Pharmacology Flashcards by Sinead Phillips

A six-month-old collie comes into your clinic for a technician exam and deworming. What antiparasitic drug should be used with caution in this breed?
A Ivermectin
B Pyrantel pamoate
C Fenbendazole
D Sulfadimethoxine

A Ivermectin

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Which of the following classes of antimicrobials is bacteriostatic?
A Penicillin
B Cephalosporins
C Polymyxins
D Sulfanoamides

D Sulfanoamides
Disrupts the folic acid pathway that produces precursors for DNA synthesis

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Which of these is an effective drug to induce emesis in the dog?
A Magnesium hydroxide
B Apomorphine
C Azathioprine
D Cefpodoxime

B Apomorphine

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What does it mean for a drug to be classified?
A The drug has abuse potential as determined by determined by the US Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)
B The drug has been compounded outside of the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved drug label
C The drug has been used extra-label
D The drug had a brand name and is not available in generic form

A The drug has abuse potential as determined by the determined by the US Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)

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Which drug treats hypothyroidism?
A Levofloxacin
B Methimazole
C Theophylline
D Levothyroxine

D Levothyroxine

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Which animals should never receive acetaminophen?
A Dogs
B Cattle
C Cats
D Chinchillas

C Cats

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Antivenin is typically given in case of which of the following?
A Toxin ingestion
B Congestive heart failure
C Vomiting
D Snake bite

D Snake bite

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Proparacaine is used for
A Ocular anesthesia
B Increasing tear production
C Causing pupillary constriction
D Causing pupillary dilation

A Ocular anesthesia
Numbs the eye, “Caine” like lidocaine

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Which of the following drugs is used as a euthanizing agent?
A Pentobarbital sodium
B Phenobarbital
C Oxymorphone
D Fentanyl

A Pentobarbital sodium

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Which of the following is an expected side effect of atropine?
A Sedation
B Inhibition of excessive salivation
C Pupillary constriction
D Bradycardia

B Inhibition of excessive salivation
Cause pupillary dilation, stimulant, a competitive antagonist of muscarinic cholinergic receptors

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An adrenergic drug mimics the
A Parasympathetic nervous system
B Sympathetic nervous system
C Cardiovascular system
D Skeletal system activity

B Sympathetic nervous system
Sympathetic = fight or flight = adrenaline = adrenergic

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Which of the following routes of administration would give a drug the highest bioavailability?
A Subcutaneous
B Topical
C Sublingual
D Intravenous

D Intravenous

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Insulin is available in which of the following concentrations?
A U-40
B U-20
C U-50
D U-120

A U-40

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A 55 lb dog is to receive furosemide at 1mg/kg. Furosemide has a concentration of 40mg/ml. How much should be drawn up for one dose?
A 6 ml
B 1.6 ml
C 0.63 ml
D 1.33 ml

C 0.63 ml

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Which of the following drugs can help stimulate appetite?
A Benzodiazepine
B Morphine
C Sedative
D Spasmolytic

A Benzodiazepine
Diazepam and oxazepam may suppress the satiety center in the hypothalamus by increased GABA activity. Can be used primarily in cats for short term stimulation of appetite, effect is contriversial

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Which drug could be used to decrease intracranial pressure?
A Mannitol
B Ivermectin
C Phenobarbital
D Propofol

A Mannitol
Osmotic diuretic, reduces intraocular and intracerebral pressures

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Which of the following medication’s effects cannot be reversed by another drug?
A Diazepam
B Phenobarbital
C Hydromorphine
D Medetomidine

B Phenobarbital
No reversal agent (antagonist) for barbiturates

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Which of these drugs should not be used in dogs?
A Phenylephrine
B Morphine
C Ivermectin
D Propofol

A Phenylephrine
Found in human cold and cough medicines and is toxic to dogs

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Valium is often given with ketamine to provide which effect?
A Increased cardiac contractility
B Increased muscle tone
C Increased heart rate
D Muscle relaxation

D Muscle relaxation

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The veterinarian has a note that says “PO t.i.d”. What does the veterinarian’s note mean?
A By mouth three times per day
B By mouth four times a day
C Intravenously three times per day
D Intravenously twice daily

A By mouth three times per day

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Of the following, which drug is considered an aminoglycoside?
A Cephalexin
B Doxycycline
C Enrofloxacin
D Amoxicillin
E Gentamicin

E Gentamicin
Aminoglycoside’s have a -micin or a -mycin suffix in the chemical name

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A drug with a high therapeutic index
A A high toxicity level
B A low toxicity level
C Numerous side effects
D Numerous benefits

B A low toxicity level
Therapeutic index compares therapeutically effective dose to the toxic dose of a drug

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A drug is used for it gastrointestinal antiprotozoal and antibiotic effects in dogs is
A Metronidazole (Flagyl)
B Amoxicillin with clavulanic acid (Clavamox)
C Cefpodoxime (Simplicef)
D Doxycycline (Vibramycin)

A Metronidazole (Flagyl)

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Which of the following drugs is the most commonly used as both a tranquillizer and sedative in veterinary medicine for large and small animals?
A Acepromazine
B Methadone
C Dormosedan
D Hydromorphone

A Acepromazine

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All of the following drugs can be reversed EXCEPT A Dexmedetomidine B Diazepam C Hydromorphone D Carprofen

D Carprofen Is an NSAID and has no reversal agent

Which of the following is linked to the use of diuretic drugs? A Slow respiration rate B Increased heart rate C Retain water D Increase urine production

D Increased urine production

A dog presents to the emergency hospital for status epilepticus. Which of the following drugs may be given for this condition? A Propofol B Atropine C Ketamine D Diphenhydramine

A Propofol Continuous seizing, propofol causes CNS depression so can act as an anticonvulsive

Which of the following is an emetic? A Apomorphine B Metoclopramide C Diphenoxylate D Loperamide

A Apomorphine

Common side effects of NSAIDs include A Polydipsia and polyurea B Gastrointestinal irritation and ulceration C Mydriasis, antiemetics, and diarrhea D Suppression of mast cell degranulation

B Gastrointestinal irritation and ulceration

Which of these antibiotic choices is bacteriostatic? A Enrofloxacin B Cephalexin C Penicillin D Doxycycline

D Doxycycline Tetracycline bacteriostatic agent that prevents bacteria from producing

How does a systemic antacid such as cimetidine act on the stomach? A Treats defects in the stomach lining B Protect the stomach lining C Neutralizes stomach acid D Prevents the production of hydrochloric acid

D Prevents the production of hydrochloric acid

An example of a drug used for its antiprotozoal effect is A Albendazole in sheep with Haemonchus sp. B Epsiprantel in dogs with Echinococcus sp. C Ponazuril in horses with Sarcocystis sp. D Fipronil in dogs with Ixodes sp.

C Ponazuril in horses with Sarcocystis sp. Known as equine protozoal myelitis, ponazuril = antiprotozoal

What adverse reaction can occur in cats given metaclopramide? A Cyanosis B Dilated and fixed pupils C Aggressive behaviour D Heart failure

C Aggressive behaviour Antiemetic, can cause nervous, jittery, or aggressive behaviours are rare side effects

Which chemotherapy drug is contraindicated for use in cats? A L-Asparaginase B Cisplatin C Vincristine D Doxorubicin

B Cisplatin platin = neoplastic; causes pulmonary toxicity in cats. Remember "Cisplatin splats cats"

Which of the following drugs is used to synchronize estrus in cows? A Norgestomet B Oxytocin C Diethylstilbestrol D Amprolium

A Norgestomet Estrogen steroid hormone (estradiol) for estrus and ovulation synchronization in cattle

Ketaconazole can cause toxicity to which of the organs or tissues listed? A Liver B Retinas C Pancreas D Kidney

A Liver

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a drug with a narrow therapeutic index? A It only takes a small amount of the drug to become toxic B The minimal effective dose is close to the toxic dose C It will become toxic to the kidneys only at high doses D The toxic dose will kill 50% of animals treated

B The minimal effective dose is close to the toxic dose

All of the following are treatment options for hyperthyroidism EXCEPT A Thyroidectomy B Methimazole C Radioactive iodine treatment D Synthetic T3

D Synthetic T3 Hyperthyroidism = increased T3 and T4 production, no synthetic T3 is needed

Propranolol is a cardiovascular drug of which category? A Calcium channel blocker B Beta-blocker C ACE inhibitor D Venous dilator

B Beta blocker -olol = beta blocker

Fluids routinely used to correct metabolic acidosis include A 0.9% saline B Hypertonic saline C LRS D 50% dextrose

C LRS Contains lactate, converted onto bicarbonate by the liver, increasing blood pH

Which of the following over-the-counter medications treats diarrhea? A Loperamide B Famotidine C Simethicone D Diphenhydramine

A Loperamide Active ingredient in Imodium

Which of the following medications can lead to toxicity administered to a Border Collie? A Pyrantel B Ivermectin C Fenbendazole D Cephalexin

B Ivermectin

Antihistamines are used for respiratory conditions and work due to the Reduction of bronchial spasms Decrease in the viscosity of secretions Suppression of coughing Prevention of mast cell degranulation

Prevention of mast cell degranulation Reduce histamine release from degranulating mast cells associated with allergic asthma

Which of the following nervous system drugs can cause paradoxical excitability and/or disinhibition of aggression? Diazepam Selegiline Sertraline Phenobarbital

Diazepam Benzodiazepines can cause paradoxical excitability and/or aggression

Guaifenesin is a smooth muscle relaxant used for Nebulization to increase respiratory mucous secretion viscosity Large animal anesthesia and expectoration of respiratory secretions Control of arrhythmias caused by anticholingerics Positive inotropic effects on the heart

Large animal anesthesia and expectoration of respiratory secretions

Which of the following cardiac drugs can be used transdermally by topical application to exposed skin on dogs? Pimobendane Enalapril Nitroglycerine Digitalis

Nitroglycerine Must be applied topically onto exposed, non-haired portions of the dog's skin. Vasodilator that relaxes smooth muscle and is used in emergency treatment of congestive heart failure in dogs

Which of the following medications is gven prior to anesthesia to control the nervous system simulation? Atropine Diazepam Itraconazole Erythromycin

Atropine Administered to block the effect of the nervous system impulses (acetylcholine) receptors throughout the body. Blocks the undesirable effects of nervous system stimulation

Which of the following is NOT an effect of anticholinergic drugs? Slowing the heart rate Drying secretions Dilating the pupil Slowing gastrointestinal motility

Slowing the heart rate Anticholinergic drugs increase the heart rate

Which of the following medications is commonly found over the counter (OTC)? Doxycycline Pimobendan Hydrocodone Meclizine

Meclizine also Dramamine which is an OTC antihistamine

Ketoconazole works by which of the following mechanisms? Inhibition of nucleic acid production Disruption of the development of the microbial cell walls Damaging the cell membrane in static/adult populations Interference with microbial protein synthesis

Inhibition of nucleic production Antimicrobial, kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms. It inhibits the nucleic acid synthesis in fungi.

Pilocarpine is a cholingeric drug. Which of the following effects will it have on patients? Dilate the pupil Decrease salivation Promote tear production Decrease intestinal motility

Promote tear production Cholinergic agonist --> mimics acetylcholine within ANS --> Stimulate PNS (rest and digest) --> promotes saliva, tear, urine, and defecation production, constricts pupils and slows heart rates

A 5 week old kitten was treated for a severe laceration. Which antibiotic should NOT be used in this patient? Clindamycin Amoxicillin Cefazolin Enrofloxacin

Enrofloxacin Should not give Baytril to young animals due to risk of cartilage defects and impaired development of the skeletal system

Which statement about antimicrobial drugs is true? Each antimicrobial is only effective against one family of bacteria Almost all antimicrobials have zero withdrawal times All penicillin antimicrobials must be given parenterally Improper dosing may lead to bacterial resistance

Improper dosing may lead to bacterial resistance

What is the most frequently observed side effect associated with acepromazine use in geldings? Seizures Arrhythmias Hypotension Respiratory difficulty

Hypotension Will reliably cause hypotension

Which of the following drugs is a bronchodilator used in horses for the treatment of heaves? Hydrocodone Dopram Diphenhydramine Clenbuterol

Clenbuterol Heaves is a common allergic respiratory disease that causes chronic cough, nasal discharge, and difficulty breathing, this is a common bronchodilator used in horses

Drugs used to correct hyperthyroidism in cats include Levothyroxine Liothyronine Estradiol Methimazole

Methimazole This and carbimazole are the only two approved drugs for the treatment of cats with hyperthyroidism

List, in order, the corresponding acronyms for: once daily, twice daily, three times daily, and four times daily q. 24 hr, BID, TID, QID q. 24 hr, BID, QID, TID BID, q. 24 hr, QID, TID TID, BID, q. 24 hr, QID QID, q. 24 hr, TID, BID

q. 24 hr, BOD, TID, QID

What two organs are most involved in drug metabolism and excretion? Kidneys and liver Pancreas and kidneys Small intestine and spleen Stomach and kidneys

Kidneys and liver

When two antimicrobials are mixed to create a greater bactericidal effect, the term used to describe the improved efficacy is Biotransformation Pharmacodynamics Inotropism Potentiation

Potentiation Has the potential to create a better bactericidal effect

Drugs that can cause abortions in farm animals include Diuretics such as chlorothiazide Corticosteroids such as dexmethasone Progestins such as altrenogest Antihistamines such as diphenhydramine and lortidine

Corticosteroids such as dexamethasone Cause abortion at certain stages of the pregnancy

What is the drug of choice for treating Tritrichomonas foetus in cats? Sulfasalazine Fenbendazole Metronidazole Ronidazole

Ronidazole It is a nitroimidazole antimicrobial that has mutagenic properties and should be handled as if it were a chemotherapeutic agent (off label use)

Which of the following is TRUE regarding drugs that anesthetize cows, pigs, and goats? They need much higher doses than animals such as horses and dogs They are more sensitive to anesthesia than other animals Milk could be contaminated by the drugs Sedation is always required

Milk could be contaminated by the drugs

Which of the following SSRI drugs is sued to treat dogs with anxiety and depressive disorders? Dapoxetine Selegiline Fluoxetine Buspirone

Fluoxetine

Which of the following drugs is NOT useful in the treatment of seizures? Propofol Barbituates Diazepam Butorphanol

Butorphanol Used as an antitussive, analgesic, or sedative

Which of the following is a potential long-term side effect of chronic corticosteroids? Hypothyroidism Bleeding Anorexia Diabetes

Diabetes Corticosteroids are naturally produced in adrenal glands. Potential to increase the overall blood sugar in a patient, could lead to diabetes mellitus.

Which of the following antibiotics should NOT be administered with dairy products? Doxycycline Amoxicillin Enrofloxacin Cephalexin

Doxycycline Calcium chelation, peak plasma concentration is diminished by 24%, leaving only 30% doxycycline to be absorbed

If you are monitoring an animal for signs of toxicity, including anorexia, vomiting, and diarrhea, which of the following drug was most likely administered? Furosemide Fenbendazole Metronidazole Digitalis

Digitalis Used to treat heart conditions. it has a very narrow therapeutic index and patients must be monitored for toxicity signs.

Types of antineoplastic drugs include ALL of the following EXCEPT Acidifying agents Alkylating agents Antimetabolites Antibiotics

Acidifying agents This is not a antineoplastic medication

Which of the following does NOT cause an expansion in the diameter of blood vessels? Furosemide Nitroglycerin Hydralazine Enalapril

Furosemide Loop diuretic that acts by blocking sodium reuptake in the loop of Henle portion of the nephrons. Does not cause expansion in the diameter of blood vessels

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS), also known as "dry eye," can result from the use of hich medication? Trimethoprim-sulfa (TMS) Enalapril Prednisone Cyclosporine

Trimethoprim-sulfa (TMS) Sulfanoamides can cause dry eye in some patients by disrupting tear production

The most toxic of the following ectoparasite drugs are Pyrethroids such as allethrin Ivermectins such as Ivormec Insect growth regulators such as Methoprene Organophosphates such as dichlorvos

Organophosphates such as chlorvos Extremely toxic to small animals and possibly a carcinogen in humans

What is the most common etiology of Clostridium botulinum, the toxin that causes botulism in cattle? Inhalation Trauma Ingestion Direct contact

Ingestion

Glycosaminoglycans and chondroitin sulphates are commonly used for veterinary patients with Congestive heart failure Chronic renal failure Chronic respiratory diseases Degenerative joint disease

Degenerative joint disease

In which of the following animals is enrofloxacin (Baytril) contraindicated? A 6 year old dog with a secondary skin infection A 12 week old dog with a dental abcess A 14 week old puppy with diarrhea An 11 year old horse with a bite wound

A 14-week-old puppy with diarrhea Contraindicated in young animals with developing cartilage

Select the options in which one of the drugs listed is used as a monthly heartworm preventative, and the other drug listed is an adulticide for the treatment of dogs with heartworm disease Milbemycin and melarsomine Ivermectin and milbemycin Melarsomine and doxycycline Pyrantel and ivermectin

Milbemycin and melarsomine

Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? Indication: approved use(s) of a drug Synergism: enhanced desired effects when two drugs are given in combination vs. each administered alone Extra-label use: using a drug when medical or physical conditions or symptoms make the drug inadvisable Tolerance: decreased effect of a drug over time

Extra-label use: using a drug when medical or physical conditions or symptoms make the drug inadvisable

Which of the following drugs should be used with extreme caution in ruminants? Xylazine Lidocaine Acepromazine Flunixin meglumine

Xylazine Alpha 2 adrenergic agonist is not approved for any species to be consumed for food purposes. Also very sensitive to xylazine and are also at risk of ileus in the GI tract.

Sucralfate and omeprazole re used in treating gastric ulcers. Which statement is TRUE regarding the mode of action of these drugs? Sucralfate works much like antacids by neutralizing stomach acid to increase gastric pH, while omeprazole adheres to damaged mucosa and creates a protective, bandage like barrier Sucralfate adheres to damaged mucosa and creates a protective, bandage like barrier, while omeprazole works much like antacids by neutralizing stomach acid to increase gastric pH Sucralfate acts on parietal cells to directly inhibit gastric acid secretion, while omeprazole adheres to damaged mucosa and creates a protective, bandage like barrier Sucralfate adheres to damaged mucosa and creates a protective, bandage like barrier, while omeprazole actos on parietal cells to directly inhibit gastric acid secretion

Sucralfate adheres to damaged mucosa and creates a protective, bandage like barrier, while omeprazole actos on parietal cells to directly inhibit gastric acid secretion