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T-6B > Systems 2 > Flashcards

Systems 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following are correct major components of the electrical system?
a. External power receptacle, starter/generator, and backup alternator
b. Starter/generator, external power receptacle, and AC/DC power converter
c. Starter/generator, 24 VDC battery, and backup 28 VDC battery pack
d. Starter/generator, 24 VDC battery, 24 VDC auxiliary battery

A

d. Starter/generator, 24 VDC battery, 24 VDC auxiliary battery

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2
Q

The aircraft electrical system includes a 28 VDC 300 amp starter/generator, 24 VDC lead acid battery, 24 VDC auxiliary battery, and an external power receptacle.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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3
Q

The aircraft electrical system includes a 28 VDC 300 amp starter/generator, 28 VDC battery, 28 VDC auxiliary battery, and an external power receptacle.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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4
Q

The primary aircraft electrical power is powered by the _________.
a. Alternator
b. Auxiliary Battery
c. Main Battery
d. Generator

A

d. Generator

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5
Q

The generator output provides ________ VDC, and is capable of supplying _______ amps.
a. 24; 300
b. 24; 1000
c. 28; 300
d. 28; 1000

A

c. 28; 300

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6
Q

The starter/generator is regulated and monitored by a _________ located under a panel in the aft cockpit.
a. Voltage regulator
b. Power Management Unit
c. Generator Control Unit
d. Generator overvoltage regulator

A

c. Generator Control Unit

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7
Q

Generator power is controlled by the ________ switch located on the right forward switch panel in each cockpit.
a. Generator control (GEN)
b. Auxiliary Battery (AUX BAT)
c. Bus Tie (BUS TIE)
d. Generator reset (GEN RESET)

A

a. Generator control (GEN)

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8
Q

When the occupant of either cockpit moves the generator control switch to ON, the switch in the other cockpit (if already selected ON) ____________.
a. remains in the ON position
b. is locked in its current position
c. is tripped to the OFF position
d. trips the GEN SW circuit breaker

A

c. is tripped to the OFF position

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9
Q

The ability to control the generator using the generator control switch is __________.
a. transferable between cockpits
b. permanently assigned to the rear cockpit
c. permanently assigned to the front cockpit
d. transferred automatically if either cockpit control fails

A

a. transferable between cockpits

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10
Q

Under normal operating conditions, aircraft electrical power is distributed across the __________ and the __________.
a. standby bus; external power bus
b. external power bus; battery bus
c. generator bus; battery bus
d. standby bus; generator bus

A

c. generator bus; battery bus

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11
Q

The BUS TIE switch on the right forward switch panel in the front cockpit is used to ____________.
a. tie the battery bus and generator bus together for emergency operation
b. tie the battery bus and generator bus together for normal operation
c. control the power from the generator
d. connect the power for all the avionics and radio systems in both cockpits

A

b. tie the battery bus and generator bus together for normal operation

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12
Q

Circuit breakers labeled FWD AVI and AFT AVI control front and rear avionics buses and are located on front cockpit _______.
a. right forward switch panel
b. generator bus circuit breaker panel only
c. battery bus and generator bus circuit panels
d. battery bus circuit breaker panel only

A

c. battery bus and generator bus circuit panels

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13
Q

the battery powers select aircraft systems if the generator is not available, and provides power for _________.
a. charging the auxiliary battery
b. engine starts
c. the auxiliary generator
d. starting the generator prior to engine start

A

b. engine starts

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14
Q

The aircraft battery is rated to provide ______ VDC.
a. 18
b. 22
c. 24
d. 28

A

c. 24

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15
Q

The ________ switch must be set to ON for external power to be available in the aircraft.
a. generator
b. auxiliary battery
c. battery
d. avionics master

A

c. battery

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16
Q

External aircraft lighting for the aircraft is controlled by four individual switches which are the ________ switches located on the trim control panel in the front cockpit.
a. LDG, NAV, STROB, and FLOOD
b. LDG, STROB, FLOOD and NAV
c. LDG, TAXI, STROB, and FLOOD
d. LDG, TAXI, ANTI-COLL, and NAV

A

d. LDG, TAXI, ANTI-COLL, and NAV

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17
Q

the landing light will come on _________.
a. only when the LDG and TAXI switches are both on and the landing gear are down and locked
b. automatically when there is low ambient light
c. anytime the LDG switch is on
d. only when the LDG switch is on and the landing gear are down and locked

A

d. only when the LDG switch is on and the landing gear are down and locked

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18
Q

Knee board lights mounted on the front of each forward and aft glareshield, intensity for these lights are controlled by the FLOOD light rheostat on the trim control panel in each cockpit.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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19
Q

When using the primary T-6B refueling method, the aircraft fuel system provides approximately _______ of usable fuel (JP-8).
a. 1000 pounds
b. 1100 pounds
c. 1200 pounds
d. 2100 pounds

A

b. 1100 pounds

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20
Q

When using the primary refueling method, the maximum fuel quantity for one wing tank is ________.
a. 500 pounds
b. 530 pounds
c. 560 pounds
d. 620 pounds

A

b. 530 pounds

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21
Q

the aircraft can hold a maximum of 1200 pounds of useable fuel (JP-8) stored between the left and right wing tanks as well as a collector tank.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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22
Q

What is the primary method of refueling for the aircraft?
a. Combat refueling
b. In-flight refueling
c. Single point pressure refueling
d. Over the wing gravity refueling

A

c. Single point pressure refueling

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23
Q

Which method of refueling allows the wing tanks to be filled simultaneously?
a. Tanker refueling
b. Over the wing gravity refueling
c. Combat refueling
d. Single point pressure refueling

A

d. Single point pressure refueling

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24
Q

The collector tank normally remains full since most flights will not use the total volume of fuel. However, during ground refueling operations, if it is depleted; fuel will gravity feed to the collector tank from the wing tanks.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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25
Q

The _______ provides fuel for initial engine start and acts as a backup to the engine-driven low pressure fuel pump.
a. Electric boost pump
b. Engine-driven high-pressure fuel pump
c. Primary jet pump
d. Transfer jet pump

A

a. Electric boost pump

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26
Q

Fuel is directed to the collector tank from each wing tank by ___________, keeping the collector tank pressurized.
a. The electric boost pump
b. A primary jet pump
c. Two transfer jet pumps
d. The collector tank pressure pump

A

c. Two transfer jet pumps

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27
Q

Fuel is directed from the collector tank to engine driven low pressure fuel pump by_________.
a. collector tank pressure pump
b. transfer jet pump
c. primary jet pump
d. fuel management unit

A

c. primary jet pump

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28
Q

the fuel is pumped through the engine feed line to the fuel filter, which prevent contaminants from reaching the main fuel pumps or engine. If the filter becomes restricted; the engine will flame out due to fuel starvation.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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29
Q

During operation of the fuel system, fuel routed from the engine-driven low pressure pump down the motive flow line is used to drive the _________ and ___________.
a. primary jet pump; engine-driven high pressure pump
b. transfer jet pumps; engine-driven high pressure pump
c. electric boost pump; transfer jet pumps
d. primary jet pump; transfer jet pumps

A

d. primary jet pump; transfer jet pumps

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30
Q

A pressure switch in the motive flow line activates the ________ anytime fuel pressure drops below 10 psi.
a. transfer jet pumps
b. primary jet pump
c. engine-driven high pressure pump
d. electric boost pump

A

d. electric boost pump

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31
Q

the fuel gauging system uses seven fuel probes inside the fuel tanks to ________.
a. send a signal to the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) for visual display of fuel quantity
b. reduce corrosion within the fuel tank
c. transmit the fuel from the wing tanks to the collector tank
d. send a signal to the AEDD for visual display of fuel flow

A

a. send a signal to the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting

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32
Q

The left and right fuel quantity tapes on the EICAS turn yellow when indicated fuel quantity in the respective tank is below ___________.
a. 75 pounds
b. 110 pounds
c. 150 pounds
d. 175 pounds

A

c. 150 pounds

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33
Q

The fuel low level sensors light the “L FUEL LOW” or “R FUEL LOW” messages on the EICAS when the fuel level falls below 150 pounds in the respective tank.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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34
Q

display of the FUEL BAL message may indicate an imbalance exceeding __________ pounds for more than two minutes between the left and right fuel tanks, or a failure of the autobalance system.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 50
d. 70

A

b. 30

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35
Q

the fuel system incorporates an auto balance system which maintains the fuel load in each wing tank to within _______ pounds of the other wing.
a. 30
b. 70
c. 20
d. 50

A

c. 20

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36
Q

the fuel balance switch has two positions; _______ or ________ and is located _________.
a. OFF or NORM; right front side in forward cockpit
b. OFF or NORM; right front side in rear cockpit
c. MAN/RESET or AUTO; right front side in forward cockpit
d. MAN/RESET or AUTO; right front side in rear cockpit

A

c. MAN/RESET or AUTO; right front side in forward cockpit

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37
Q

Wing tanks are vented to the atmosphere as well as each other through vent lines which provide vacuum and pressure relief for the tanks.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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38
Q

If a fuel imbalance is detected by the _______ of 20 pounds or more for more than 30 seconds, the appropriate transfer (solenoid) valve is activated to close the motive flow line to the lighter tank.
a. Fuel Management Unit (FMU)
b. Engine Data Manager (EDM)
c. Power Management Unit (PMU)
d. Fuel Data Manager (FDM)

A

b. Engine Data Manager (EDM)

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39
Q

If the auto balance system shuts off without reducing fuel imbalance to 30 pounds or less, the auto balance system may be reset to provide an additional ______ to balance the fuel load.
a. 20 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 1 minute
d. 2 minutes

A

d. 2 minutes

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40
Q

What three elements are necessary for engine operation?
a. Fuel, oil, and heat
b. Air, fuel, and heat
c. Air, oil, and fuel
d. Heat, smoke, and fire

A

b. Air, fuel, and heat

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41
Q

The engine cowling performs all of the following functions except ________.
a. protect the engine components
b. provide an engine air intake
c. decreases drag
d. secure engine to aircraft airframe

A

d. secure engine to aircraft airframe

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42
Q

What are the two major components of the propulsion system?
a. Propeller and reduction gearbox
b. PCL and engine
c. Engine cowling and PCL
d. Engine and propeller

A

d. Engine and propeller

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43
Q

What are the three sections of the engine?
a. Accessory compartment, compression section, and combustion section
b. Compression, combustion, and reduction areas
c. Compression, combustion, and power sections
d. Accessory compartment, gas generation section, and power turbine section

A

d. Accessory compartment, gas generation section, and power turbine section

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44
Q

After combustion occurs in the combustion chamber, the expanding gases _________.
a. drive the reduction turbine
b. reverse direction
c. drive the compressor turbine, then the power turbine
d. drive the power turbine, then the compressor turbine

A

c. drive the compressor turbine, then the power turbine

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45
Q

the aircraft is equipped with a free turbine, reverse flow design turboprop engine, what is meant by the term “free turbine”?
a. Air flow from the compressor does not drive the power turbine, as they are physically connected
b. Air flow from the compressor drives the power turbine, as they are not physically connected
c. This is where the free air temperature is measured
d. Air flow from the lower air inlet cowling drives the power turbine

A

b. Air flow from the compressor drives the power turbine, as they are not physically connected

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46
Q

When starting the aircraft, the power control lever (PCL) should be ___________.
a. pushed forward to the IDLE position
b. pushed forward to the START/IDLE detent is reached
c. pushed foreword until a green ST READY message is illuminated on the EICAS display
d. pushed forward until a green IGN SEL message is illuminated on the EICAS display

A

c. pushed foreword until a green ST READY message is illuminated on the EICAS display

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47
Q

Friction control settings made to the front cockpit power control lever (PCL) has no effect on the rear cockpit PCL.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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48
Q

the front cockpit power control lever (PCL) is __________ connected to the fuel management unit (FMU) by a flexible cable as well as ____________ connected to the FMU by way of the power management unit (PMU).
a. electrically; pneumatically
b. mechanically; hydraulically
c. mechanically; electrically
d. hydraulically; electrically

A

c. mechanically; electrically

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49
Q

The PMU performs the following functions, except:
a. maintains engine and propeller within operating limits.
b. keep fuel balance within limits.
c. determines available power and provides a near linear response between PCL idle and max positions.
d. fine tunes the power request and sends an electronic signal to the FMU.

A

b. keep fuel balance within limits.

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50
Q

the primary power source for the PMU comes from the _________.
a. Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)
b. Generator Bus
c. Battery Bus
d. Engine Data Manager (EDM)

A

a. Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)

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51
Q

The power Management Unit (PMU) ________.
a. processes all data for the EICAS display in each cockpit
b. displays available oil pressure in each cockpit
c. records all flight data
d. keeps the engine and propeller within operating limits

A

d. keeps the engine and propeller within operating limits

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52
Q

The starter/generator _______ until the engine starts and is able to sustain itself.
a. turns the propeller
b. turns the power turbine
c. provides fuel
d. turns the compressor

A

d. turns the compressor

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53
Q

Once the engine is started, and the ignition switch is in the ON position, igniters are automatically energized and de-energized by the PMU.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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54
Q

Once the engine start sequence is completed, the starter functions _________.
a. as a 28VDC generator
b. as a backup to start engine automatically in case of failure
c. as the main to drive the accessory gear box
d. as a 28VDC alternator

A

a. as a 28VDC generator

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55
Q

The oil system provides filtered oil to all of the following systems, except _________.
a. reduction gears
b. wheel brakes
c. propeller
d. engine bearings

A

b. wheel brakes

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56
Q

Scavenge pumps are designed to return oil from the engine bearings, reduction gears, accessory drives and propeller back to the main oil tank. This scavenged oil is first routed through an oil cooler before the oil is returned to the tank.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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57
Q

During steady state conditions, normal oil pressure should be between _________ (green area on gauge)
a. 120-200 psi
b. 40-90 psi
c. 90-120 psi
d. 40-130 psi

A

c. 90-120 psi

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58
Q

with a loss of oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism, the ________ and ________ move the propeller to feather.
a. airflow; feathering spring
b. feathering spring; torque probe
c. airflow; counterweights
d. counterweights; feathering spring

A

d. counterweights; feathering spring

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59
Q

Which propeller position will the propeller be in during most flight conditions?
a. Low propeller pitch
b. Feather position
c. High propeller pitch
d. Thrust position

A

c. High propeller pitch

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60
Q

The _______ and the _________ control propeller speed to maintain a constant propeller speed of 2000 RPM and achieve varying levels of thrust by automatically adjusting propeller pitch.
a. feathering spring; regulator unit
b. torque probe; scavenge unit
c. fuel flow regulator; fly weights
d. PMU; propeller interface unit

A

d. PMU; propeller interface unit

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61
Q

The engine data manager performs all of the following, except __________.
a. monitors and processes engine operating parameters
b. provides discreet alerts to each IAC when necessary
c. drives the engine instrument displays
d. monitors and processes AOA data

A

d. monitors and processes AOA data

62
Q

All of the functions performed by the engine data manager (EDM) are engine related.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

63
Q

The engine data manager (EDM) also performs non-engine related functions such as _________.
a. fuel balancing and fuel quantity indications
b. determination and display of DC volts and amps
c. determination and display of cockpit pressure altitude and differential pressure
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

64
Q

The engine indication and crew alerting display provides _________ with a visual indication of __________.
a. each cockpit; primary flight data information
b. the front cockpit only; engine and auxiliary instrument information
c. each cockpit; engine and auxiliary instrument information
d. the rear cockpit only; primary flight data information

A

c. each cockpit; engine and auxiliary instrument information

65
Q

The engine and crew alerting system (EICAS) ________.
a. transmits engine data to air data computer
b. records engine data for aircraft analysis
c. governs engine operating parameters
d. provides each cockpit with a visual indication of engine operations

A

d. provides each cockpit with a visual indication of engine operations

66
Q

On the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS) display, deltaP measures _________.
a. the difference between cockpit altitude and outside altitude
b. the fuel difference between wing tanks
c. the difference between optimal and actual hydraulic pressure
d. the difference between cockpit pressure and outside pressure

A

d. the difference between cockpit pressure and outside pressure

67
Q

The middle column of the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS) display contains what information?
a. Torque
b. Interstage turbine temperature (ITT)
c. Gas generator speed (N1)
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

68
Q

The right side (column) of the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS) display contains all the following information, EXCEPT ___________.
a. oil pressure
b. oil temperature
c. fuel flow
d. hydraulic pressure

A

c. fuel flow

69
Q

The left side (column) of the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS) display contains what information?
a. Propeller RPM (NP), oil pressure, oil temperature, and hydraulic pressure
b. Fuel quantity, Bingo, fuel flow, indicated outside air temperature, current amperage draw, bus voltage, oil temperature, oil pressure, and hydraulic pressure.
c. Fuel quantity, bingo, fuel flow, indicated outside air temperature, current amperage draw, bus voltage, cockpit altitude and differential pressure.
d. Torque, interstage turbine temperature (ITT), and gas generator speed (N1)

A

c. Fuel quantity, bingo, fuel flow, indicated outside air temperature, current amperage draw, bus voltage, cockpit altitude and differential pressure.

70
Q

In the event of an out of limits torque indication, the EICAS display will warn the pilot by all of the following methods, EXCEPT _________.
a. a change in color of the torque reading
b. flashing MASTER CAUT switchlight
c. An aural tone
d. flashing MASTER WARN switchlight

A

b. flashing MASTER CAUT switchlight

71
Q

Pressing the MASTER WARN of MASTER CAUT switchlight in either cockpit extinguishes the lamp and rearms the mechanism for additional malfunctions or failures. Acknowledge advisories remain on steady on the CAS display until the malfunction or failure is corrected.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

72
Q

The bottom portion of the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS) serves as the crew alerting system (CAS). This panel is reserved for ___________.
a. engine torque, ITT and N1 readings
b. engine oil pressure, temperature, and hydraulic pressure readings
c. warning and cautions advisories only
d. warnings, caution, status and condition advisories

A

d. warnings, caution, status and condition advisories

73
Q

The engine fire warning system monitors ________.
a. average and discrete engine exterior temperatures
b. discrete engine temperature and engine oil temperature
c. engine oil temperature and average and discrete engine exterior temperatures
d. average engine temperature and engine oil temperature

A

a. average and discrete engine exterior temperatures

74
Q

The aircraft is equipped with a fire warning system. This system is designed to monitor both average and discrete temperatures exterior of the engine.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

75
Q

the aircraft is equipped with a fire warning system. this system is designed to monitor the internal temperatures of the engine to warn of a possible engine overtemp.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

76
Q

The engine fire warning system consists of a core element, a sensor tube, and ___________.
a. a temperature gauge
b. a thermostat
c. a responder assembly
d. micro switches

A

c. a responder assembly

77
Q

The fire warning system consists of a core element, sensor tube, and responder assembly. The sensor tubes are built such that ________ don’t affect system reliability.
a. helium gas leaks
b. core element disintegration
c. responder assembly malfunctions
d. kinks, twists or dents

A

d. kinks, twists or dents

78
Q

If temperatures reach or exceed the preset fire warning point on the exterior of the engine, _________.
a. the MASTER CAUTION switch light will illuminate
b. the FIRE and MASTER CAUTION switch lights will illuminate
c. all fluids are shutoff from the engine
d. the MASTER WARN light and FIRE switch lights will illuminate

A

d. the MASTER WARN light and FIRE switch lights will illuminate

79
Q

The environmental control panel is located _________.
a. front cockpit right side console
b. front cockpit left side console
c. rear cockpit left side console
d. rear cockpit right side console

A

a. front cockpit right side console

80
Q

What is the only environmental control located in the rear cockpit on the engine/electrical switch panel?
a. Evaporator blower control switch
b. Ram air flow switch
c. Bleed air inflow switch
d. Temperature control rheostat

A

a. Evaporator blower control switch

81
Q

Which environmental component does not require the use of engine bleed air?
a. Canopy defogging
b. Cockpit heating
c. Air conditioning
d. Cockpit pressurization

A

c. Air conditioning

82
Q

The ________ controls provide power to the front and rear cockpit blowers which supply airflow through the air conditioning vents.
a. temperature controller
b. air conditioning switch
c. evaporator blower
d. evaporator condenser

A

c. evaporator blower

83
Q

The ________ control switch controls the position of the bi-level control and shutoff valve.
a. bleed air inflow
b. pressurization
c. ram air flow
d. air conditioner

A

a. bleed air inflow

84
Q

Which control switch operates the motor drive heat exchanger bypass valve?
a. temperature control
b. bleed air inflow
c. ram air flow
d. evaporator blower

A

a. temperature control

85
Q

Fresh air ventilation is available for the cockpit during ground operations and unpressurized flight.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

86
Q

Fresh air ventilation is controlled by the fresh air valve through the position of the ram air flow switch, the switch is ______________.
a. overridden and fresh air valve closes as the aircraft reaches an altitude of 8,000 feet MSL
b. overridden and fresh air valve opens as the aircraft reaches an altitude of 10,000 feet MSL
c. overridden and fresh air valve closes as the aircraft reaches an altitude of 10,000 feet MSL
d. overridden and fresh air valve opens as the aircraft reaches an altitude of 8,000 feet MSL

A

a. overridden and fresh air valve closes as the aircraft reaches an altitude of 8,000 feet MSL

87
Q

The front cockpit vent control lever will direct air flow to _____________.
a. evaporator blowers
b. defog vents, foot warmer, or both (lever in mid-range position)
c. foot warmers only
d. defog vents only

A

b. defog vents, foot warmer, or both (lever in mid-range position)

88
Q

The cockpit air temperature is automatically adjusted between ___________ with the TEMP CONTROL switch set to AUTO position.
a. 60-90 degC
b. 50-85 degF
c. 50-85 degC
d. 60-90 degF

A

d. 60-90 degF

89
Q

Engine bleed air for the cockpit heating is supplied from the __________.
a. left side engine turbine P3 port
b. right side engine compressor P3 port
c. left side engine compressor P3 port
d. right side engine turbine P3 port

A

b. right side engine compressor P3 port

90
Q

Moving the TEMP CONTROL switch toward HOT causes the heat exchanger bypass valve to __________ allowing _________ warm air to bypass the heat exchanger
a. open; less
b. open; more
c. close; more
d. close; more

A

b. open; more

91
Q

Controls for the defogging system are located in the front and rear cockpit environmental control panel and on the vent control panel.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

92
Q

Placing the defog switch to ON opens the ________ which causes a higher volume of bleed air to pass through the heating system ejector.
a. fresh air valve
b. heat exchange bypass vlave
c. bi-level flow control bypass valve (defog valve)
d. bi-level flow control and shutoff valve (inflow valve)

A

c. bi-level flow control bypass valve (defog valve)

93
Q

If the bleed air temperature in the environment system ducting exceeds _________ at any time, the yellow DUCT TEMP caution message will illuminate.
a. 165 deg C
b. 165 deg F
c. 300 deg C
d. 300 deg F

A

d. 300 deg F

94
Q

The air conditioning system only operates when the engine is on and functioning, generator on-line, and the AIR COND switch or DEFOG switch is place ON.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

95
Q

Which component of the air conditioning system converts the vaporized refrigerant to a high pressure liquid?
a. Engine driven compressor
b. Condenser
c. Converter compressor
d. Evaporator blowers

A

b. Condenser

96
Q

The AIR COND switch is available in both cockpits and is used to activate the air conditioner compressor.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

97
Q

A control valve regulator located in the aft pressure bulkhead monitors the _________ and automatically adjust the position of the ___________.
a. cockpit pressure; control valve
b. atmospheric pressure; safety valve
c. cockpit pressure; safety valve
d. atmospheric pressure; control valve

A

a. cockpit pressure; control valve

98
Q

The _______ monitors cockpit differential pressure and will send a signal to the safety valve if the cockpit differential pressure exceeds __________.
a. delta P regulator; 4.0 psi
b. delta P regulator; 3.6 psi
c. control valve; 4.0 psi
d. control valve; 3.6 psi

A

a. delta P regulator; 4.0 psi

99
Q

Which component of the pressurization system automatically prevents cockpit over perssurization?
a. Dump solenoid
b. Control valve
c. Safety valve
d. Control Valve Regulator

A

c. Safety valve

100
Q

Starting at 8000 feet pressure altitude, the pressurization control valve maintains cockpit pressure at 8000 feet until a cockpit pressure differential of the 3.6 +/-0.2 psi is reached at 18,069 feet.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

101
Q

Selecting the RAM/DUMP position on the pressurization switch will ___________.
a. close the control valve, depressurize the cockpit, and fresh air valve will remain closed
b. close the control valve, depressurize the cockpit, and opens the fresh air valve
c. open the control valve, depressurize the cockpit, and opens the fresh air valve
d. open the control valve, depressurize the cockpit, and fresh air valve will remain closed

A

c. open the control valve, depressurize the cockpit, and opens the fresh air valve

102
Q

What does a red CKPT PX warning message on the EICAS display mean?
a. Cockpit differential pressure exceeds 3.6 +/- 0.2 psi
b. Cockpit altitude exceeds 10,000 feet
c. Cockpit altitude exceeds 19,000 feet
d. Cockpit differential pressure exceeds 3.9 to 4.0 psi

A

d. Cockpit differential pressure exceeds 3.9 to 4.0 psi

103
Q

What is the function of the water separator in the anti-G system?
a. Provides cooling water to the heat exchanger
b. Automatically relieves system pressure if it exceeds 7 psi
c. Cools and conditions the bleed air
d. Protects the system against contamination

A

d. Protects the system against contamination

104
Q

what is the function of the safety valve in the anti-G system?
a. Automatically relieves system pressure if it exceeds 7 psi
b. Cools and conditions the bleed air
c. Provides cooling water to the heat exchanger
d. Protects the system against contamination

A

a. Automatically relieves system pressure if it exceeds 7 psi

105
Q

The anti-G valve on the left side console in each cockpit is opened by ___________ during maneuvers.
a. decreasing positive G force
b. increasing positive G force
c. increasing negative G force
d. decreasing negative G force

A

b. increasing positive G force

106
Q

Oxygen __________ are installed in the right side console in each cockpit and control OBOGS electrical power and oxygen flow.
a. regulators
b. supply monitors
c. concentrators
d. plenums

A

a. regulators

107
Q

A ________ in the OBOGS unit automatically adjusts the oxygen concentration for the current altitude based on the current cockpit pressure
a. supply monitors
b. regulators
c. plenums
d. concentrator

A

d. concentrator

108
Q

If either cockpit regulator supply levers is set to ON, OBOGS system is operative; however, both supply levers must be OFF in order to disable OBOGS system.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

109
Q

The _________ is located on the left side of the seat bucket and is connected by tubing to the pilot’s CRU-60P connector.
a. oxygen regulator
b. oxygen safety valve
c. emergency oxygen cylinder
d. oxygen concentrator

A

c. emergency oxygen cylinder

110
Q

The emergency oxygen cylinder is located on the left side of the seat bucket and is connected by tubing to the pilot’s CRU-60P connector.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

111
Q

The emergency oxygen cylinder is considered adequately charged if the pointer is anywhere in the black band (1800-2500), otherwise __________.
a. flight is restricted to below 8000’ MSL
b. flight is restricted to below 10,000’ MSL
c. maintenance should be notified
d. only unpressurized flight is authorized

A

c. maintenance should be notified

112
Q

In the event of OBOGS failure, the emergency oxygen cylinder is automatically activated to provide pilot with continuous flow of oxygen.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

113
Q

Once emergency oxygen flow is started, the emergency cylinder will supply oxygen for approximately ________ minutes.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

A

b. 10

114
Q

The emergency oxygen cylinder is automatically activated during ________.
a. bleed air inflow failure
b. ejection sequence
c. OBOGS system failure
d. cockpit pressurization failure

A

b. ejection sequence

115
Q

The major canopy components of the T-6B are the _________.
a. canopy frame assembly, hydraulic canopy motor, front and rear transparencies
b. canopy latching system, electric canopy motor, canopy frame, front and rear transparencies
c. environmental system, canopy frame, canopy fracturing system
d. canopy frame assembly, front windscreen, forward transparency, and rear transparency

A

d. canopy frame assembly, front windscreen, forward transparency, and rear transparency

116
Q

Which of the following canopy sections provide enhanced birdstrike protection?
a. Front windscreen and rear transparency
b. Front windscreen and forward transparency
c. Forward and rear transparencies
d. All canopy sections

A

b. Front windscreen and forward transparency

117
Q

The T-6B is equipped with a single, side-opening, ________ operated canopy.
a. hydraulically
b. pneumatically
c. electrically
d. manually

A

d. manually

118
Q

The canopy pressure seal activates automatically when ____________.
a. the interior canopy control handle is placed to CLOSE
b. bleed air inflow is available and weight is off the right main landing gear
c. bleed air inflow switch is placed ON
d. immediately after engine start with the canopy locked

A

b. bleed air inflow is available and weight is off the right main landing gear

119
Q

What does a red CANOPY warning advisory light on the EICAS display mean?
a. Canopy is down and properly locked
b. Canopy fracturing system is inoperative
c. Canopy seal is not pressurized
d. Canopy is not down and properly locked

A

d. Canopy is not down and properly locked

120
Q

The pressure seal is pneumatically inflated using engine bleed air tapped off the left P3 port on the engine compressor section.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

121
Q

Do not open the canopy if surface winds exceed _______ knots.
a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. 40

A

d. 40

122
Q

When closing the canopy from the inside, the canopy has been properly latched when the ________.
a. mechanical red indicator is visible and green canopy advisory warning is illuminated
b. mechanical green indicator is visible and the red canopy advisory warning extinguished
c. mechanical green indicator is visible and the red canopy advisory warning is illuminated
d. mechanical red indicator is visible and the green canopy advisory warning is extinguished

A

b. mechanical green indicator is visible and the red canopy advisory warning extinguished

123
Q

When closing the canopy, what is the function of the canopy lock release handle?
a. to verify the canopy is properly latched
b. To release the lock that holds the canopy in the open position
c. to release the lock that holds the canopy in the closed position
d. Pulling this handle pneumatically lowers the canopy

A

b. To release the lock that holds the canopy in the open position

124
Q

the purpose of the Canopy Fracturing System (CFS) is to __________.
a. provide a clear path for the pilot(s) for emergency egress
b. allow maintenance to remove the canopy for repair
c. prevent small fractures and cracks from developing in the canopy transparencies
d. prevent canopy pressurization leaks

A

a. provide a clear path for the pilot(s) for emergency egress

125
Q

The Canopy Fracturing System (CFS) is designed to provide emergency fracturing of the canopy for emergency egress in the event there is a problem with the normal canopy latching system.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

126
Q

The Canopy Fracturing System (CFS) has two modes of operation: automatic initiation during ejection, and manual initiation by internal CFS initiators/handles.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

127
Q

What component of the Canopy Fracturing System (CFS) allows activation of the fracturing system for the respective individual canopy transparency?
a. CFS acceptor assembly
b. Internal CFS handle
c. Optical detonators
d. External CFS handle

A

b. Internal CFS handle

128
Q

Which component of the canopy fracturing system (CFS) is installed around the periphery and down the centerline of the front cockpit transparency?
a. Mild Detonation Cord (MDC)
b. Flexible Linear Shaped Charge (FLSC)
c. Mild Shaped Charge (MSC)
d. Flexible Detonation Chord (FDC)

A

b. Flexible Linear Shaped Charge (FLSC)

129
Q

Which component of the canopy fracturing system (CFS) is installed around the periphery and in a diamond shaped pattern along the centerline of the rear cockpit transparency?
a. Flexible Linear Shaped Charge (FLSC)
b. Mild Shaped Charge (MSC)
c. Flexible Detonation Chord (FDC)
d. Mild Detonation Cord (MDC)

A

d. Mild Detonation Cord (MDC)

130
Q

In order for the canopy fracturing system (CFS) to be activated, aircraft electrical power must be available.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

131
Q

An internal canopy fracturing system (CFS) handle is located on the left console in each cockpit and will allow for what action?
a. Activation of the fracturing system for the front transparency only
b. Activation of the fracturing system for the rear transparency only
c. Activation of the fracturing system simultaneously on both transparencies
d. Activation of the fracturing system for the respective transparency

A

d. Activation of the fracturing system for the respective transparency

132
Q

The canopy fracturing system (CFS) functions automatically during ejection or can be activated by ________ CFS handles.
a. internal or external
b. internal
c. external
d. neither internal or external

A

b. internal

133
Q

The aircraft is equipped with Martin-Baker ejection seats. Each seat is fully automatic, designed to provide rapid escape from zero altitude and zero airspeed up to _______ feet and ______ KIAS.
a. 31,000; 316
b. 31,000; 370
c. 35,000; 316
d. 35,000; 370

A

d. 35,000; 370

134
Q

Where is the ejection seat safety pin installed?
a. Directly into the ejection seat MOR handle
b. Into the SSK selector valve
c. Into the ejection seat armrest
d. Directly into the ejection handle mechanism

A

d. Directly into the ejection handle mechanism

135
Q

How can the ejection seat be adjusted?
a. Manually forward and rearward
b. Manually up and down
c. Electrically up and down
d. Electrically forward and rearward

A

c. Electrically up and down

136
Q

The Manual Override (MOR) handle is used to manually initiate seat/pilot separation under two circumstances:
a. if automatic system fails or seat/pilot separation is desired above 4,000 to 6,000 feet MSL
b. ejection sequency fails or seat/pilot separation is desired above 4,000 to 6,000 feet MSL
c. ejection sequency fails or seat/pilot separation is desired above 14,000 to 16,000 feet MSL
d. if automatic system fails or seat/pilot separation is desired above 14,000 to 16,000 feet MSL

A

d. if automatic system fails or seat/pilot separation is desired above 14,000 to 16,000 feet MSL

137
Q

During ejection, the emergency oxygen system is activated automatically and will provide a continuous flow of oxygen for either 10 minutes, or until seat/pilot separation, whichever comes first.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

138
Q

The powered inertia reaction device (PIRD) ________.
a. secures the SSK to the lap belt assembly
b. properly positions the pilot during ejection
c. secures the harness to the lap belt assembly
d. ensures freedom of movement by the pilot during ejection

A

b. properly positions the pilot during ejection

139
Q

In a dual ejection situation with the ISS set to BOTH, which of the following statements are correct?
a. The front seat ejects first even if the rear ejection handle safety pin is installed.
b. The rear seat ejects first even if one ejection handle safety pin is installed.
c. The rear seat is delayed 3.7 seconds even if one ejection handle safety pin is installed.
d. Both seats eject simultaneously even if both ejection handle safety pins are installed.

A

b. The rear seat ejects first even if one ejection handle safety pin is installed.

140
Q

What happens if the ISS is set to SOLO?
a. The rear seat ejects only after the front seat.
b. Only the rear seat can be ejected.
c. The ejection sequence must be initiated for each seat independently.
d. Only the front seat can be ejected.

A

c. The ejection sequence must be initiated for each seat independently.

141
Q

When flying dual, the ISS should be set to ________ to allow __________.
a. BOTH; simultaneous ejections
b. SOLO; either pilot to initiate dual ejections
c. BOTH; either pilot to initiate dual ejections
d. SOLO; both pilots to initiate dual ejections

A

c. BOTH; either pilot to initiate dual ejections

142
Q

The ejection seat catapult cartridge produces pressurized gas to _________.
a. ignite the rocket motor
b. serve as the rocket motor fuel
c. push the seat up the catapult rails
d. release the canopy

A

c. push the seat up the catapult rails

143
Q

during the ejection sequence, the _________ ignites as the seat reaches the top of the rails.
a. rocket motor
b. manifold cartridge
c. rocket motor and the CFS
d. manifold cartridge and the rocket motor

A

a. rocket motor

144
Q

The nozzles on the respective seat rocket motors are configured to ___________.
a. fracture the canopy upon ignition
b. prevent damage to the SSK
c. minimize damage to the cockpits
d. ensure separation between the two seats during ejection

A

d. ensure separation between the two seats during ejection

145
Q

How well the ejection system performs depends on three specific factors which create the operating envelope. those factors are _______.
a. dive angle, bank angle, and sink rate
b. dive angle, airspeed, and sink rate
c. dive angle, bank angle, and aircraft configuration
d. bank angle, airspeed, and sink rate

A

a. dive angle, bank angle, and sink rate

146
Q

The flight manual recommends minimum altitudes for controlled and uncontrolled ejection of _________ and ___________ feet AGL respectively.
a. 1,000 and 4,000
b. 2,000 and 6,000
c. 4,000 and 8,000
d. 6,000 and 2,000

A

b. 2,000 and 6,000

147
Q

What are the two conditions under which you eject?
a. Controlled and uncontrolled
b. Immediate and controlled
c. Immediate and uncontrolled
d. Controlled and delayed

A

a. Controlled and uncontrolled

148
Q

during higher altitude ejections, the head box deployment, drogue chute release, seat separation and parachute deployment are delayed until below __________.
a. 10,000 to 12,000 AGL
b. 10,000 to 12,000 MSL
c. 14,000 to 16,000 AGL
d. 14,000 to 16,000 MSL

A

d. 14,000 to 16,000 MSL

149
Q

The rear seat will eject .37 seconds after the front seat has ejected to ensure separation between seats.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

150
Q

If the SSK Selector is set to AUTO, the seat survival kit is deployed ___________.
a. immediately upon ejection
b. immediately after seat/pilot separation
c. 4.0 seconds after seat/pilot separation
d. 4.0 seconds after ejection sequence is initiated

A

c. 4.0 seconds after seat/pilot separation

T-6B (7 decks)

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