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T-6B > Systems 1 > Flashcards

Systems 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The Primary flight controls are manually controlled using _________ linkage.
a. direct
b. hydraulic
c. electrical
d. mechanical

A

d. Mechanical

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2
Q

The secondary flight controls are _________ controlled and operated.
a. hydraulically
b. electrically
c. electromechanically
d. aerodynamically

A

c. electromechanically

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3
Q

Which of the following is NOT a secondary flight control?
a. Control sticks
b. Elevator trim tab
c. Rudder trim tab
d. Trim Aid Device (TAD)

A

a. Control sticks

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4
Q

What is the purpose of the elevator system?
a. Controls movement of the aircraft about the roll axis
b. Changes the center of gravity of the aircraft to allow for climbs and descents
c. Controls movement of the aircraft about the pitch axis
d. Controls movement of the aircraft about the yaw axis

A

c. Controls movement of the aircraft about the pitch axis

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5
Q

Moving the control stick aft causes the trailing edge of the elevator to move ________ and the nose of the aircraft to move ________.

a. up; up
b. down; down
c. down; up
d. up; down

A

a. up; up

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6
Q

The purpose of the elevator bobweight is to __________.
a. provide a balanced control feed
b. aerodynamically balance the elevator
c. assist the Trim Aid Device (TAD)
d. enhance control feedback and help prevent overstressing of the airframe under high G loading

A

d. enhance control feedback and help prevent overstressing of the airframe under high G loading

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7
Q

the ailerons control movement of the aircraft about the ________ axis.
a. yaw
b. vertical
c. pitch
d. roll

A

d. roll

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8
Q

Which of the following is NOT true concerning the ground adjustable trim tabs?
a. Tabs are located on each aileron
b. Tabs are adjusted by maintenance personnel
c. Tabs can be used as a backup trim system in flight
d. Tabs adjust for stick neutral trim input to controls

A

c. Tabs can be used as a backup trim system in flight

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9
Q

Control inputs cause the ailerons to deflect ___________.
a. in the same direction
b. upwards only
c. in first one, then the other direction
d. in opposite directions

A

d. in opposite directions

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10
Q

The purpose of the rudder is to rotate the aircraft about the __________ axis.
a. longitudinal
b. yaw
c. pitch
d. roll

A

b. yaw

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11
Q

When the pilot applies pressure to the left rudder pedal, the trailing edge of the rudder moves __________ and the nose of the aircraft moves ____________.
a. left; right
b. right; left
c. left; left
d. right; right

A

c. left; left

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12
Q

Rudder centering springs provide a tendency for the rudder to return to neutral and ____________.
a. reduce pilot workloads
b. enhance control feedback
c. prevent opposing control inputs
d. provide inputs to the trim aid device (TAD)

A

b. enhance control feedback

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13
Q

In the event of conflicting pilot aileron/elevator trim inputs, which cockpit trim switch has priority?
a. The switch that is depressed first has priority.
b. The front cockpit
c. The rear cockpit
d. Neither cockpit. The trim system will not work in the case of simultaneous inputs.

A

c. The rear cockpit

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14
Q

Where is the rudder trim switch located?
a. On the power control lever in each cockpit
b. On the control stick
c. On the power control lever in the aft cockpit only
d. On the trim control panel

A

a. On the power control lever in each cockpit

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15
Q

The aileron trim actuator causes deflection of ________.
a. the right aileron only
b. both ailerons
c. the aileron trim tabs
d. the left aileron only

A

b. both ailerons

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16
Q

The TAD computes input to the rudder trim system based on _________.
a. engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and pitch angle
b. altitude, airspeed, pitch rate, and propeller RPM
c. engine torque, rudder pedal, control forces, and altitude
d. engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and pitch rate

A

d. engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and pitch rate

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17
Q

TAD preset takeoff settings will remain constant until _______.
a. weight on wheels after landing
b. 40 KIAS and weight on wheels
c. 80 KIAS and weight on wheels
d. 80 KIAS and weight off wheels

A

d. 80 KIAS and weight off wheels

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18
Q

What happens to the trim aid switch when the trim interrupt button is pressed?
a. Power to the system is interrupted and the electromagnetic switch automatically moves to the OFF position
b. It will reset after running a self-test
c. It remains in the TRIM AID position until it is reset.
d. Nothing

A

a. Power to the system is interrupted and the electromagnetic switch automatically moves to the OFF position

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19
Q

What kind of hydraulic system does the T-6B use?
a. An engine-driven, fluid pressurized system charged to 3000 +/- 120 psi
b. An electrically operated system charged to 2400 +/- 50 psi
c. An engine-driven, fluid pressurized system charged to 3000 +/- 150 psi
d. An electrically operated, hydraulically controlled system charged to 3500 +/- 225 psi

A

a. An engine-driven, fluid pressurized system charged to 3000 +/- 120 psi

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20
Q

The engine driven hydraulic pump pressurizes the hydraulic system to which of the following?
a. 1800 +/- 120 psi
b. 1800 +/- 150 psi
c. 3000 +/- 120 psi
d. 3000 +/- 150 psi

A

c. 3000 +/- 120 psi

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21
Q

The T-6B has a hydraulic system that uses fluid pressurized to 3000 +/- 120 pounds per square inch (psi).
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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22
Q

What are the devices operated by the primary hydraulic system under normal operations?
a. Landing gear, flaps, speed brake, and flight controls
b. Landing gear/main gear doors, flaps, speed brake, and trim aid device
c. Landing gear/main gear inboard doors, flaps, speed brake, and nose wheel steering
d. Landing gear, main gear inboard doors, flaps, speed brake, and wheel brakes

A

c. Landing gear/main gear inboard doors, flaps, speed brake, and nose wheel steering

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23
Q

What is true about the reservoir piston located within the power package?
a. It keeps the reservoir pressurized using compressed helium gas
b. Protects the engine driven hydraulic pump by reducing the return side of the reservoir to 50 PSI
c. It keeps the reservoir pressurized using compressed nitrogen gas
d. It releases excess pressure of 1790 psi

A

b. Protects the engine driven hydraulic pump by reducing the return side of the reservoir to 50 psi

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24
Q

What component in the power package isolates hydraulic pressure coming from the engine driven pump from the rest of the system when the emergency system is activated?
a. Slide valve
b. Reservoir piston
c. Firewall Shutoff handle
3500 PSI Px relief valve

A

a. Slide valve

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25
Q

The emergency hydraulic system operates which of the following?
a. Landing gear, flaps, main gear doors, speed brake
b. Landing ger, main inboard gear doors, flaps
c. Landing gear, flaps, speed brake
d. Landing gear, main inboard doors, flaps, and nose wheel steering

A

b. Landing gear, main inboard gear doors flaps

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26
Q

If there is a loss of engine power, the primary system fails, or a failure of the battery bus the emergency hydraulic system is used to operate the ________.
a. landing gear, landing gear doors, flaps, and speed brake
b. landing gear, main gear inboard doors, and flaps
c. landing gear doors, nose gear doors, and flaps
d. landing gear, flaps, and speed brake

A

b. landing gear, main gear inboard doors, and flaps

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27
Q

The emergency hydraulic system ___________.
a. provides 3000 +/- 120 psi to raise the landing gear and flaps
b. has separate and independent hydraulic lines that ensure gear/flap operation if primary system fails
c. shares the hydraulic lines leading to the actuators with the primary hydraulic system
d. uses an engine-driven pump to produce pressure

A

b. has separate and independent hydraulic lines that ensure gear/flap operation if primary system fails

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28
Q

Power for the landing gear controls is provided through a circuit breaker placarded LDG GR CONT, located on the _______.
a. battery bus circuit breaker panels in the front and rear cockpit
b. generator bus circuit breaker panels in the front and rear cockpit
c. battery bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit only
d. generator bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit only

A

c. battery bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit only

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29
Q

The purpose of the normal landing gear extension/retraction system is to _______.
a. extend and retract the landing gear and retract gear doors only
b. operate as a back up to the primary hydraulic systems
c. extend and retract the landing gear and extend doors only
d. extend and retract the landing gear and all doors

A

d. extend and retract the landing gear and all doors

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30
Q

The detent on the landing gear selector handle serves what purpose?
a. Prevents the slide valve assembly from “hammering”
b. Prevents the gear from being raised accidentally
c. Activates the red light in the handle
d. Prevents activation of the emergency gear selector

A

b. Prevents the gear from being raised accidentally

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31
Q

The normal indication that the gear and doors are fully retracted is _________.
a. only the main gear door lights are illuminated
b. three green lights
c. three green lights and no red lights
d. no lights illuminated

A

d. no lights illuminated

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32
Q

the aural landing gear position warning safe guards against a gear up landing under which conditions?
a. Gear handle not down (regardless of gear indications), PCL below mid-range position (~87% N1), airspeed below 120 KIAS and flaps up or takeoff
b. All gear not indicating down and locked with flaps LDG (regardless of gear door position, power setting, or airspeed)
c. There is weight on the wheels with the gear handle not DOWN
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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33
Q

Prior to raising or lowering the landing gear, ensure airspeed is below?
a. 140 KIAS
b. 120 KIAS
c. 150 KIAS
d. 180 KIAS

A

c. 150 KIAS

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34
Q

The device responsible for activating the emergency hydraulic package’s selector valve is the _______.
a. emergency accumulator
b. helium pre-charge
c. 3500 psi pressure release valve
d. landing gear emergency extension handle

A

d. landing gear emergency extension handle

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35
Q

When extending the gear using the emergency system, _________.
a. the power package slide valve routes fluid to the accumulator
b. the emergency system gear extension actuators are pressurized
c. the primary hydraulic system lines are pressurized to 3000 +/- 120 psi
d. hydraulic pressure from the emergency lines activates the normal landing gear actuators

A

d. hydraulic pressure from the emergency lines activates the normal landing gear actuators

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36
Q

What happens when using the emergency system to extend the gear?
a. The gear position indicator panel will show two green and three red lights.
b. The gear position indicator panel will show three red lights.
c. The main gear inboard doors will remain open.
d. The main gear inboard doors will remain closed.

A

c. The main gear inboard doors will remain open.

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37
Q

One of the major functions of the flaps is to __________.
a. increase sink rate and increase airspeed during landing
b. decrease airspeed needed for approach and decrease landing roll
c. maintain sink rate, decrease drag, and increase airspeed during landing
d. decrease sink rate and increase airspeed during landing

A

b. decrease airspeed needed for approach and decrease landing roll

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38
Q

What is the purpose for flaps set to takeoff?
a. decrease drag and lift to shorten ground run for takeoff
b. increase lift with maximum increase in drag to shorten ground run for takeoff
c. decrease drag to shorten ground run for takeoff
d. produce the greatest lift with minimal drag to shorten ground run for takeoff

A

d. produce the greatest lift with minimal drag to shorten ground run for takeoff

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39
Q

The T-6B utilizes a four-segmented split flap concept which are hydraulically operated and electrically controlled.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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40
Q

In normal operation, T-6B flaps are ________ controlled and _________ operated.
a. mechanically; hydraulically
b. electrically; hydraulically
c. mechanically; electrically
d. electrically; electrically

A

b. electrically; hydraulically

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41
Q

When using the emergency hydraulic system to extend the flaps the pilot must ___________.
a. ensure the landing gear are down and use the emergency flap extension handle
b. lower the flaps before pulling the emergency landing gear handle and extending the gear
c. pull the emergency landing gear handle to extend the landing gear before extending the flaps
d. ensure the speed brake is extended before moving the flap lever

A

c. pull the emergency landing gear handle to extend the landing gear before extending the flaps

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42
Q

The flaps are operated using ____________.
a. a three-position switch on the PCL quadrant front cockpit only
b. a spring-loaded three-position switch on the left instrument panel
c. a spring-loaded two-position switch located on the left instrument panel
d. a three-position switch on the PCL quadrant in front or rear cockpit

A

d. a three-position switch on the PCL quadrant in front or rear cockpit

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43
Q

The _______ has the primary purpose of allowing you to decelerate and/or increase your descent rate without increasing your airspeed.
a. flaps system
b. landing gear
c. speed brake
d. wheel brake

A

c. speed brake

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44
Q

The speed brake will retract if you perform the following ___________.
a. the speed brake switch is moved aft, flaps are extended, or the PCL is moved to MAX
b. the speed brake switch is moved forward, flaps are extended, or the PCL is moved to MAX
c. the speed brake switch is moved forward, flaps are extended, or the PCL is reduced to MIN
d. the speed brake switch is moved forward or airspeed increases above 150 KIAS

A

b. the speed brake switch is moved forward, flaps are extended, or the PCL is moved to MAX

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45
Q

The speed brake is extended and retracted by a single actuator which is operated by ___________.
a. electric motors
b. pneumatic pressure
c. hydraulic pressure
d. tie rods

A

c. hydraulic pressure

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46
Q

Which method(s) are used to steer the aircraft on the ground?
a. Nose wheel steering and differential thrust
b. Nose wheel steering only
c. Rudder and/or differential braking only
d. Nose wheel steering, differential braking, and rudder

A

d. Nose wheel steering, differential braking, and rudder

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47
Q

The T-6B is maneuvered on the ground during taxi, takeoff, and landing using the following EXCEPT ________.
a. by moving control stick in the desired direction of turn
b. through the use of rudder (with sufficient propwash or airflow)
c. operation of the hydraulic nose wheel steering system (NWS)
d. through the application of differential braking

A

a. by moving control stick in the desired direction of turn

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48
Q

the three methods for steering the aircraft during ground operations are differential braking, nose wheel steering, control stick placement in direction of turn.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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49
Q

Which method(s) are used to steer the aircraft on the ground?
a. Nose wheel steering only
b. Nose wheel steering and differential thrust
c. Nose wheel steering, differential braking, rudder
d. rudder and differential braking only

A

c. Nose wheel steering, differential braking, rudder

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50
Q

the nose wheel steering is activated ________.
a. by pushing either rudder pedal
b. by pushing the NWS switch on the instrument panel
c. automatically after landing
d. by pushing the nose wheel steering button on the control stick

A

d. by pushing the nose wheel steering button on the control stick

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51
Q

During ground operations involving high taxi speed, nose wheel steering should _______ used, due to ________.
a. not be; increased sensitivity
b. be; better control
c. not be; decreased responsiveness
d. be; reduced wear on the brakes

A

a. not be; increased sensitivity

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52
Q

Which statement is true regarding the parking brake?
a. It is activated by first pulling and turning the handle 90 degrees clockwise or counterclockwise
b. the parking brake will operate partially using the mergency system
c. The parking brake will not operate if the hydraulic system fails
d. The parking brake is applied by applying the toe brakes while simultaneously pulling and turning the parking brake handle 90 degrees clockwise

A

d. The parking brake is applied by applying the toe brakes while simultaneously pulling and turning the parking brake handle 90 degrees clockwise

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53
Q

The brake system is considered innopretive if the primary hydraulic system fails.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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54
Q

The fluid which provides pressure to the wheel brakes is supplied by __________.
a. the master cylinders and the power package
b. the master cylinders and the brake reservoir
c. cylinders at the top of the brake ppedals
d. the master cylinders and the brake units

A

b. the master cylinders and the brake reservoir

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55
Q

The UFCP is the primary means of system control functions including __________.
a. communication and navigation radio selection and tuning.
b. navigation waypoint entry
c. execution of pre-planned waypoints and fight plans.
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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56
Q

Select the FALSE statement concerning the UFCP.
a. The UFCP provides data entry functionality and control of a wide variety of displays and subsystems.
b. The UFCP upper panel provides communication and navigation radio frequency setting functionality
c. The hard keys provide access to various UFCP pages.
d. The UFCP alphanumeric keyboard is the only method to change frequency settings.

A

d. The UFCP alphanumeric keyboard is the only method to change frequency settings.

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57
Q

The purpose of the Up Front Control Panel (UFCP) is to provide data entry functionality and control of a wide variety of displays and subsystems.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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58
Q

The UFCP persistent display is the ________ presentation and displays after ________ seconds of inactivity.
a. advanced; 20
b. default; 20
c. basic; 10
d. primary; 10

A

b. default; 20

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59
Q

Invalid frequency data in the UFCP is indicated by what symbol?
a. Right-facing chevron
b. Asterisk
c. Left-facing filled triangle
d. Left-facing chevron

A

b. Asterisk

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60
Q

A filled circle (left justified) in a UFCP data display window indicates the window __________.
a. has a press and hold function
b. is inactive for data entry
c. is active for data entry
d. has toggle capability for two or more options

A

a. has a press and hold function

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61
Q

The UHF radio operates in one of three active modes, set normally through the UFCP. They include ___________.
a. Mode A, mode C, mode S
b. Transmit/receive and monitor guard, Transmit/receive, Guard
c. Transmit, receive, monitor Guard
d. Preset, manual, automatic

A

b. Transmit/receive and monitor Guard, Transmit/receive, Guard

62
Q

The data entry knob on the lower portion of the Up Front Control Panel _________.
a. Increments numerical values (clockwise rotation)
b. Decrements numerical values (counter clockwise rotation)
c. Has a push-to-select function
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

63
Q

From the Up Front Control Panel (UFCP) persistent display, the _________ can be viewed or changed.
a. UHF Communication frequency
b. VHF Communication frequency
c. Barometric altimeter
d. Both A and B

A

d. Both A and B

64
Q

The following statements describe MFD/UFCP REPEAT functionality. Which statement is false?
a. When NORM is selected in both cockpits, the MFDs and UFCP pages communicate with respective integrated Avionics Computer (IACs)
b. When MFD/UFCP REPEAT is selected in the rear cockpit, the RPT FWD status advisory appears in the Crew Alerting System (CAS) display
c. When MFD/UFCP REPEAT is selected in the forward cockpit, the RPT FWD status advisory appears in the Crew Alerting System (CAS) display
d. With REPEAT is selected, the MFDs/UFCP in the cockpit where REPEAT is selected duplicate the displays of the other cockpit

A

c. When MFD/UFCP REPEAT is selected in the forward cockpit, the RPT FWD status advisory appears in the Crew Alerting System (CAS) display

65
Q

When REPEAT mode is initiated from the rear cockpit, display control inputs from both cockpits communicate with IAC1?
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

66
Q

When the MFD/UFCP REPEAT switch is set to NORM in both cockpits ____________.
a. The UFCP/MFDs in the forward and rear cockpits communicate with IAC2 while IAC1 remains in standby
b. The UFCP/MFDs in the forward cockpit communicate with IAC1 and the UFCP/MFDs in the rear cockpit communicate with IAC2
c. The UFCP/MFDs in the forward and rear cockpits communicate with IAC1 while IAC2 remains in standby
d. The UFCP/MFDs in the forward cockpit communicate with IAC2 and the UFCP/MFDs in the rear cockpit communicate with IAC1

A

b. The UFCP/MFDs in the forward cockpit communicate with IAC1 and the UFCP/MFDs in the rear cockpit communicate with IAC2

67
Q

What does a yellow UFCP 1 FAIL caution advisory appears on the Crew Alerting System (CAS) display mean?
a. The forward UFCP has lost power it’s power source from the generator bus
b. The forward UFCP is not communicating with IAC1 or IAC2, or the unit has failed
c. The forward UFCP has automatically switched tot he REPEAT mode due to a power source failure
d. the forward UFCP is not communicating with IAC2

A

b. The forward UFCP is not communicating with IAC1 or IAC2, or the unit has failed

68
Q

What does a yellow UFCP 2 FAIL caution advisory appears on the Crew Alerting System (CAS) display mean?
a. The rear UFCP is not communicating with IAC1 or IAC2, or the unit has failed
b. The rear UFCP is not communicating with IAC1
c. The rear UFCP has automatically switch to the REPEAT mode due to a power source failure
d. the rear UFCP has lost power it’s power source from the generator bus

A

a. The rear UFCP is not communicating with IAC1 or IAC2, or the unit has failed

69
Q

If the Up Front Control Panel (UFCP) fails, shortcuts are provided on the NAV display to provide capabilities for entering a frequency and an altimeter setting?
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

70
Q

the aircraft is equipped with which of the following radio navigation systems?
a. VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR)
b. Instrument Landing System (ILS)
c. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

71
Q

the aircraft is NOT equipped with which of the following radio navigation systems?
a. Instrument Landing System (ILS)
b. distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
c. Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN)
d. VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR)

A

c. Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN)

72
Q

The aircraft radio navigation system is comprised of VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR), Instrument Landing System (ILS), and Distance Measuring Equipment (DME).
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

73
Q

From the below list of statements, which one is FALSE with regards to the Integrated Avionics System?
a. IAC 1 Supports the forward cockpit and acts as a backup for the rear cockpit for redundancy
b. IAC 2 supports the rear cockpit and acts as a backup for the forward cockpit for redundancy
c. Except for the Head Up Display (HUD) in the forward cockpit, the integrated avionics system display configuration is identical for both forward and rear cockpits
d. IAC 1 is the primary computer for both cockpits while IAC2 remains in standby

A

d. IAC 1 is the primary computer for both cockpits while IAC2 remains in standby

74
Q

Which system is NOT part of the integrated avionics system?
a. Navigation (NAV) Display
b. Primary Flight Display (PFD)
c. Backup Flight Instrument (BFI)
d. Radio navigation system

A

c. Backup Flight Instrument (BFI)

75
Q

The dual IACS from the core of the integrated avionics system. They integrate with various components of the system; however they do not provide backup capability.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

76
Q

From left to right, the default display arrangement at power up is __________.
a. Primary Flight Display (PFD); Navigation (NAV); Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System (EICAS)
b. Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System (EICAS); Primary Flight Display (PFD); Navigation (NAV)
c. Navigation (NAV); Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System (EICAS); Primary Flight Display (PFD)
d. Navigation (NAV); Primary Flight Display (PFD); Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System (EICAS)

A

d. Navigation (NAV); Primary Flight Display (PFD); Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System (EICAS)

77
Q

In the basic student level configuration, one MFD must always display a ________ and one MFD must always display the _________.
a. NAV; EICAS
b. NAV; EICAS
c. PFD; NAV
d. PFD; EICAS

A

d. PFD; EICAS

78
Q

Failure of an IAC automatically switches the MFDs and controls to the other IAC. No pilot action is required.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

79
Q

The attitude, airspeed, vertical speed, glideslope and localizer, angle of attack, turn and slip, and wind indicator along with an altimeter, HSI, and accelerometer are displayed on the _________.
a. BFI
b. NAV
c. EICAS
d. PFD

A

d. PFD

80
Q

The bottom half of the PFD consists of ________.
a. The attitude indicator, AOA, airspeed, altitude, vertical speed indicators
b. A compass rose or arc that includes a map, glideslope or lateral deviation indicators, and active FMS waypoint information
c. Aircraft and engine system information and CAS messages
d. The horizontal situation indicator provides primary heading, navigation display, course deviation indication, NAV source, and localizer

A

d. The horizontal situation indicator provides primary heading, navigation display, course deviation indication, NAV source, and localizer

81
Q

The center MFD (PFD) fails, the PFD reverts to right MFD and replaces the EICAS, NAV display remains as is.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

82
Q

The backup flight instrument (BFI) provides backup ________ indications in case of failure of the integrated avionics system.
a. TCAS
b. Primary flight instrument
c. Engine instrument
d. Navigation

A

b. Primary flight instrument

83
Q

The backup flight instrument (BFI) provides backup primary flight instrument indications in case of failure of the integrated avionics system.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

84
Q

What instrument provides primary flight instrumentation in case the integrated avionics system fails?
a. Backup flight instrument (BFI)
b. Navigation MFD
c. Alternate attitude indicator
d. Tactical Situation Display

A

a. Backup flight instrument (BFI)

85
Q

The backup flight instruments display airspeed, altitude, vertical velocity, heading, and _____________.
a. attitude
b. angle of attack
c. basic engine data
d. acceleration

A

a. attitude

86
Q

The backup flight instrument attitude indicator gyro inputs come from _________.
a. its own internal three-axis gyro stabilization system
b. the integrated avionics system Inertial Reference Unit (IRU)
c. both its own reference system source and the integrated avionics system
d. the Global Positioning System (GPS)

A

a. its own internal three-axis gyro stabilization system

87
Q

The BFIs provide backup indications in the event of failure of the electronic flight instrument system of the aircraft electrical systems. The BFIs are normally powered by the _______.
a. battery bus
b. auxiliary battery
c. generator bus
d. main AC buses

A

a. battery bus

88
Q

With aircraft weight on the ground (weight on wheels) and the avionics switch OFF, application of ground or battery power will turn on only the ____________ MFD with _________ as the default display.
a. Right-hand, EICAS
b. Center, EICAS
c. Center, PFD
d. Right-hand, PFD

A

a. Right-hand, EICAS

89
Q

The master warning and master caution switchlights are interconnected with the _________.
a. engine/electrical switch panel
b. trim control panel
c. crew alterting system (CAS) messages
d. environmental control panel

A

c. crew alerting system (CAS) messages

90
Q

When a flashing master warning (MASTER WARN) or master caution (MASTER CAUT) switchlight is reset, the associated message in the Crew Alerting System (CAS) on the Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) display will __________ for as long as the malfunction or failure condition persists.
a. begin flashing
b. remain on steady
c. also reset
d. extinguish, the relight

A

b. remain on steady

91
Q

The EICAS is organized into what display groups?
a. fuel, electrical, and environmental
b. engine performance
c. Crew Alerting System (CAS) messages
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

92
Q

Which indication is NOT part of the engine performance section of the EICAS display?
a. Gas turbine speed (% N1)
b. Fuel flow
c. Interstage Turbine Temperature (ITT)
d. % Torque

A

b. Fuel flow

93
Q

Which Crew Alerting System (CAS) message color code represents hazardous conditions that require immediate pilot attention and may require immediate pilot action?
a. Yellow
b. Green
c. White
d. Red

A

d. Red

94
Q

Distinguishable warning tones are routed thorugh the headset and are triggered using the same logic as the individual alert message. The warning tone volume control is _________.
a. Variable depending on nature of CAS message
b. Adjustable using the HDPH knob on the audio panel
c. Fixed and cannot be changed
d. Adjustable using the INPH knob on the audio panel

A

c. Fixed and cannot be changed

95
Q

Warning tones generated by the Audio Management Unit (AMU) are routed to the _________.
a. main annunciator panel
b. VHF radio
c. helmet audio connections
d. cockpit speaker

A

c. helmet audio connections

96
Q

Which of the following are pilot warning tone outputs by the electronic tone generator?
a. Landing gear position warning and overspeed warning
b. Master Warn, Master Caution, Fire, and AOA stall warning
c. CAS enroute mode and over-G warning
d. CAS landing mode alert and stick shaker warning

A

a. Landing gear position warning and overspeed warning

97
Q

The AOA computer receives input from the _________ on the leading edge of the left wing, the _________ and the _________.
a. AOA indexer; flap gauge; and the landing gear weight on wheels switch
b. AOA vane; flap position microswitch; landing gear (when extended)
c. AOA vane; elevator position microswitch; landing gear lever (when down)
d. Pitot tube; flap level; outboard gear door switch (when extended)

A

b. AOA vane; flap position microswitch; landing gear (when extended)

98
Q

The Angle of Attack (AOA) amber donut will continue to indicate the ________ as aircraft weight decreases.
a. stall speed
b. optimum no-wind airspeed in the landing pattern
c. maximum endurance speed
d. no-wind best range glide speed

A

b. optimum no-wind airspeed in the landing pattern

99
Q

Angle of Attack (AOA) information is provided on the AOA indexer when ________.
a. the flaps are set to landing setting
b. the landing gear is down and locked
c. the angle of attack is below 8.8 units on the AOA indicator
d. airspeed is 5 to 10 knots above stall speed

A

b. the landing gear is down and locked

100
Q

The accelerometer indicates the aircraft ____________ experienced during flight.
a. Roll rate
b. Angle of Attack
c. Vertical velocity
d. G load

A

d. G load

101
Q

The accelerometer (G meter) scale and pointer indicate from ________ to _________.
a. (-)3.5G to 7.0G
b. 3.5G to (-)7.0G
c. (-)4.0G to 7.5G
d. 4.0G to (-)7.5G

A

c. (-)4.0G to 7.5g

102
Q

The max G load caret and digital readout exceedance indications cannot be reset in flight if the aircraft G limits have been exceeded. These can only be reset by maintenance after landing.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

103
Q

The Integrated Data Acquisition Recording System (IDARS) acquires numerous analog and digital parameters related to __________.
a. airframe and engine
b. flight controls and voice communication systems
c. navigation systems
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

104
Q

Which of the following is a function of the Flight Data Recorder (FDR) green MAINT annunciator?
a. indicates IDARS memory is 80% full
b. provides interface between IDARS and DTM
c. stores BIT data in system memory
d. provides for download of IDARS data

A

a. indicates IDARS memory is 80% full

105
Q

The Flight Data Recorder (FDR) is the central unit of the Integrated Data Acquisition Recording System (IDARS). It is easily identified as a large ________ box located in the right avionics bay.
a. black
b. yellow
c. red
d. orange

A

d. orange

106
Q

The advantage of the HUD is the pilot _________.
a. is provided more accurate flight information
b. does not have to divide attention inside and outside the cockpit
c. is provided TCAS targets without looking at the NAV display
d. is provided engine indications without having to look at the EICAS display

A

b. does not have to divide attention inside and outside the cockpit

107
Q

The advantage of the HUD is that the pilot does not have to divide attention inside and outside the cockpit.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

108
Q

The disadvantage of the HUD is the pilot has to divide attention inside and outside the cockpit.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

109
Q

Name the three HUD display master modes.
a. Navigation, Air-to-Air, and Air-to-Ground
b. F-16, F-18 and Navigation
c. F-16, F-18 and Tapes
d. Navigation, Approach, and Weapons

A

a. Navigation, Air-to-Air, and Air-to-Ground

110
Q

the master mode primarily used for flight data, steering, navigation, landing and advisory information is the ______ mode.
a. LCOS
b. NAV
c. A/G
d. A/A

A

b. NAV

111
Q

Which HUD symbol is your best indication of where the aircraft is actually going?
a. Flight Path Marker
b. Climb Dive Marker
c. Steer-to-point indicator
d. W/L pitch reference

A

a. Flight Path Marker

112
Q

The normal operational control of the UHF radio is through the UFCP via the ________ button.
a. ID
b. NAV Tune
c. COM 1
d. COM 2

A

c. COM 1

113
Q

To transmit over the UHF radio, ________.
a. push the UHF knob on the audio panel
b. push down on the UHF/VHF key on the PCL
c. push up on the UHF/VHF key on the PCL
d. select COM 1 on the UFCP

A

c. push up on the UHF/VHF key on the PCL

114
Q

The UHF transceiver has a dedicated receiver which simultaneously and continuously monitors the UHF Guard frequency 243.0 MHz.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

115
Q

The normal operational control of the VHF radio is through the UFCP via the _______ button.
a. COM1
b. ID
c. COM2
d. Nav Tune

A

c. COM2

116
Q

To transmit over the VHF radio, ________.
a. push up on the UHF/VHF key on the PCL
b. select COM 1 on the UFCP
c. push down on the UHF/VHF key on the PCL
d. push the UHF knob on the audio panel

A

c. push down on the UHF/VHF key on the PCL

117
Q

The standby VHF radio control unit is located ________.
a. on the right console, front cockpit
b. on the left console in the front cockpit
c. on the left console in rear cockpit
d. on the right console, front and rear cockpit

A

a. on the right console, front cockpit

118
Q

The Intercommunication System (ICS) allows communications with the _________.
a. ground crew only
b. front to the rear cockpit only
c. between cockpits and to the ground crew
d. rear to the front cockpit only

A

c. between cockpits and to the ground crew

119
Q

Once extended, the speed brake remains extended until _________.
a. the flaps are extended
b. the PCL is advanced
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

a. the flaps are extended

120
Q

The ground crew interphone system is powered when __________.
a. the aux battery switch is activated in the front cockpit
b. the avionics switch is activated in the front cockpit
c. the battery switch is activated in either cockpit
d. the generator switch is activated in either cockpit

A

c. the battery switch is activated in either cockpit

121
Q

The audio control panel is located on the front lower panel in ___________.
a. right avionics compartment
b. the rear cockpit only
c. the front cockpit only
d. the front and rear cockpit

A

d. the front and rear cockpit

122
Q

Green transmit lights, above the COM1 and COM2 control knobs, illuminate when a transmission on the respective radio is made, whether from the forward or rear cockpit.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

123
Q

Overall headset volume is controlled by the rotary ________ switch.
a. VOX
b. HDPH
c. INPH
d. ST

A

b. HDPH

124
Q

The aircraft is equipped with an altitude reporting Mode S transponder that responds to ______________ interrogations.
a. Ground station only
b. Airborne and ground station
c. Airborne only
d. Ground station and satellite

A

b. Airborne and ground station

125
Q

With the transponder mode set to ACT (with ALT defaulted to on), what information is being transmitted?
a. Aircraft altitude only
b. The transponder code only
c. The transponder code and altitude information
d. None

A

c. The transponder code and altitude information

126
Q

How many seconds is the ID age displayed after pressing the ID squawk key on the UFCP?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15

A

b. 5

127
Q

The primary instrument used to display VOR frequency information is the __________?
a. TSD display
b. NAV display
c. Upper portion of the PFD
d. HSI portion of the PFD

A

d. HSI portion of the PFD

128
Q

The VHF navigation receiver processes __________ signals.
a. ILS and TACAN
b. VOR and ILS
c. ILS and GPS
d. VOR and GPS

A

b. VOR and ILS

129
Q

Pilots have the ability to navigate via ________ and to fly ________ instrument approaches.
a. GPS; VOR and NDB
b. VOR; VOR and ILS
c. GPS; VOR and TACAN
d. TACAN; TACAN and ILS

A

b. VOR; VOR and ILS

130
Q

Slant range distance from the aircraft to a ground based navigation station is calculated by the aircraft’s ________ system.
a. ILS
b. VOR
c. GPS/FMS
d. DME

A

d. DME

131
Q

The DME system measures the time required for the transmitted signal to reach the ground station and return and calculates a ___________ distance in nautical miles from the aircraft to the ground station.
a. lateral
b. horizontal
c. slant range
d. vertical

A

c. slant range

132
Q

When a DME-equipped navigation facility is tuned, the DME distance to that facility is displayed in _________.
a. the PFD source data block if the source is selected to VOR or LOC
b. the bearing pointer data blocks on the PFD and NAV displays if VOR or LOC is the selected bearing source
c. the DIST data field at the top of the NAV display
d. Both A and B

A

d. Both A and B

133
Q

A signal generated by the ________ presents a distinct pattern on an air traffic controller’s scope to assist in aircraft identification.
a. radar altimeter
b. transponder
c. TCAS
d. GPS

A

b. transponder

134
Q

Pressing the ________ button on the UFCP transmits a specific pulse to aid in immediate identification on a controller’s scope.
a. ID
b. DIR
c. EXEC
d. MRK

A

a. ID

135
Q

Which mode allows a transponder to automatically reply to a ground or airborne interrogation addressed to a specific aircraft?
a. Mode A
b. Mode C
c. Mode S
d. both Mode A and Mode C

A

c. Mode S

136
Q

the aircraft is equipped with a TCAS type one, which does not provide avoidance maneuver guidance.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

137
Q

TCAS range selections are ___________ selectable on the __________.
a. 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, 160, 320; NAV display
b. 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, 160, 320; EICAS display
c. 15, 30, 60, 120, 240; NAV display
d. 15, 30, 60, 120, 240; EICAS display

A

a. 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, 160, 320; NAV display

138
Q

TCAS is like radar and can detect aircraft that do not have operating transponders.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

139
Q

The TCAS traffic advisory (TA) symbol is identified by a _________.
a. filled white diamond
b. unfilled white diamond
c. unfilled yellow circle
d. filled yellow circle

A

d. filled yellow circle

140
Q

The TCAS non-threat traffic symbol is a _________ and the traffic advisory traffic symbol is a ___________.
a. unfilled white circle; filled yellow diamond
b. unfilled white circle; filled yellow circle
c. unfilled white diamond; filled yellow diamond
d. unfilled white diamond; filled yellow circle

A

d. unfilled white diamond; filled yellow circle

141
Q

The Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) detects and tracks other aircraft by interrogating their transponders and then analyzing the replies to determine range, bearing, and relative ________.
a. altitude
b. heading
c. airspeed
d. size

A

a. altitude

142
Q

The FMS uses the _________ as the primary navigation position reference.
a. Global Positioning System (GPS)
b. Air Data Computer
c. Inertial Reference System (IRS)
d. magnetic sensor in the right wing

A

a. Global Positioning System (GPS)

143
Q

The FMS determines the aircraft position by combining __________.
a. GPS position data
b. Inertial Reference System (IRS) heading data
c. Air Data Computer (ADC) true airspeed and altitude reference
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

144
Q

Because FMS derived position is not dependent on ground based navaids, FMS navigation is usable in remote areas.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

145
Q

What are three different NAV display format options?
a. Rose Map, TSD Map, Rose Plan
b. TSD Map, Arc Map, Rose Plan
c. Rose MAP, Arc Map, Rose Plan
d. Rose Map, Legs Map, Rose Plan

A

c. Rose MAP, Arc Map, Rose Plan

146
Q

When the navigation source is FMS, the active leg and the active waypoint are magenta. All other waypoints and legs are blue.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

147
Q

which Nav Display format is used to review the flight plan, waypoint by waypoint, using the PREV and NEXT keys to step through the programmed route one waypoint at a time?
a. TSD Map
b. Arc Map
c. Rose Map
d. Rose Plan

A

d. Rose Plan

148
Q

FMS data and system management is accomplished using the ________ and _________.
a. FMS pages; Head up display (HUD)
b. FMS pages; Primary Flight Display (PFD) prompts
c. Up Front Control Panel; FMS pages
d. Up Front Control Panel; Frequency page

A

c. Up Front Control Panel; FMS pages

149
Q

What is the primary page used to display and modify the FMS flight plan?
a. INIT REF
b. PROG
c. LEGS
d. FIX

A

c. LEGS

150
Q

Which FMS page provides access to communication and navigation radio system management?
a. FREQ
b. INIT REF
c. HOLD
d. FIX

A

a. FREQ

T-6B (7 decks)

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