulus when the desired behaviour is performed. The “negative” in the phrase doesn’t refer to punishment but to the removal of a stimulus as opposed to the addition of one. The technique described in the question is positive punishment as a stimulus is added. In negative punishment, a positive stimulus is removed in response to an undesired behaviour.

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6
Q

T or F: The socialization period in puppies typically occurs between 3-14 weeks of age.

A

True
The socialization period is a critical time when puppies are most receptive to learning about their environment, other species, and their own species. This period is generally between 3-12 weeks, but some breeds can stay in this period until 14 weeks. It’s important to educate owners on the importance of this socialization period, as it is vital to an animal’s development. However, puppies should be properly vaccinated and treated with parasite prevention before socializing with any new animal to prevent disease.

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7
Q

T or F: Separation anxiety in pets is characterized by behaviours such as excessive barking, destruction, and inappropriate elimination when left alone.

A

True
When left alone pets with separation anxiety may exhibit signs like whining, baring, or howling. They may also engage in destructive behaviours or urinate or defecate indoors. Separation anxiety can sometimes be treated with desensitization and training but sometimes may require medication.

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8
Q

T or F: Human foods are typically safe for pets and can be promoted as a useful reinforcement tool during training

A

False
Certain human foods are toxic to pets. Chocolate, grapes, raisins, onions, and garlic are some examples of foods that can be harmful to dogs and cats. Avoiding human food is the best way to avoid toxins for animals.

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9
Q

T or F: Hydration isn’t as crucial for cats since they don’t drink as much water as dogs.

A

False
Hydration is vital for all pets. While cats don’t drink as much water as dogs, they still need adequate hydration. Wet cat food can help provide additional moisture in their diet.

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9
Q

T or F: All life stages of pets, from puppies and kittens to senior animals, have the same nutritional requirements

A

False
Different life stages of pets have varying nutritional needs. For instance, puppies and kittens require more protein and certain nutrients for growth, while senior animals might have different caloric and nutritional needs based on their activity level and health status. It is important to communicate these needs to clients as their pet develops to meet their changing needs

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10
Q

T or F: Certain medical conditions, such as diabetes and kidney disease, may be treated with prescription diets.

A

True
Prescription diets are specially designed to manage or treat specific medical conditions such as kidney disease, urinary issues, or obesity. Examples of veterinary prescription diets include Hill’s and Royal Canin

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10
Q

T or F: Supplements should only be given to pets if prescribed or recommended by a veterinarian.

A

True
While some supplements can benefit pets, it’s essential to consult with a veterinarian to ensure they’re safe and the appropriate dose for the individual animal.

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11
Q

T or F: Pets with specific medical conditions, like kidney disease, might benefit from a specialized diet

A

True
Certain medical conditions can be managed or improved with specialized diets. For instance, pets with kidney disease might benefit from a diet lower in protein and phosphorus.

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12
Q

T or F: All commercial pet foods meet the basic nutritional requirements of pets

A

False
While many commercial pet foods are formulated to meet general nutritional standards, the quality and nutritional value can vary. It’s essential to choose high-quality pet foods and consult with a veterinarian about the best options for individual pets.

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13
Q

T or F: It’s always safe to give pets a raw food diet as long as it’s from a trusted source.

A

False
Raw food diets can pose risks such as bacterial contamination. It’s essential to consult with. veterinarian before making significant changes to a pet’s diet.

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13
Q

T or F: Overweight pets are at a risk of developing conditions like diabetes, heart disease, and arthritis.

A

True
Obesity in pets can lead to various health issues, including diabetes, heart disease, and joint problems like arthritis. It’s vital for owners to understand the decrease in quality of life when an animal is obese, and the lifelong risks associated with weight. Encouraging animals to be active and to eat only their required daily calories is essential for a long and healthy life.

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14
Q

T or F: It’s safe to feed cats a vegetarian or vegan diet as longas they get the right supplements.

A

False
Cats are obligate carnivores, meaning they require certain nutrients found primarily in animal-based sources. A vegetarian or vegan diet can lead to deficiencies unless very carefully managed, and it’s generally not recommended without veterinary guidance.

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15
Q

T or F: It’s essential to educate clients about the risks and side effects of procedures to promote the health of the animals and ensure the safety of the client.

A

True
Educating clients about potential risks and side effects is crucial for informed decision-making and ensuring the animal’s well-being and the client’s safety.

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16
Q

T or F: A pre-anesthetic assessment is only necessary for certain patients undergoing anesthesia

A

False
Pre-anesthetic assessment is vital to determine the animal’s health status and any potential risks before undergoing anesthesia. This must be performed for all patients undergoing anesthesia

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17
Q

T or F: Anesthetic maintenance does not require monitoring

A

False
Continuous monitoring during anesthetic maintenance is crucial to ensure the animal’s safety and make necessary adjustments

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18
Q

T or F: If administered properly, al anesthetic medications are free from side effects and interactions

A

False
Like all medications, anesthetic drugs can have side effects and potential interaction with other medications. These risks are present even when drugs are administered properly.

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19
Q

T or F: pain assessment port surgery is NOT optional and ALWAYS necessary

A

True
Pain assessment post-surgery is essential to ensure the animal’s comfort and well-being

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19
Q

T or F: Dental health is part of client education

A

True
Dental procedures, including cleaning and preventative measures, are essential components of procedural education

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20
Q

T or F: Diagnostic imaging procedures only include radiography

A

False
Diagnostic imaging encompasses various techniques, including radiography, ultrasonography, and contrast studies

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21
Q

T or F: Professional ethics in veterinary medicine are subjective and vary widely

A

False
There are established professional ethics, such as the Veterinary Technician Code of Ethics, that provide guidelines for conduct in the profession

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22
Q

T or F: Communicating with the client should be prioritized over communicating with the veterinary medical team

A

False
Effective communication with both the veterinary medical team and the client is crucial for optimal patient care and smooth operations

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23
Q

T or F: Record keeping in veterinary medicine is not only for administrative purposes but impacts patient care

A

True
Accurate and timely record keeping is essential for tracking patient history, treatments, and outcomes, directly impacting patient care

24
Q

T or F: Zoonotic diseases can only be transmitted from mammals to humans

A

False
Zoonotic diseases can be transmitted to humans from various animals including reptiles and insects

25
Q

T or F: Rabies is a bacterial infection transmitted through the bite of an infected animal

A

False
Rabies is caused by the Rhabdovirus and is transmitted primarily through the bite of an infected animal

25
Q

T or F: Salmonellosis can be contracted by humans through the ingestion of contaminated water or food, and reptiles are a common source

A

True
Salmonellosis is cased by the Salmonella spp., and reptiles are known carriers that can transmit the bacteria to humans

26
Q

T or F: Ringworm is caused by a worm parasite

A

False
Ringworm, or dermatophytosis, is a fungal infection caused by Microsporum spp. or Trichophyton spp. Its misleading name refers to the circular rash that appears on infected skin, sometimes resembling a curled worm

26
Q

T or F: Lyme disease is a fungal infection transmitted by ticks

A

False
Lyme disease is caused by the spirochete bacteria Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted to humans via tick bites

27
Q

T or F: Psittacosis, also known as parrot fever, is transmitted to humans through inhalation of infected bird droppings

A

True
Psittacosis is caused by Chlamydia psittacosaurus and can be transmitted to humans by inhaling dust from infected bird droppings or secretions

28
Q

T or F: Leptospirosis is primarily transmitted through contact with infectious saliva

A

False
Leptospirosis is caused by Leptospira spp. and is primarily transmitted through contact with infectious urine or ingestion of contaminated water

29
Q

T or F: All zoonotic diseases are fatal to humans without prompt treatment

A

False
While some zoonotic diseases can be severe or fatal, many can be treated, and not all are life-threatening

30
Q

T or F: Proper hand hygiene and avoiding contact with wild animals are effective preventive measures against many zoonotic diseases

A

True
Hand hygiene and avoiding unnecessary contact with wild animals can significantly reduce the risk of zoonotic disease transmission

31
Q

T or F: Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by a virus

A

False
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by the bacterium Rickettsia rickettsii

32
Q

T or F: Non-verbal communication, such as body language and tone of voice, plays no role in effective communication

A

False
Non-verbal communication, including body language and tone of voice, plays a significant role in conveying messages and emotions

33
Q

T or F: Maintaining open postures, like avoiding crossing arms, can make a conversation feel more welcoming and open

A

True
Open postures can make individuals appear more approachable and receptive, fostering better communication

34
Q

T or F: It’s often necessary for veterinary professionals to use jargon when explaining medical procedures to clients

A

False
While jargon might be understood within the medical community, it’s essential to use clear and simple language when communicating with clients to ensure understanding

35
Q

T or F: Active listening includes interrupting the client only to ask clarifying questions

A

False
Clarifying questions is an important part of active listening, but not interrupting is important as well. Questions, summarizing, and rephrasing are key components of active listening that can wait until the client is done speaking. Active listening involves fully concentrating, understanding, and responding to what the client is saying, not just hearing the words.

35
Q

T or F: Feedback from clients is not essential for improving communication skills

A

False
Feedback from clients can provide valuable insights into areas of improvement and affirm effective communication strategies

36
Q

T or F: Electronic Health Records (EHR) are solely for the purpose of billing and have no role in communication

A

False
EHRs ensure accurate and timely documentation, which is crucial for communication within the veterinary team and clients

37
Q

T or F: Telemedicine can be used for both emergency and non-emergency consultations in veterinary medicine

A

False
While telemedicine is a valuable tool, it’s typically used for non-emergency consultations. Immediate physical examination might be necessary in emergencies

38
Q

T or F: Role playing scenarios are an ineffective way to practice and improve communication skills

A

False
Role-playing can be a valuable tool for practicing communication skills, allowing individuals to simulate real-life scenarios and receive feedback

39
Q

T or F: Confidentiality is not an important consideration when discussing a pet’s medical condition with other staff members

A

False
Confidentiality is crucial in all medical professions, including veterinary medicine. While details of a pet’s medical condition must be shared with staff members relevant to the case, discussions about a pet’s condition should be done professionally and discreetly.

40
Q

T or F: Staying updated by subscribing to veterinary communication journals can enhance a professional’s communication skills

A

True
Continuous learning and staying updated with the latest research and techniques can significantly improve communication skills and overall professionalism

41
Q

T or F: Signalment refers to the specific symptoms an animal is displaying

A

False
Signalment refers to animal’s identification details, such as species, breed, age, sex, and colour

42
Q

T or F: The primary complaint is the main reason the owner has brought the animal to the clinic

A

True

43
Q

T or F: Medical history is essential if the animal is visiting the clinic for the first time

A

True

44
Q

T or F: It’s unnecessary to note any behavioural changes when collecting patient information

A

False

44
Q

T or F: Dietary history only includes the type of commercial food the animal consumes

A

False
Should encompass everything the animal consumes

45
Q

T or F: The environment in which the animal lives, such as indoor, outdoor, or both, is relevant to their medical assessment

A

True

46
Q

T or F: Only current medications need to be documented, not those taken in the past

A

False

47
Q

T or F: Travel history is relevant for any animal that has travelled internationally

A

True

48
Q

T or F: reproductive status, such as whether the animal is neutered or intact, has no bearing on medical conditions

A

False

49
Q

T or F: When collecting patient information, it’s essential to ask about any exposure to toxins or potential hazards

A

True

50
Q

T or F: Euthanasia is always a last resort option and is only considered when all other treatments have failed

A

False

50
Q

T or F: In extreme cases, consent from the pet owner is not always necessary before performing euthanasia

A

False

51
Q

T or F: Aftercare refers to the handling of the animal after euthanasia

A

True

52
Q

T or F: Grief management is only the responsibility of the pet owner and not the veterinary team

A

False

53
Q

T or F: It’s inappropriate for veterinary staff to show emotions or express condolences during the euthanasia process

A

False

54
Q

T or F: Euthanasia is designed to be as quick and painless as possible when performed correctly

A

True

55
Q

T or F: It’s unnecessary to explain the euthanasia process to pet owners as it might upset them further

A

False

56
Q

T or F: Memorializing a pet through keepsakes or ceremonies can be a part of the healing process for some pet owners

A

True

57
Q

T or F: The decision for euthanasia should be rushed to minimize the emotional distress of the pet owner

A

False

58
Q

T or F: After euthanasia, it’s essential to provide pet owners with resources or referrals for grief counselling or support groups

A

True