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T-6B > T-6B Closed Book MQF > Flashcards

T-6B Closed Book MQF Flashcards

1
Q

____altitude is the altitude at which 100% torque is no longer available.
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Critical
D. Flight

A

C. Critical

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2
Q

Although there is no limit for operation at maximum continuous power, sustained operation at maximum power may significantly reduce engine service life.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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3
Q

Maximum _______ speed is the maximum speed at which an abort may be started and the aircraft stopped within the remaining runway length.
A. Braking
B. Abort
C. Engine failure
D. Rotation

A

B. Abort

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4
Q

Increase takeoff speeds by ____% of the gust increment up to a maximum of 10 knots.
A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 100

A

B. 50

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5
Q

The engine has been flat rated to produce _______ shaft horsepower.
A. 900
B. 1100
C. 1300
D. 1500

A

B. 1100

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6
Q

The sight glass is ___ to be used for checking oil level; only the ___ is to be used for correct indication of oil level in the tank.
A. required, sight glass
B. authorized, low oil px light
C. not, dipstick
D. not, low oil px light

A

C. not, dipstick

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7
Q

The SCU activates the red OIL PX warning if oil pressure drops to ____ psi or below when above ____ power.
A. 15, IDLE
B. 15, 60%
C. 40, 60%
D. 40, IDLE

A

D. 40, IDLE

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8
Q

The SCU activates the red OIL PX warning if oil pressure drops ___ psi or below at idle power.
A. 15
B. 29
C. 40
D. 65

A

A. 15

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9
Q

9) During an auto start or normal operation with the ignition switch set to ____, the PMU will energize and de-energize the igniters as required.
A. ON
B. NORM
C. AUTO
D. AUTO/RESET

A

B. NORM

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10
Q

When the IGNITION switch is set to ON or when the igniters are activated for an auto start, a green IGN SEL annunciator is illuminated.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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11
Q

Power for the start control is provided through a circuit breaker, placarded START, located on the ____ bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit.
A. battery
B. generator
C. aux battery
D. AC

A

A. battery

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12
Q

Power for the ignition system is provided through a circuit breaker, placarded IGN, located on the ____ bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit.
A. battery
B. generator
C. aux batter
D. AC

A

A. battery

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13
Q

A chip detector is mounted in the ____ to detect ferrous material in the oil.
A. RGB
B. PCL
C. PMU
D. PIU

A

A. RGB

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14
Q

The ____ and the ____ automatically control the propeller blade angle (pitch) and propeller speed (NP).
A. RGB, PMU
B. PMU, PCL
C. PMU, PIU
D. PCL, PIU

A

C. PMU, PIU

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15
Q

The propeller system is designed to maintain a constant speed of _____ rpm (100% NP) during most flight conditions.
A. 30,000
B. 3000-5000
C. 2000
D. None of the above

A

C. 2000

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16
Q

If PMU function is lost or deactivated, NP may peak above 100% during power changes and then return to the governed range.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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17
Q

If the PCL is inadvertently moved to cutoff and the engine is shutting down, do not attempt to relight the engine by moving the PCL to idle or severe damage could occur to the engine
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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18
Q

The PMU operates in either flight or ground mode. The aircraft _____ control these modes.
A. radar altimeter
B. PCL position
C. Landing gear position
D. weight-on-wheels switches on the main gear struts.

A

D. weight-on-wheels switches on the main gear struts.

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19
Q

In ground mode, idle is ____% N1 and in flight mode, idle is ____% N1 (min).
A. 60, 67
B. 60-61, 67
C. 40-41, 60
D. 67, 60-61

A

B. 60-61, 67

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20
Q

Above _____ feet PA, the PMU raises N1 to maintain NP above __ % to avoid the stress on the propeller during spins.
A. 18,000, 40-50
B. 18,069, 67
C. 10,000, 80
D. None of the above

A

C. 10,000, 80

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21
Q

Illumination of both the ____ warning and ____ caution on the EICAS indicates the system is in manual mode.
A. PMU OFF, PMU FAIL
B. PMU FAIL, PMU STATUS
C. PMU OFF, PMU STATUS
D. None of the above

A

B. PMU FAIL, PMU STATUS

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22
Q

Engine starts are not recommended with the PMU in the manual mode.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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23
Q

A PMU STATUS caution in flight indicates:
A. Imminent engine failure
B. Weight-on-wheels switches fault and/or mismatch
C. PMU has experienced a fault not serious enough to revert to manual mode.
D. PCL retard is required

A

B. Weight-on-wheels switches fault and/or mismatch

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24
Q

24) The ______ powers the PMU when propeller RPM is above 40-50 % NP.
A. generator bus
B. permanent magnet alternator (PMA)
C. aux battery
D. battery bus

A

B. permanent magnet alternator (PMA)

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25
Q

25) If the auto balance system shuts off without reducing the fuel imbalance to ___ pounds or less, the auto balance system may be reset to provide an additional ___ minutes to balance the fuel load.
A. 20, 2
B. 50, 3
C. 110, 5
D. 30, 2

A

D. 30, 2

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26
Q

During inverted flight, a weighted rod in the pickup valve closes off the normal fuel pickup, and opens the inverted flight fuel pickup. This provides ____ of fuel regardless of orientation, and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system.
A. a minimum of 15 seconds
B. a minimum of 60 seconds
C. a maximum of 30 seconds
D. an unlimited

A

B. a minimum of 60 seconds

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27
Q

When correcting a fuel imbalance, set the MANUAL FUEL BAL switch to the low tank.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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28
Q

If a fuel probe fails, ____ will continue to provide an accurate indication of minimum fuel level.
A. the fuel gage
B. the auto balance
C. backup fuel indication system
D. the low fuel warning lights

A

D. the low fuel warning lights

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29
Q

The pilot applying the most pedal force determines the amount of braking being used.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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30
Q

If the hydraulic pressure in the emergency accumulator drops below ____ psi, an amber EHYD PX LO caution will illuminate.
A. 3000 (+/- 150)
B. 1790 (+/- 150)
C. 3250 (+/- 150)
D. 2400 (+/- 150)

A

D. 2400 (+/- 150)

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31
Q

A normal gear extension/retraction sequence takes approximately ____ seconds.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 10-15
D. 30

A

B. 6

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32
Q

Pulling the emergency landing gear extension handle will extend the gear and flaps.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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33
Q

Cockpit indications when the emergency extension system is used are:
A. three green gear lights
B. three red gear lights, red light in the gear handle
C. two red main gear lights, red light in the gear handle
D. A and C

A

D. A and C

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34
Q

The brake system ____ affected by a failure of the aircraft hydraulic system.
A. is
B. is not
C. could be
D. should be

A

B. is not

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35
Q

Normal flap operation and position indication is unavailable anytime:
A. the battery bus has failed
B. when the aux battery is the only source of electrical power
C. the generator bus has failed
D. either A or B

A

D. either A or B

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36
Q

The trim system control circuits give ____ priority if trim selection conflicts between cockpits.
A. the rear cockpit
B. the forward cockpit
C. the first actuation
D. whoever is in norm

A

A. the rear cockpit

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37
Q

The ____ senses engine torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate, and computes a desired rudder trim tab position.
A. trim computer
B. PMU
C. TAT
D. Trim Aid Device (TAD)

A

D. Trim Aid Device (TAD)

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38
Q

If the hydraulic reservoir fluid level indicator shows in the area labeled FULL AC or FULL AD:
A. have maintenance personnel service the system
B. the system requires servicing after the flight
C. the system is fully serviced
D. get another aircraft

A

C. the system is fully serviced

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39
Q

When flying solo, failure to secure the rear seat oxygen regulator will result in the loss of ability to:
A. deactivate OBOGS from the front seat
B. activate OBOGS from the front seat
C. eject from the front seat
D. select EMER oxygen from the front seat

A

A. deactivate OBOGS from the front seat

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40
Q

To preclude unnecessary wear to nose wheel steering and tire, ____ nose wheel steering prior to executing sharp turns with differential braking.
A. disengage
B. engage
C. fully deflect
D. none of the above

A

A. disengage

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41
Q

Do not delay ejection while attempting air-start at low altitude if below ____ feet AGL.
A. 500
B. 2000
C. 6000
D. 10,000

A

B. 2000

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42
Q

If the airstart is successful, useful power will be available after ____ seconds from starter engagement.
A. 10
B. 30
C. 40
D. 60

A

C. 40

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43
Q

The emergency oxygen bottle provides approximately ____ minutes of oxygen.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

A

B. 10

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44
Q

Illumination of the L or R FUEL LO caution indicates that approximately ____ pounds of usable fuel remains in the affected wing tank.
A. 150
B. 370
C. 110
D. 16

A

C. 110

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45
Q

Recommend minimum altitudes for ejection are ____ feet AGL for controlled ejection and ____ feet AGL for uncontrolled ejection.
A. 2,000, 10,000
B. 2,000, 6,000
C. 6,000, 10,000
D. None of the above

A

B. 2,000, 6,000

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46
Q

Maximum oil pressure during start is ____ psi.
A. 3
B. 45-65
C. 105
D. 200

A

D. 200

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47
Q

Do not connect external power if battery voltage is below ____ volts.
A. 20
B. 23.5
C. 28
D. 22

A

D. 22

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48
Q

Maximum airspeed for flying through turbulence is ____ KIAS.
A. 150
B. 207
C. 227
D. 316

A

B. 207

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49
Q

The maximum permissible crosswind for a wet runway is ____ knots.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

A

A. 10

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50
Q

Taxi over arresting cables at ____. Steer to avoid nose and main gear contact with cable support donuts.
A. 5 knots
B. Less than 20
C. as slow a speed as possible
D. 40 knots

A

C. as slow a speed as possible

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51
Q

The canopy shall not be opened on the ground when the surface winds exceed ____ knots.
A. 17
B. 25
C. 40
D. 50

A

C. 40

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52
Q

If the flaps are set to any position other than UP, the speed brake will:
A. remain extended if already extended
B. retract if already extended
C. remain retracted if the pilot attempts to extend it after the flaps are extended
D. B and C above

A

D. B and C above

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53
Q

Best glide speed in clean configuration is approximately ____ KIAS with a sink rate of ____ feet per minute and a glide ratio of 2.0 NM/1000 feet.
A. 125, 1350
B. 105, 1350
C. 125, 2000
D. 227, 600-800

A

A. 125, 1350

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54
Q

A stick shaker, activated by the angle-of-attack system, provides artificial stall warning in each cockpit a minimum of ____ knots before the stall is reached.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

A

A. 5

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55
Q

While landing gear position has little effect on the stall characteristics, extending the ____ aggravates the roll-off tendency at the stall.
A. speed brake
B. flaps
C. slats
D. student

A

B. flaps

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56
Q

Above ____ % torque, full right rudder and full right aileron may not prevent a left roll-off at stall.
A. 60
B. 6-8
C. 50
D. 33

A

A. 60

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57
Q

____ are the motions of the aircraft about one or more axes immediately following a stall and prior to the incipient spin.
A. steady-state spin
B. accelerated spin
C. post-stall gyrations
D. out of control flight

A

C. post-stall gyrations

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58
Q

A(n) ____ is characterized by oscillations in pitch, roll, and yaw attitudes and rates.
A. spiral
B. incipient spin
C. steady-state spin
D. post-stall gyrations

A

B. incipient spin

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59
Q

The incipient spin phase of the aircraft lasts approximately ____ turns.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

B. 2

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60
Q

A spiral is a rolling and/or yawing motion of the aircraft that is often mistaken for a spin, but is not steady-steady in that airspeed is ____ through 160 KIAS and motions are oscillatory.
A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. constant

A

A. increasing

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61
Q

Spins below 10,000 feet MSL are prohibited due to high stresses on the ____ which occur during the spin maneuver with the ____.
A. PMU, PCL above idle
B. propeller, propeller RPM below 80%
C. rudder, propeller RPM below 80%
D. propeller, propeller RPM above 80%

A

B. propeller, propeller RPM below 80%

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62
Q

Ailerons have a pronounced effect on spin characteristics.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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63
Q

With ailerons held in the direction of spin rotation, roll and yaw become noticeably oscillatory.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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64
Q

With aileron held full opposite to direction of spin rotation, roll and yaw oscillations are damped out and the spin appears to reach steady state in all axes.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

65
Q

Intentional inverted departures and spins are permitted.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

66
Q

During spin recovery, pitch control inputs well forward of neutral may result in ____.
A. a loss of oil pressure and engine damage
B. a spiral
C. faster recovery
D. A loss of your lunch

A

A. a loss of oil pressure and engine damage

67
Q

Controls neutral spin recoveries have been demonstrated and, generally, spin rotation will cease within ____ additional turns after neutralizing controls in each axis.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

B. 2

68
Q

68) During an erect spin recovery, spin rotation will abruptly cease with the aircraft in a steep nose-down attitude within ____ turns after applying controls.
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 2
D. 4

A

B. 1.5

69
Q

If rolling pullouts at greater than +2 G are uncoordinated, limit roll input to ____ lateral stick.
A. ½
B. full
C. aft and full
D. centered

A

A. ½

70
Q

Full rudder deflection above ____ KIAS will exceed the limits for the rudder control system.
A. 120
B. 110
C. 150
D. 105

A

C. 150

71
Q

The potential for lightning strikes increases near ____.
A. the ground
B. mountains
C. 1R8
D. the freezing level

A

D. the freezing level

72
Q

Flights through thunderstorms or other areas of extreme turbulence should be avoided due to the possibility of engine flameout, structural failure, or damage due to hail, lightning, and violent up/down drafts.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

73
Q

Hydroplaning can occur above ____ knots for the nose tire.
A. 80
B. 85
C. 90
D. 95

A

B. 85

74
Q

Hydroplaning can occur above ____ knots for the main tires.
A. 100
B. 105
C. 110
D. 115

A

D. 115

75
Q

Mishaps have occurred due to inadvertent lifting of PCL idle cut-off gate during flight.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

76
Q

The firewall shutoff handle mechanically operates cables that:
A. cut off fuel to the engine
B. cut off hydraulic fluid to the engine
C. cut off bleed air from the engine
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

77
Q

Auxiliary power is supplied by a ____ auxiliary battery, located in the left avionics compartment.
A. 24 VDC, 42 AMP
B. 28 VDC, 5 AMP
C. 24 VDC, 5 AMP
D. 28 VDC, 42 AMP

A

C. 24 VDC, 5 AMP

78
Q

Once extended, the speed brake remains extended until:
A. either speed brake switch is moved forward to retract
B. the flaps are extended
C. the PCL is moved to MAX
D. any of the above

A

D. any of the above

79
Q

The internal front and rear cockpit CFS handles operate the CFS explosives for only the respective transparency.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

80
Q

To avoid accidental activation of the canopy fracturing system, ensure CFS safety pin is installed and area around the CFS handle is clear prior to exiting the cockpit.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

81
Q

When the ISS mode selector is set to the BOTH position, gas signals transfer between seats, both seats eject, and the ____ seat(s) eject first regardless of which seat initiates the ejection.
A. both
B. front
C. rear
D. the activating

A

C. rear

82
Q

The first indication of icing may be the start of ice accumulation on the ___.
A. leading edge of the wing and vertical stabilizer
B. propeller blades
C. spinner and propeller blades
D. forward canopy bow and at the base of the windshield

A

D. forward canopy bow and at the base of the windshield

83
Q

The radar altimeter readout is only displayed when the radar altitude is < 2500 feet and the aircraft bank angle is < 30 degrees and the pitch angle is < 15 degrees up or down.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

84
Q

OBOGS operation with mask down or loose fitting may induce OBOGS fail warning.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

85
Q

The following fuel is not approved for NAVY T-6B aircraft.
A. JP-4
B. JP-8
C. Jet A-1
D. JP-8+100

A

D. JP-8+100

86
Q

With the ISS selector set to BOTH, both seats will eject if an unpinned ejection handle is pulled:
A. unless the other seat is pinned
B. even if the other seat is pinned
C. unless the canopy is open
D. none of the above

A

B. even if the other seat is pinned

87
Q

Landing gear retraction with the nose gear jack pad not properly stowed ____.
A. will not effect landing gear system operation
B. will disable the down-lock override and prevent gear retraction
C. may result in structural damage or landing gear malfunction
D. none of the above

A

C. may result in structural damage or landing gear malfunction

88
Q

Do not rotate the propeller by hand to reduce IOAT. Rotating the propeller without oil pressure can damage the ____. Slow and limited hand rotation of the propeller for inspection purposes is ____.
A. propeller, authorized
B. engine, not authorized
C. engine, acceptable
D. propeller, not authorized

A

C. engine, acceptable

89
Q

After turning the GENERATOR switch ON during the Before Taxi checklist, allow approximately ___ seconds before turning ON the AVIONICS MASTER switch to allow battery amperage to ___.
A. 5, decrease
B. 10, stabilize
C. 10, peak
D. 5, stabilize

A

B. 10, stabilize

90
Q

If nose wheel shimmy occurs after nose wheel contacts the runway:
A. execute full stop landing and do not engage nose wheel steering
B. apply forward pressure to increase weight on the nose wheel
C. apply back stick pressure to relieve the weight on the nose wheel
D. engage nose wheel steering to center nose wheel

A

C. apply back stick pressure to relieve the weight on the nose wheel

91
Q

When an airborne emergency occurs, which basic rule doesn’t apply?
A. Maintain aircraft control
B. Analyze the situation and take proper action
C. Expeditious execution of critical action items
D. Land as soon as conditions permit

A

C. Expeditious execution of critical action items

92
Q

The cockpit ____ depressurize when power to the battery bus is lost.
A. will
B. will not

A

A. will

93
Q

While stabilized at 125 KIAS in a clean configuration, if engine power is insufficient to produce a rate of decent less than 1500 ft/m:
A. add 500 ft to high, low, and base key altitudes
B. hold gear at high key until on profile
C. set PCL to OFF
D. execute immediate ejection

A

C. set PCL to OFF

94
Q

Normal oil pressure during steady state conditions is ____ psi.
A. 40-130
B. 90-200
C. 90-130
D. 90-120

A

D. 90-120

95
Q

Maximum takeoff weight is:
A. 6550
B. 6900
C. 6500
D. 4900

A

B. 6900

96
Q

When ejecting over mountainous terrain exceeding ____ feet MSL, the manual override (MOR) handle should be used to manually separate from the seat and deploy the parachute.
A. 2000
B. 6000
C. 8000
D. 9000

A

C. 8000

97
Q

Engine start should be aborted manually if:
A. PCL is moved or the ST READY green advisory message extinguishes during the start sequence
B. No rise of ITT is evident within 10 seconds after fuel flow indications (no start)
C. Red BATT BUS warning message illuminates during the start sequence
D. ITT appears likely to remain between 871-1000 degrees Celsius for >5 seconds
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

98
Q

Do not attempt a battery powered ground start if the battery voltage is below ____ volts.
A. 20
B. 23.5
C. 28
D. 22

A

B. 23.5

99
Q

Maximum ITT range for starting is ___-___ (5 seconds).
A. 750-820
B. 821-870
C. 871-1000
D. 10-105

A

C. 871-1000

100
Q

Clean symmetric acceleration limits are:
A. +2.5 to -3.5
B. +4.7 to -1.0
C. +7.0 to -3.5
D. +8.5 to -3.5

A

C. +7.0 to -3.5

101
Q

With gear and flaps extended, symmetric acceleration limits are:
A. +2.5 to 0.0
B. +2.0 to 0.0
C. +4.7 to -1.0
D. 1.0 to -1.0

A

A. +2.5 to 0.0

102
Q

Ground operation is limited to ambient temperatures of __ to __.
A. -23 deg C, +43 deg C
B. -23 deg C, +34 deg C
C. 0 deg C, +25 deg C
D. No limit

A

A. -23 deg C, +43 deg C

103
Q

The potential for an icing encounter exists anytime the aircraft is operated in visible moisture at outside air temperatures of ____ degrees C or below.
A. 5
B. 10-12
C. 0
D. 32

A

A. 5

104
Q

After an engine failure in flight and the PMU FAIL warning is illuminated, a ____ airstart is required.
A. PMU OFF
B. immediate
C. PMU NORM
D. none of the above

A

A. PMU OFF

105
Q

With the PMU off, the igniters will not automatically activate and must be selected manually.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

106
Q

Following a successful airstart the PCL should be advanced as required after N1 reaches ____.
A. 13 %
B. 4-6%
C. IDLE RPM (approximately 67%)
D. 54%

A

C. IDLE RPM (approximately 67%)

107
Q

During a spin, oil pressure may decrease below ____ psi with idle power.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40

A

D. 40

108
Q

After initial power-up, the OBOGS FAIL annunciator will be inhibited for ____ during OBOGS monitor warmup.
A. 10 minutes
B. 30 seconds
C. 4 minutes
D. 5 seconds

A

C. 4 minutes

109
Q

On engine starts, ensure the ST READY advisory remains illuminated for more than ___ seconds prior to selecting AUTO/RESET with STARTER switch.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

B. 3

110
Q

During the Overspeed Governor Check, after placing the PMU switch OFF, verify idle N1 stabilizes ______.
A. at 60% or above
B. between 60% and 70%
C. between 46% and 50%
D. at 67%

A

A. at 60% or above

111
Q

During a Circling Approach, minimum recommended speed prior to final approach is ___ KIAS with gear down and flaps set to TO.
A. 105
B. 110
C. 115
D. 120

A

C. 115

112
Q

The recommended airspeed for penetration through areas of known turbulence is ___ KIAS.
A. 150
B. 160
C. 180
D. 207

A

C. 180

113
Q

Final Turn airspeed for a no-flap landing is ___.
A. 115 KIAS
B. 120 KIAS
C. No slower than “on speed” AOA indication
D. Both B and C

A

D. Both B and C

114
Q

If mission requirements dictate an overnight stay and ground support equipment or personnel are not available, the pilot-in-command will be responsible for postflight and preflight inspections of the aircraft.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

115
Q

LDG flaps are not recommended during gusty wind conditions.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

116
Q

Oil level must be serviced within ___ minutes of engine shutdown.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 30

A

D. 30

117
Q

If the ST READY advisory extinguishes for any reason during the start sequence, the PMU will continue to provide automatic shutdown protection.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

118
Q

Failure to stow the _______ completely may prevent the flight controls from operating properly.
A. Ejection seat pin
B. Gust lock
C. HUD combiner cover
D. CFS pin

A

B. Gust lock

119
Q

If the ___________ fails, the TCAS will be inoperative
A. OBOGS
B. Radar Altimeter
C. UFCP
D. Transponder

A

B. Radar Altimeter

120
Q

Failure to ensure the ST READY light remains illuminated may result in engine damage due to loss of the automatic shutdown feature.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

121
Q

It is acceptable for N1 to make little or no change when turning off the PMU, as long as it is in limits.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

122
Q

With the Battery Bus inoperative, the most noticeable failures will be the ____ and the _____ and _____ MFD’s.
A. UFCP, center, left
B. HUD, left, center
C. UFCP, center, right
D. HUD, center, right

A

C. UFCP, center, right

123
Q

On the ground, IDLE torque is ___ to ___%
A. 60, 61
B. 46, 50
C. 1, 10
D. 0, 4

A

C. 1, 10

124
Q

The auxiliary battery power level may be tested by turning the ___ switch ON and then holding the AUX BAT test switch for a minimum of ___ seconds and ensuring the test light remains illuminated only while the switch is held on.
A. AUX BAT, 5
B. BAT, 3
C. BAT, 5
D. AUX BAT, 3

A

C. BAT, 5

125
Q

Do not touch the parking brake ___ when actuating or releasing the parking brake. Injury may result from the ___ along the handle shaft.
A. handle shaft, sharp edges
B. pads, hot brakes
C. handle shaft, brake indicator
D. indicator, hot brakes

A

A. handle shaft, sharp edges

126
Q

If the emergency accumulator is discharged, the EHYD PX LO caution will remain illuminated until the system pressurizes. Ensure light has extinguished prior to ___.
A. taxiing
B. starting the engine
C. raising the gear
D. flight

A

D. flight

127
Q

During normal operation of the landing gear, when ___ fully down and locked, the inboard doors close.
A. the main gear are
B. the nose gear is
C. the weight-on wheel
D. all 3 landing gear are

A

D. all 3 landing gear are

128
Q

If CFS handle actuation is known or suspected, do not close the canopy without inspection of the CFS ___ assemblies on the canopy sill for ___.
A. donor, optical detonators
B. receptor, optical detonators
C. receptor, firing plungers
D. donor, firing plungers

A

D. donor, firing plungers

129
Q

When the bleed air is turned on, an increase in airflow and cockpit pressure may occur as the environmental control system attempts to regulate the cockpit temperature.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

130
Q

Holding the AOA test switch to LOW and HIGH, sets the AOA indicators to ___ and ___, respectively.
A. 10.5, 18.0
B. 10-11, 17.5-18.5
C. 10.5+/-0.4, 18.0+/-0.4
D. 10, 18

A

C. 10.5+/-0.4, 18.0+/-0.4

131
Q

Which MFD mode receives the list of intruders from the TCAS and initially filters the top three intruders reported by the TCAS and then adds another filter within the selected altitude envelope?
A. FMS
B. TSD
C. NAV
D. PFD

A

B. TSD

132
Q

If the LOW BATTERY POWER system alert message is displayed during the FMS initial startup, POS/DATE/TIME will need to be manually entered at each startup, resulting in a partially capable FMS with degraded IAC performance.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

133
Q

Ensure both parachute riser/inertial reel straps are pulled out ____ and simultaneously to full extension. Attempting to test the locking ability of the straps ____ the harness reel velocity lock mechanism.
A. quickly, verifies
B. slowly, may damage
C. quickly, may damage
D. slowly, verifies

A

B. slowly, may damage

134
Q

Using external power during engine starts provides for lower ___ during engine starts and preserves ____.
A. start times, starter life
B. ITT, battery life
C. start times, battery life
D. ITT, starter life

A

B. ITT, battery life

135
Q

Proper checks of the OBOGS system during the Before Taxi checks requires placing the concentration lever to MAX, checking the light on, and returning the lever to NORMAL.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

136
Q

When checking the brake wear indicators, if an indicator reads low, ___ and re-check.
A. release parking brake
B. reset the parking brake
C. have maintenance service the brake hydraulic system
D. pump the brakes

A

B. reset the parking brake

137
Q

The descent check is intended to be executed prior to entering the terminal environment after aerobatics have been performed or after transiting greater than 100 nm.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

138
Q

Engaging the nose wheel steering during landing rollout may dampen nose wheel shimmy.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

139
Q

If engine power is insufficient to produce a rate of descent less than ___ ft/min, set PCL to OFF.
A. 1350
B. 1500
C. 1800
D. 2000

A

B. 1500

140
Q

BOOST PUMP switch – ON is a critical action memory item step for the Low Fuel Pressure emergency procedure.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

141
Q

Which of the following will cause the CHK ENG caution message to illuminate?
A. Oil pressure greater than 201 PSI
B. N1 is greater than 105%
C. RPM is greater than 106%
D. Hyd pressure is less than or equal to 1790 PSI

A

D. Hyd pressure is less than or equal to 1790 PSI

142
Q

If generator amperage or voltage is continuously outside 28.0 to 28.5 volts with the PCL at ___ while on the ground or in-flight, notify maintenance after the mission.
A. IDLE
B. 100% NP
C. 80% N1 or greater
D. 30% torque

A

C. 80% N1 or greater

143
Q

Maximum rate of descent at touchdown with tires serviced to normal landing conditions pressure (185+/-5 psi).
A. 600 ft/min (3.7 Gs)
B. 780 ft/min (5.1 Gs)
C. 1350 ft/min (6.9 Gs)
D. 1500 ft/min (7.3 Gs)

A

A. 600 ft/min (3.7 Gs)

144
Q

For the landing configuration and during the landing phase, with ice accumulation, approach speed must be increased by ___ KIAS.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

A

B. 10

145
Q

A spiral is often mistaken for a spin. Anti-spin controls may ___ effective in arresting a spiral and may actually ___ the situation.
A. not be, aggravate
B. be, alleviate
C. not be, alleviate
D. be, aggravate

A

A. not be, aggravate

146
Q

Spin entry attitudes greater than ___ degrees nose high may result in low oil pressure and engine ___.
A. 30, flameout
B. 40, fluctuations
C. 50, damage
D. 60, damage

A

C. 50, damage

147
Q

Intentional spins in other than cruise configuration at idle power are ___.
A. prohibited
B. not recommend
C. authorized
D. recommended

A

A. prohibited

148
Q

Sustained operation in icing conditions is ___.
A. prohibited
B. not recommended
C. authorized
D. recommended

A

A. prohibited

149
Q

When ITT is less than ___, the ITT gauge will display 0 deg C and ___ in black letters on a white background.
A. 5 deg C, ITT
B. 3 deg C, RITT
C. 0 deg C, RITT
D. -1 deg C, ITT

A

C. 0 deg C, RITT

150
Q

An amber ADS-B FAIL message on the EICAS display indicates _______.
A. The transponder is not operational
B. The ADS-B Out function of the transponder has failed
C. A requirement to land as soon as practical
D. TCAS has lost functionality

A

B. The ADS-B Out function of the transponder has failed

151
Q

During an immediate airstart, if N1 does not rise within ____ seconds, discontinue the airstart attempt.
A. 10
B. 5
C. 20
D. 40

A

B. 5

152
Q

When using the Emergency Oxygen System, it is normal for pressure to gradually decrease to the point it feels like the oxygen is depleted before reaching 10 minutes of use.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

153
Q

The MX-G advisory message illuminates in flight when one (or more) Over G event is captured in Over G log.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

154
Q

During the Overspeed Govenor Check, 100+2% Np should be reached between ___ and ___ % Torque.
A. 28, 35
B. 28, 32
C. 26, 34
D. 25, 35

A

D. 25, 35

155
Q

The top latch mechanism on the ejection seat shall be checked on preflight.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

156
Q

Use of emergency oxygen is required when OBOGS is lost and cabin pressure exceeds ______ feet pressure equivalent.
A. 22,000
B. 10,000
C. 6,000
D. 18,000

A

B. 10,000

157
Q

Most blown tires occur prior to tire spin-up or below ____ knots. Holding excessive brake pressure as the aircraft slows below ____ knots may result in locking the brakes and blown tires.

A. 40, 20
B. 40, 30
C. 60, 20
D. 60, 30

A

A. 40, 20

158
Q

If OBOGS fails with mask down or loose, secure mask. If extended mask down operation is desired, ____________.
A. place the respective OBOGS supply lever to OFF
B. reset the OBOGS system (both supply levers to OFF then ON)
C. place the respective OBOGS concentration lever to MAX
D. perform I-BIT check

A

A. place the respective OBOGS supply lever to OFF

159
Q

To approximate acceptable bottle pressure, add or subtract 3.5 psi for each degree the temperature is above or below 70° F.
A. False
B. True

A

B. True

T-6B (7 decks)

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