T-6 EPQ Dash 1 Flashcards
During a “pilot-monitored” start, the PCL should be placed to IDLE once N1 reaches ________. (Dash 1, 1-19)
13%
Regardless of which seat initiates the ejection, the rear seat ejects first and the front seat will follow ______ seconds after, with the ISS in BOTH. (Dash 1, 1-56)
0.37
During an auto start, at approximately ______ N1, the starter and igniters are de-energized and the boost pump is deactivated. (Dash 1, 1-19)
50%
The highest possible oxygen concentration is _____________. (Dash 1, 1-121)
95%
With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor limits the Np to at or below _______ at approximately 2120 RPM. (Dash 1, 1-15)
106%
The propeller overspeed limit is ____Np. (Dash 1, 5-8)
110%
Natural stall warning, in the form of light aerodynamic buffet, occurs approximately ____ knots before the stall during power-off stalls in all configurations. (-1 pg 6-4)
3
After completing approximately ____ turns, the spin will have entered a near steady state condition. (-1 pg 6-9)
3
With the SSK (seat survival kit) in AUTO, the SSK is lowered automatically ______ seconds after seat-pilot separation. (Dash 1, 1-57)
4
To test the Aux Battery, position the switch forward for a minimum of _______ seconds. (Dash 1, 2-8)
5
Depending on airspeed, N1 will indicate 0% within approximately __________seconds, even though the gas generator core may not have seized. (Dash 1, 3-8)
5
Maximum permissible crosswind for and icy runway is ____ knots. (Dash 1, 5-10)
5
The stick shaker provides artificial stall warning in each cockpit a minimum of _____ knots before the stall is reached. (-1 pg 6-4)
5
Operations in visible moisture at outside air temperatures of ___ degrees C or below should be avoided. (Dash 1, 7-5)
5
The standby attitude indicator will provide accurate indications for at least _______minutes after a loss of all electrical power. (Dash 1, 3-14)
9
The electric boost pump is activated anytime the pressure in the motive flow line drops below ______ psi and the PCL is above the start ready position.
10
The emergency oxygen system supplies the pilot with oxygen for approximately _______ minutes. (Dash 1, 1-53)
10
There are _______ antennas mounted on the aircraft for navigation and communications. (Dash 1, 1-66)
10
The Emergency Oxygen bottle provides approximately ___________minutes of oxygen. (Dash 1, 3-8)
10
Maximum tailwind component for takeoff is ____ knots. (Dash 1, 5-10)
10
If windshear is suspected on an approach, and unable to divert, set takeoff flaps and fly approach up to ___ knots faster than normal. (Dash 1, 7-3)
10
Upon encountering windshear at low altitude, ensure the PCL is at MAX power and increase pitch attitude to no less than ___ degrees for best rate of climb. (Dash 1, 7-3)
15
The oil system has an oil capacity of _______ U.S. quarts. (Dash 1, 1-6)
18
The automatic fuel balancing system maintains fuel load in each wing to within _______pounds of the other. (Dash 1, 3-20)
20
Do not attempt a battery powered ground start if the battery voltage is below ____volts. (Dash 1, 5-8)
23.5
The GPS can store up to _______ flight plans. (Dash 1, 1-107)
25
The GPS can store up to _______ waypoints in each flight plan. (Dash 1, 1-107)
30
After landing off station, check oil level within ___ minutes of shutdown. (Dash 1, 2-24)
30
Standby instruments (and their associated lighting) and UHF tuning (backup UHF control head) will be powered for approximately ________minutes by the auxiliary battery. (Dash 1, 3-16.1)
30
Maximum lateral fuel imbalance is _____lbs. (Dash 1, 5-12)
50
Above _____% torque, full right rudder and full right aileron may not prevent a left roll off at stall. (-1 pg 6-4)
60
The baggage compartment is limited to _________ lbs. (Dash 1, 1-121)
80
The maximum weight in the baggage compartment is _____lbs. (Dash 1, 5-10)
80
A spin may be entered by maintaining full aft stick and applying full rudder in the desired spin direction at _____ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-9)
80
In no case should the aircraft be slowed below _______KIAS or to activation of the stick shaker, whichever is higher during a controllability check. (Dash 1, 3-21)
90
At approach speeds or below with flaps in the LDG position, full nose right trim is required at _____% torque. (-1 pg 6-2)
100
Altitude lost during recovery from a wings level stall is usually less than ______ feet, assuming a prompt application of recovery power. (-1 pg 6-7)
100
Illumination of the left or right fuel level low annunciator indicates that approximately _______pounds of usable fuel remains in the affected wing tank. (Dash 1, 3-20)
110
Landings have been accomplished at touchdown speeds up to approximately _____KIAS in the normal landing configuration. (Dash 1, 3-21)
110
Maintain a minimum of ________________KIAS when maneuvering to intercept the Emergency Landing Pattern
120
Plan to intercept the emergency landing pattern at or below high key in the appropriate configuration and a minimum airspeed of ________KIAS. (Dash 1, 3-31)
120
A spiral is a rolling and/or yawing motion of the aircraft that is often mistaken for a spin, but is not steady-state in that airspeed is increasing through _____ KIAS and motions are oscillatory. (-1 pg 6-8)
160
For uncoordinated rolling maneuvers initiated at -1 G, the maximum bank angle change is _____ degrees. (Dash 1, 5-9 IS-016)
180
If uncoordinated rolling maneuvers are initiated at -1 G, the maximum bank angle change is ________ degrees. (-1 pg 6-3)
180
Should flight through an area of thunderstorm activity become unavoidable, penetration airspeed of ____ KIAS is recommended. (Dash 1, 7-2)
180
Maximum airspeed for flying through turbulence is _____KIAS. (Dash 1, 5-8)
206
Operating maneuvering speed (Vo) is ______KIAS. (Dash 1, 5-8)
227
If PEL is being performed with IDLE power, add _______feet to high, low and base key altitudes to compensate for drag of un-feathered prop. (Dash 1, 3-31)
500
Maximum rate of descent at touchdown is _____ feet per minute. (Dash 1, 5-10)
780
The PT6A-68 engine has been flat rated to produce _________shaft horsepower. (Dash 1, 1-6)
1100
Pressing and holding the transponder field select key(Left rectangle) for three seconds automatically inputs ______. (Dash 1, 1-73)
1200
Approximately _________ft of altitude will be lost during an airstart attempt performed at best glide speed of 125 KIAS. (Dash 1, 3-10)
1,200
Once the hydraulic system is pressurized to ________ psi the system can be used to power the hydraulic components. (Dash 1, 1-27)
1800
Airstart procedure is not recommended below __________ft AGL, as primary attention should be to eject or safely recover the aircraft. (Dash 1, 3-8)
2,000
The EHYD PX LO annunciator will illuminate whenever emergency hydraulic pressure drops below __________psi indicated. (Dash 1, 3-21)
2400
The hydraulic system is pressurized to ______ psi. (Dash 1, 1-27)
3000
Altitude loss during a typical steady-state spin is approximately ______ feet for a six-turn spin. (-1 pg 6-8)
4500
The T-6A basic empty weight is approximately _______ lbs. (Dash 1, 1-4)
4900
Recommended minimum altitude for uncontrolled ejection is ____________ft AGL. (Dash 1, 3-13)
6,000
Maximum takeoff gross weight is _______ lbs. (Dash1, 1-4)
6500
For best cockpit cooling below ____ feet MSL, set Bleed Air Inflow and Ram Air switches to off. Set temperature controller as required. (Dash 1, 7-6)
7500
Cockpit pressure altitude at 31000 ft is _______ ft. (Dash 1, 1-61)
16600
The CKPT ALT annunciator light illuminates whenever the cockpit pressure altitude exceeds __________feet. (Dash 1, 3-24)
19,000
Airstarts may be attempted at any altitude and airspeed, although airstarts have only been demonstrated at ___________ft MSL and below. (Dash 1, 3-8)
20,000
As the aircraft gets to the missed approach point, the GPS automatically switches the CDI scale to ______ NM. (Dash 1, 1-112)
± 1
Above 18, 769 feet MSL, what is the Maximum operating airspeed (Vmo)? (Dash 1, 5-8)
.67 MACH
What are the asymmetric gear and flaps extended acceleration limits? (Dash 1, 5-9)
ERROR!
What are the symmetric gear and flaps extended acceleration limits? (Dash 1, 5-9)
ERROR!
What are the asymmetric clean acceleration limits? (Dash 1, 5-9)
ERROR!
What are the symmetric clean acceleration limits? (Dash 1, 5-9)
ERROR!
Mach information is blanked below _______ . (Dash 1, 1-41)
0.40 Mach
Should the collector tank fuel probe fail, the fuel level in both wing tanks will each drop __________. (Dash 1, 1-23)
½ the gaged level (approximately 20 lbs per side)
Once recovery controls have been applied, spin rotation will abruptly cease within __________ turns after applying controls. (-1 pg 6-10)
1 ½
The amount of usable oil is __________. (Dash 1, 1-121)
1 Qt
The fuel transfer pumps pressurize the collector tank to ______ psi. (Dash 1, 1-24)
1 to 1.5
When parking on ramps with greater than ______ slope, the fuel system may vent fuel overboard through the pressure relief valve on the _______ wing. (Dash 1, 1-21)
1%, Low
The hydraulic system has a total hydraulic fluid capacity of ________. (Dash 1, 1-27)
1.25 gal
If gusty winds are present during takeoff, increase rotation speed by __________. (Dash 1, 2-15)
1/2 the gust factor (up to 10 knots)
With the PMU OFF, permissible maximum Np is? (Dash 1, 5-7)
100 ± 2 %
For AOA approaches/landings, optimum approach airspeed is ________. (Dash 1, 1-46)
100 knots minus approximately one knot for every 100 lbs of fuel used
With the PMU offline, the mechanical overspeed governor limits the Np to at or below _______ at approximately 2000 RPM. (Dash 1, 1-15)
100±2%
The “Green Arc” on the angle of attack indicator indicates: (Dash 1, 5-3)
10-11 units
Best glide speed with gear down, flaps up, and speed brake up is approximately _____ KIAS with a sink rate of __________ fpm. (-1 pg 6-4)
105, 1500
With the PCL at MAX, the engine is rated to produce at least _______shp and indicate ____% torque below critical altitude on a standard day? (Dash 1, 5-7)
1100, 100
In a runaway trim situation, except when trim is at full nose down, reducing airspeed to ____________KIAS will reduce control forces. (Dash 1, 3-23)
110-150
The amber L/R FUEL LO annunciator indicates fuel quantity below approximately _________ in the respective wing tank. (Dash 1, 1-24)
112 lbs
What is the critical altitude, which is the altitude at which maximum sea level horsepower is no longer available? (Dash 1, 5-7)
12,000 - 16,000 feet MSL
Nose wheel tire pressure is ___________. (Dash 1, 1-121)
120 ± 5 psi
100% torque is available from sea level to approximately __________ on a standard day. (Dash 1, 1-6)
12000 to 16000 ft MSL
Recommended entry speed for a Split S is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
120-140
Best glide speed in clean configuration is approximately _____ KIAS with a sink rate of __________ fpm. (-1 pg 6-4)
125, 1100-1300
What is the maximum airspeed with the flaps extended? (Dash 1, 5-8)
150 KIAS
What is the maximum airspeed during flap operation? (Dash 1, 5-8)
150 KIAS
The maximum airspeed with the landing gear extended (VLE) or during landing gear operation is? (Dash 1, 5-8)
150 KIAS
A pitch attitude of __________ degrees nose high provides the best entry into a spin. (-1 pg 6-9)
15-20
________ units indicates a stall on the AOA gage. (Dash 1, 1-45)
18 (red arc)
- The “Red Arc” on the angle of attack indicator indicates: (Dash 1, 5-3)
18 units
The nose wheel is a free castoring type with ______ degrees of castor. (Dash 1, 1-32)
180 (90 left and right of center)
Recommended entry speed for an Aileron Roll is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
180-220
What is the cooling period for the second starter duty cycle? (Dash 1, 5-8)
2 minutes
As aircraft gets to within ________ NM of the FAF with a loaded approach, the GPS automatically switches to approach active and the CDI changes to ______ NM. (Dash 1, 1-112)
2, ± 0.3
After a start is automatically or manually aborted and fuel has been introduced, the engine must be manually motored for _________ to clear any residual fuel from the engine. (Dash 1, 1-19)
20 sec
The OBOGS TEMP annunciator illuminates when the ducting exceeds ___________. (Dash 1, 1-119)
200°F
Recommended minimum altitudes for ejection are _________ft AGL for controlled ejection and __________ft AGL for uncontrolled ejection. (Dash 1, 3-25)
2000, 6000
Recommended entry speed for a Lazy Eight is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
200-220
Recommended entry speed for a Clover Leaf is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
200-220
Recommended entry speed for a Barrel Roll is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
200-220
Recommended entry speed for a Chandelle is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
200-250
Main gear tire pressure is ___________. (Dash 1, 1-121)
225 ± 5 psi
Spin rotation rates will stabilize to approximately ____________ seconds per turn with altitude loss of ____________ feet per turn. (-1 pg 6-9)
2-3, 400-500
Recommended entry speed for a Loop is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
230-250
Recommended entry speed for an Immelmann is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
230-250
Recommended entry speed for a Cuban Eight is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
230-250
The emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits an audible tone on _________. (Dash 1, 1-76)
243.0 MHz; 121.5 MHz
The electrical system uses a __________ as the secondary power source. (Dash 1, 1-26)
24VDC, 5 amp-hr auxiliary battery
External ground power must provide _____________. (Dash 1, 1-121)
28-28.5 VDC, 1000-1500 Amps
The electrical system uses a __________ as the primary power source. (Dash 1, 1-24)
28VDC, 300 amp starter/generator
At 100% indicated torque, the engine is producing approximately ________ of torque at the prop shaft. (Dash 1, 1-6)
2900 ft-lbs
Normal cockpit indications when the emergency extension system is used are ___________. (Dash 1, 1-31)
3 green, 2 red (doors), 1 red (handle)
The OBOGS BIT (Built in Test) lasts __________. (Dash 1, 1-119)
3 min
The cockpit pressurization schedule limit is _________psi. (Dash 1, 5-12)
3.6 ± .1
An 8000 ft cockpit altitude is maintained until a differential pressure of _________ is reached at 18069 ft. (Dash 1, 1-61)
3.6 ± 0.1 psi
The amber FUEL BAL annunciator illuminates any time a indicated fuel imbalance exceeds ______ between the wing tanks for _______, or a fuel probe fails. (Dash 1, 1-24)
30 lbs, 2 min
During emergencies, the auxiliary battery will power the standby instruments, backup UHF control and the FIRE 1 detection system for approximately __________. (Dash 1, 1-26)
30 min
What is the cooling period for the forth starter duty cycle? (Dash 1, 5-8)
30 minutes
What is the cooling period for the first starter duty cycle? (Dash 1, 5-8)
30 seconds
As aircraft gets to within ________ NM of an airport with a loaded approach, the GPS automatically switches to approach arm and the CDI changes to ______ NM over a 30 second transition period. (Dash 1, 1-111)
30, ± 1
If bleed air temperature in the environmental system duct exceeds _______ at any time, the DUCT TEMP annunciator will illuminate. (Dash 1, 1-61)
300°F
The reduction gearbox reduces the power turbine output shaft speed from ________ to ________ RPM. (Dash 1, 1-12)
30000, 2000
Should the middle fuel probe fail, the affected tank will show a normal fuel level until the fuel level drops below the outer fuel probe. The fuel will then drop to the best indication for the next inboard (inner) fuel probe ( __________ ) and remain there until enough fuel is used to drop below the failed fuel probe. (Dash 1, 1-23)
308 ± 50 lbs
What is the Maximum operating airspeed (Vmo) at and below 18, 769 feet MSL? (Dash 1, 5-8)
316 KIAS
The maximum allowable airspeed is: (Dash 1, 5-3)
316 KIAS/ .67 MACH
________ units indicates max range on the AOA gage. (Dash 1, 1-45)
4.9 (white triangle)
- The “White triangle (max range)” on the angle of attack indicator indicates: (Dash 1, 5-3)
4.9 units
The canopy shall not be opened on the ground when the surface winds exceed ___________.( Dash 1, 5-12)
40 knots
Maximum cruise power is the PCL position which yields an ITT ____°C below the observed maximum ITT at critical altitude, not to exceed 780°C. (Dash 1, 5-8)
40°C
The recommended enroute descent procedure is power and configuration as required and descent rate of _____. (Dash 1, 2-16)
4000 fpm
Should the outer fuel probe fail, the affected tank will show a fuel level drop to the best indication for the next inboard (middle) fuel probe ( __________ ) and remain there until enough fuel is used to drop below the failed fuel probe. (Dash 1, 1-23)
445 ± 50 lbs
Once the emergency firewall shutoff handle is pulled the engine will continue to run for approximately _______. (Dash 1, 1-24)
5 - 10 sec
What is the cooling period for the third starter duty cycle? (Dash 1, 5-8)
5 minutes
Expect to lose approximately _____ feet for every turn of a spin with an additional ___________ feet for a normal dive. (-1 pg 6-10)
500, 1500-2000
The wing tanks and central collector tank each hold ________ lbs of fuel respectively. (Dash 1, 1-21)
530, 40
The standby attitude indicator provides accurate pitch and roll indications within _____ degrees for a period of _____ min after all electrical power is lost. (Dash 1, 1-42)
6, 9
To prevent ground resonance within the propeller, stabilized operation of the propeller in the __________ range is prohibited on the ground. (Dash 1, 2-13)
62% to 80% Np
Sustained propeller operation on the ground between _________Np is prohibited to prevent damage from ground resonance. (Dash 1, 5-8)
62-80%
What is the maximum takeoff weight? (Dash 1, 5-10)
6500 lbs
What is the maximum landing weight? (Dash 1, 5-10)
6500 lbs
The PMU limits the flight idle N1 to ________ and the ground idle N1 to _________. (Dash 1, 1-18.1)
67,60
For optimum engine life, the PCL should be retarded with the defog on to maintain ITT at or below ______. (Dash 1, 1-62)
740°C
A pressure altitude switch prevents bleed air inflow anytime the air conditioner clutch is engaged below ________. (Dash 1, 1-61)
7500 ft MSL
________ units indicates max endurance on the AOA gage. (Dash 1, 1-45)
8.8 (white diamond)
- The “White Diamond (max endurance)” on the angle of attack indicator indicates: (Dash 1, 5-3)
8.8 units
Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will not make any further trim inputs until the aircraft accelerates to at least ______. (Dash 1, 1-39)
80 KIAS, no weight on wheels
Hydroplaning can occur above ___ knots for the nose tire and above ___ knots of the main tires. (Dash 1, 7-5)
85, 115
The canopy is held in the open position by ________. (Dash 1, 1-48)
a canopy lock
The PMU is powered by ___________. (Dash 1, 1-19)
A dedicated permanent magnet alternator (PMA)
Inverted flight is made possible by __________. (Dash 1, 1-21)
A flip-flop valve located in the collector tank
An incipient spin can be identified by an oscillatory spin like motion, ________________ , ______________, and airspeed that is accelerating or decelerating toward the steady-state value. (-1 pg 6-8)
a fully-deflected turn needle, a stalled angle of attack
The PT6A-68 engine contains ____________. (Dash 1, 1-4)
A gas generator section; A power turbine section
During a wings level power-on stall, _________ rolling tendency is induced at stall by engine torque before reaching full aft stick. (-1 pg 6-4)
A left
If the maximum allowable airspeed limit is exceeded what will occur? (Dash 1, 5-3)
A red arc will appear between the indicated airspeed and the maximum allowable airspeed pointer.
…
A table representation of the traffic
___________ is used to provide cockpit cooling. (Dash 1, 1-59)
A vapor cycle system
T-6 primary controls include _______________. (Dash 1, 1-34)
A, B and C
When talking about the T-6A propeller, which of the following are true? (Dash 1, 1-15)
Aluminum, 97 inch; Four bladed; Constant speed, Variable pitch
Altitude loss during dive recovery is determined by the following independent factors. (-1 pg 6-11)
Angle of dive, and acceleration maintained during pullout; Altitude at start of pullout, airspeed at start of pullout
If departure from controlled flight progresses into a steady state spin, typical indications will be: (Dash 1, 3-13)
AOA 18+; Airspeed 110-125 KIAS
PROBES ANTI-ICE controls icing for _________. (Dash 1, 1-44)
AOA vein; Pitot tubes
Indications of an active GPS Approach are ____________. (Dash 1, 1-111)
APP ACT appears in lower right corner of EHSI; GPS course needle centers
The T-6A fuel system provides ______ of usable fuel through the single point refueling system. (Dash 1, 1-21)
approximately 1100 lbs
Should the inner fuel probe fail, the affected tank will show a normal fuel level until the fuel level drops below the middle fuel probe. Fuel level will then drop to the best indication for the collector tank, which is divided evenly between sides ( __________ ). (Dash 1, 1-23)
approximately 20 lbs per side
The PCL (Power Control Lever) _________. (Dash 1, 1-12/15)
Are interconnected with a push-pull rod between the cockpits; Is connected to the FMU in the front cockpit; Has a friction control adjustment in the front cockpit only; Contains speed brake, rudder trim, UHF/VHF radio, and intercommunication system switches
Taxi over raised arresting cables (such as BAK 9, BAK 12, and /or BAK 13) at? (Dash 1, 5-10)
As slow a speed as possible.
During the start sequence, the PCL may be advanced to IDLE any time N1 is _________. (Dash 1, 1-19)
At or above 60%
An aggravated spin is caused by ____________. (-1 pg 6-9)
B and C
The weight and balance of the aircraft shall be checked to determine that gross weight and CG limitations are not exceeded for which of the following? (Dash 1, 5-9)
Baggage compartment is used.; Overwing refueling.
If the generator has failed and the bus tie is open, only items on the ______ buss/es will be powered. (Dash 1, 1-26)
Battery
For high altitude ejections, seat-man separation and parachute deployment are delayed until ________. (Dash 1, 1-52)
below 15000 ft MSL
Illumination of the DUCT TEMP annunciator indicates that: (Dash 1, 3-23)
Bleed air temp in the environmental systems duct has exceeded 300 deg F; Bleed air temp in the defog duct has exceeded 300 deg F
The interseat sequencing selector located in the aft cockpit must be in ______ to allow both seats to eject once one ejection handle is pulled. (Dash 1, 1-52)
BOTH
The NACWS traffic advisory is which type of symbol? (Dash 1, 1-91)
Both B and C
Activation of either external CFS handle activates which canopy fracturing system? (Dash 1, 1-50)
Both transparencies
The _________ allows isolation of the battery and generator buses. (Dash 1, 1-26)
Bus Tie switch
Slight control stick inputs _________ result in airspeed or altitude deviations, from hands off trim condition. (-1 pg 6-3)
Can
With the engine out, flaps _________ be deployed prior to extending the landing gear in a power-off glide because the engine driven hydraulic pump is not operating. (-1 pg 6-4)
Cannot
The hydraulic system is used to operate all of the following, except. (Dash 1, 1-27)
Canopy
Should the canopy latch mechanism and microswitches indicate the canopy is not closed and locked, which red annunciator will illuminate? (Dash 1, 1-48)
CANOPY
In the event of canopy fracture system failure, each seat is fitted with a _______ to fracture the transparency. (Dash 1, 1-50)
canopy breaker
The right P3 port provides bleed air for the ___________. (Dash 1, 1-27)
Canopy seal and anti-G system; ECS
An operating procedure, technique, etc., which could result in damage to equipment is a _________. (Dash 1, iii)
Caution
Should the FUEL PX annunciator illuminate and the boost pump activate during inverted flight, you should _____. (Dash 1, 1-21)
Cease inverted maneuvers and notify maintenance after flight
Compressor stalls may be identified by: (Dash 1, 3-12.2)
Change in engine noise (loud bang or backfire); Fluctuating Torque; Fluctuating ITT, N1, and Fuel Flow
The anti-G system utilizes _________ to supply pressure for the anti-G suit. (Dash 1, 1-57)
conditioned engine bleed air
___________ is used to provide cockpit heating and pressurization. (Dash 1, 1-59)
Conditioned engine bleed air
The best response to a spiral is to neutralize the ___________ and reduce ____________ until motion stops. (-1 pg 6-8)
Controls, the power to IDLE
The pressure seal is pneumatically inflated using _____________ from the anti-G system. (Dash 1, 1-48)
Cooled engine bleed air
Factor(s) which effect glide performance are________. (-1 pg 6-4)
coordinated or uncoordinated flight; angle of bank and aircraft configuration; airspeed
The ___________ is the only interior light which is not dimmable. (Dash 1, 1-115)
Digital clock
Entry into idle power, erect spins is characterized by roll and yaw in the ___________________ is applied. (-1 pg 6-9)
Direction rudder
To transmit on VHF, press the toggle ______. (Dash 1, 1-69)
Down
A _________ is used to stabilize and reduce the forward speed of the ejection seat. (Dash 1, 1-52)
drogue parachute
Selecting ___________, opens the control valve and allows bleed air inflow to continue. (Dash 1, 1-63)
DUMP
________ is the only indication of emergency hydraulic system health. (Dash 1, 1-28)
EHYD PX LO
Once extended, the speed brake remains extended until ____________. (Dash 1, 1-34)
either switch is moved forward to retract; the flaps are extended; the PCL is moved to MAX
________ provides fuel for initial engine start and serves as a backup to the engine-driven low-pressure fuel pump. (Dash 1, 1-24)
Electric boost pump
Momentarily placing the starter switch in the AUTO/RESET position ________. (Dash 1, 1-12)
Engages the starter and energizes the spark ignition system
When shutting the engine down, the PCL must be fully in the OFF position to preclude _______. (Dash 1, 1-19)
Engine damage; Fuel from entering the engine and causing a possible over temperature
The _________ routes fuel to the engine-driven high-pressure fuel pump and the FMU. (Dash 1, 1-21)
Engine driven low pressure fuel pump
If the following situation(s) occur(s) during ground operations, execute the EMERGENCY ENGINE SHUTDOWN boldface: (Dash 1, 3-4)
Engine Fire; Prop Strike; Chip Light
The directional trim is commanded by the trim aid computer as a function of? (-1 pg 6-2)
engine torque and indicated airspeed; pressure altitude and pitch rate.
Failure to route the lap belt over the SSK lines may result in _________. (Dash 1, 1-57)
entanglement with the SSK lines
The ejection seat pilot weight limits of 121 minimum and 271 maximum include the following. (Dash 1, 5-12)
Equipment and flight gear
If landing with a known wheel brake failure in one wheel, land on the side of the runway corresponding to the _________brake. (Dash 1, 3-36)
Failed
The red OIL PX annunciator illuminates if the oil pressure _____________. (Dash 1, 1-6)
Falls below 40 psi with PCL above IDLE; Falls below 15 psi with PCL at IDLE
(T/F) The aircraft shall be flown solo from the rear cockpit only? (Dash 1, 5-2)
FALSE
(T/F) Use of the nose wheel steering for takeoff or landing is acceptable? (Dash 1, 5-10)
FALSE
The OBOGS (On-Board Oxygen Generating System) is only usable for 30 days, then must be recharged. (Dash 1, 1-119)
False -
(T/F) Operations in known icing conditions is permitted provided it is only trace icing. (Dash 1, 5-12)
False - may not operate in any known icing conditions.
(T/F) Maximum crosswind component for wet runway is 5 knots. (Dash 1, 5-10)
False - 10kts
With the ISS selector set to BOTH, only the seats with the ejection handle safety pin removed will eject. (Dash 1, 1-56)
False - both seats will eject even if one has a safety pin installed with the ISS in BOTH. At least one pin must be removed.
Single point pressure refueling fills the collector tank then the low wing before the high wing. (Dash 1, 1-21)
False - both wings are filled simultaneously.
(T/F) The maximum range power-off glide airspeed remains the same with changes in aircraft configuration. (-1 pg 6-4)
False - Clean = 125, Gear = 105, Gear/Flaps = 95
The PT6A-68 free turbine turboprop engine is a reverse flow design with air entering the engine from the front. (Dash 1, 1-4)
False - enters in the rear of the engine.
Both OBOGS supply levers must be ON to operate the OBOGS. (Dash 1, 1-121)
False - if either regulator is ON, the OBOGS system is operative.
The database information is accurate only after the aircraft is accepted from the factory. (Dash 1, 1-97)
False - is only accurate if it is used before the expiration data.
(T/F) If control of EHSI display is lost, it is not possible to control EHSI functions from the other cockpit. (Dash 1, 3-18)
FALSE - it MAY BE possible to control the EHSI functions from the other cockpit.
(T/F) After initial power-up, the OBOGS FAIL annunciator will be inhibited for two minutes during OBOGS monitor warmup. (Dash 1, 2-12)
False - it takes 3 minutes for the warmup sequence to be completed.
If oil pressure is lost, the propeller will automatically freeze in its present pitch position. (Dash 1, 1-15)
False - it will automatically move to the feathered position due to the feathering spring and counterweights.
The selection of DEFOG will not affect ITT. (Dash 1, 1-62)
False - it will increase ITT due to the higher bleed air load on the engine.
The front cockpit should confirm the flaps position with the rear cockpit since the flaps cannot be visually verified from the front cockpit. (Dash 1, 1-33)
False - Neither cockpit can visually see the flaps because the flaps are hinged to the lower surface of the wing.
The gear may be retracted after being extended with the emergency system.
False - Not until the aircraft is serviced by maintenance.
The OBOGS will continue to work, even after engine failure, as long as there is power supplied to the battery bus. (Dash 1, 1-119)
False - OBOGS will fail due to the lack of bleed air supplied from the engine after failure.
(T/F) The maximum allowable airspeed (red striped) pointer is not self adjusting for altitude on the Standby airspeed indicator? (Dash 1, 5-3)
False - on the electronic airspeed indicator
The TAD automatically sets takeoff trim in the yaw axis after engine start.
False - once turned on
The gear UP/flaps LDG and the gear UP/ aircraft on the ground warnings may be cancelled by pressing the silence switch.
False - Only the gear UP/power low warning can be cancelled.
Static ports are protected from icing by electrical heating elements. (Dash 1, 1-39)
False - only the pitot tubes are protected thru pitot heat. The static ports are protected from icing by airframe location.
(T/F) With the ISS selector set to SOLO, both seats will eject if the handle is pulled. (Dash 1, 2-4)
False - only the seat that initiates ejection will eject.
(T/F) Recovery from inadvertent loss of aircraft control, including poststall gyrations and incipient spins, can be accomplished by promptly advancing power to MAX, and positively neutralizing flight controls in all axes. (-1 pg 6-8)
False - Power to IDLE
The emergency firewall shutoff handle can only be reset by maintenance personnel. (Dash 1, 1-21)
False - pushing the handle down will reset the valves.
The gear handle must be down in order to lower the gear with the emergency extension. (Dash 1, 1-31)
False - Regardless of the landing gear control position, the landing gear will extend and lock down.
(T/F) Selection of IDLE power automatically retracts the speed brake. (Dash 1, 2-17)
False - Selection of MAX, lowering the gear/flaps or raising the speed brake.
The stand-by attitude indicator should be uncaged and adjusted after applying power and caged and locked after removing power. (Dash 1, 1-43)
False - Should be uncaged prior to applying power and caged prior to removing power.
The TAD is designed to completely trim the aircraft in yaw and allow the pilot to fly “Feet off”. (Dash 1, 1-39)
False - some rudder trim will be required.
You should not press the master caution or master warning switchlights to clear a malfunction since that will clear the illuminated annunciators on the annunciator panel. (Dash 1, 1-118)
False - the annunciators on the annunciator panel will only clear after pressing the MC/MW lights IF the problem has corrected itself.
If an OBOGS failure occurs, the pilot must drop his or her mask to receive oxygen or pull the emergency oxygen handle. (Dash 1, 1-119)
False - the anti-suffocation valve will allow the pilot to breath cockpit ambient air.
If the aircraft hydraulics are reading zero, brake failure will also be expected. (Dash 1, 1-33)
False - the brake system is independent of the aircraft hydraulic system. The brake system is not affected by a failure of the aircraft hydraulic system.
When properly locked, care should be taken with the canopy handle since it may be rotated aft without raising the unlock lever. (Dash 1, 1-50)
False - The canopy handle CANNOT be rotated without raising the unlock lever.
The GPS always displays distance to the active waypoint. During GPS approaches, this distance will always be the same as the published DME distance on the intrument approach procedure. (Dash 1, 1-110)
False - The distance MAY NOT be the same as the published IAP.
Operation of the CFS system disable the firing of either ejection seat. (Dash 1, 1-52)
False - the ejection seat is still hot.
Prior to pulling the ejection handle the emergency oxygen must be pulled to provide oxygen for the pilot. (Dash 1, 1-52)
False - the emergency oxygen is activated when ejection is initiated.
The engine may be shutdown by lifting the PCL over the cutoff stop. (Dash 1, 1-15)
False - the fingerlift must be raised to place the PCL into the OFF position.
The entire T-6 canopy is thick enough to protect against birdstrikes. (Dash 1, 1-48)
False - The front windscreen and front transparency are thicker than the rear transparency.
(T/F) Both OBOGS regulators deactivate when the battery is turned off. (Dash 1, 2-23)
False - the OBOGS is located on the Hot Battery bus and will deplete the battery power if left on.
Firing of one seat while the ISS selector is set to SOLO prevents the other seat from firing. (Dash 1, 1-56)
False - the other seat may still eject.
Both cockpits have a complete environmental control panel. (Dash 1, 1-62)
False - the rear cockpit only has a fan control switch.
(T/F) If the flaps are extended, the speed brake will not retract if extended. (-1 pg 6-3)
False - the SB will automatically retract if the flaps are set to any other position than UP.
(T/F) The pilot is required to change the trim during speed brake operation. (-1 pg 6-3)
False - The speed brake-elevator interconnect reduces the pitch tendency.
When manually balancing the fuel system, the fuel system will automatically reset the auto balance system once the fuel load has been balanced to within approximately 20 lbs. (Dash 1, 1-23)
False - The system must be manually reset by placing the fuel balance switch back to AUTO.
During emergency operation, the hydraulic system will allow a one-time extension of the landing gear only. (Dash 1, 1-27)
False - the system will allow a one-time extension of the landing gear, landing gear doors, and the flaps.
If the main oil filter becomes clogged, the engine will overheat and seize due to absence of lubrication. (Dash 1, 1-6)
False - there is a filter bypass valve that allows unfiltered oil to continue to lubricate the engine.
The gas generator section shaft drives the reduction gearbox. (Dash 1, 1-12)
False - There is no mechanical connection between the gas generator section and the RGB. Hot gases drive the RGB from the gas generator section.
The landing gear control handle and gear lights are illuminated in both cockpits when the lamp test switch is activated. (Dash 1, 1-116)
False - they are only activated in the cockpit which activated the lamp test.
(T/F) The turn needle will be fully deflected in the opposite direction of the spin. (-1 pg 6-9)
False - turn needle will show the direction of the spin.
The only way to transmit and receive on UHF GUARD is to manually dial in GUARD (243.0 MHz) or use a preset with GUARD saved. (Dash 1, 1-69)
False - UHF simultaneously and continuously monitors GUARD freq (243.0 MHz)
Should the engine-driven high pressure fuel pump fail, along with the electric boost pump and engine-driven low pressure pump, the engine will receive enough fuel to continue to run from motive flow suction. (Dash 1, 1-24)
False - without the suction from the high pressure engine-driven fuel pump the engine will flameout and will not be able to be restarted.
The autostart feature will not automatically terminate the ground start sequence upon detection of a malfunction such as a hung or hot start. (Dash 1, 1-18.1)
False - yes it will.
(T/F) To avoid damaging the rudder trim tab and trim mechanism, push gently on rudder trim tab when checking rudder movement. (Dash 1, 2-7)
False - you should NOT push or pull on the rudder trim tabs.
(T/F) 5 seconds is the inverted flight time limit? (Dash 1, 5-8)
False (15 seconds)
(T/F) Aerobatic operation is prohibited with indicated fuel quantities below 150 lbs total fuel (yellow arc on gage)? (Dash 1, 5-12)
False (150 lbs per side)
(T/F) If the rear pilot weight exceeds 250 lbs (including gear) the weight and balance of the aircraft shall be checked? (Dash 1, 5-9)
False (260 lbs )
(T/F) The cockpit DP display changes to red and overpressurization safety valve opens at 3.9 psi. (Dash 1, 5-12)
False (4.0 psi)
(T/F) The aircraft will decelerate rapidly with power in a dive. (-1 pg 6-3)
False (accelerate)
(T/F) The roll trim authority is insufficient to trim the aircraft laterally, with the maximum allowable fuel imbalance of 50 pounds at all airspeeds and configurations. (-1 pg 6-2)
False (adequate)
(T/F) A poststall gyration can occur at high airspeed but not at low airspeed. (-1 pg 6-7)
False (both high and low airspeed)
(T/F) The stick shaker intensifies noticeably as the flap limit airspeed is approached. (-1 pg 6-3)
False (Buffeting intensifies)
(T/F) The starter duty cycle is limited to three 20 second cycles? (Dash 1, 5-8)
False (four 20 second cycles)
(T/F) The aircraft is cleared to operate on soft surfaced runways (grass, gravel or similar). (Dash 1, 5-12)
False (hard surfaced runways)
(T/F) Intentional spins are prohibited? (Dash 1, 5-8.1)
False (intentional inverted spins are prohibited)
(T/F) Intentional inverted stalls are not prohibited? (Dash 1, 5-8.1)
False (they are prohibited)
(T/F) The trim aid computer will completely trim the aircraft directionally? (-1 pg 6-2)
False (will not)
(T/F) The FUEL BAL annunciator will illuminate when there is greater than a 20 pound difference between the left and right wing tanks for more than two minutes. (Dash 1, 3-20)
FALSE -30 pound difference
(T/F) The Propeller will NOT feather unless the PCL is in IDLE. (Dash 1, 3-8)
FALSE -PCL must be in CUT OFF to feather the prop.
The stick shaker activates approximately ________ knots prior to the stall. (Dash 1, 1-47)
five to ten
The canopy fracturing system uses __________ to fracture the front transparency and ___________ to fracture the rear transparency. (Dash 1, 1-50)
flexible linear shaped charge, mild detonating cord
The _________ provides a minimum 15 second supply of fuel regardless of orientation, and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system. (Dash 1, 1-21)
Flip-flop valve
The active flight plan is always displayed as ________. (Dash 1, 1-107)
FPL 0
When the emergency firewall shutoff handle is pulled _________ is shutoff. (Dash 1, 1-21)
Fuel flow; Hydraulic fluid; Bleed air
If the ________ ground personnel will not be able to operate canopy fracturing system in an emergency. (Dash 1, 2-7)
ground egress door is locked
A ___________ cools engine bleed air so that the bleed air is provided to the suit at a comfortable temperature. (Dash 1, 1-59)
heat exchanger
The _________ provides pressure to drive a metal bellows, which provides pressure for emergency landing gear and flap operation. (Dash 1, 1-28)
helium precharge
The sensor tubes in the overheat and fire detection system contain ________. (Dash 1, 1-19)
Helium; Hydrogen
Spins below 10,000 feet MSL are prohibited due to ______________________ which occur during the spin maneuver with the propeller RPM below 80%.(-1 pg 6-9)
High stresses on the propeller
The _________ allows approximately 45 cubic inches of hydraulic fluid to pass until the pressure on the main side and the emergency side is approximately equal. (Dash 1, 1-28)
hydraulic fuse
The _________ prevents the loss of all hydraulic fluid from the main system to the emergency system, allowing gear and flaps to be lowered using the main system. (Dash 1, 1-28)
hydraulic fuse
The ________ is used to pressurize the hydraulic system and emergency accumulator to 3000 psi. (Dash 1, 1-27)
Hydraulic pump
When will the FUEL PX annunciator illuminate? (Dash 1, 3-19)
If engine feed fuel pressure drops below 10 psi; The boost pump fails to engage automatically
At what point will external power be disconnected from the aircrafts electrical system. (Dash 1, 1-26)
If external voltage reaches 29.2 VDC
The spin-like motion that occurs between a postal gyration and a fully-developed spin is called an _____________.(-1 pg 6-8)
Incipient spin
During hot weather operations ground speed will be _____ , during takeoff, for the same IAS when compared to operations at cooler temperatures. (Dash 1, 7-7)
Increased
What is the defining characteristic of an upright, wings-level stall? (-1 pg 6-4)
Increased buffet; Roll off; Wing-drop; Roll-off and wing-drop
The reversible flight control system becomes more sensitive as airspeed _______.(-1 pg 6-3)
Increases
A __________ is used to lock the main gear in the down position. (Dash 1, 1-30)
Internal lock
The 28V generator _________. (Dash 1, 1-26)
Is the primary power source; Is regulated by a generator control unit; Is sufficient to operate all equipment on the generator bus and battery bus; Has sufficient power to charge the 24V battery
In order to shut off the emergency oxygen system__________. (Dash 1, 1-53)
It cannot be shut off once activated
Leg garters should be attached __________. (Dash 1, 1-53)
just above the boots
Which systems are inoperative when the HYDR FL LO annunciator is illuminated: (Dash 1, 3-20.1)
Landing gear normal extension; Flap normal extension; Speed brake and NWS
Failure to route the __________ SSK lines may result in entanglement with the SSK lines during seat-pilot separation. (Dash 1, 2-8)
lap belt over
The _________ are designed to prevent leg injuries due to flailing during ejections. (Dash 1, 1-53)
leg restraint system
The standby magnetic compass is accurate during _____________. (Dash 1, 1-43)
level, unaccelerated flight
Initial indications of engine failure/flameout are: (Dash 1, 3-8)
Loss of power and airspeed; Rapid decay in N1, torque, and ITT; Propeller movement towards feather
The auto balance system __________. (Dash 1, 1-23)
Maintains the fuel load in each tank within 20 lbs of the each other; Activates the transfer valve to close the motive flow line to the light tank; Illuminates the amber FUEL BAL annunciator should the imbalance exceed 30 lbs for more than 2 min.
The _____________ initiates seat-pilot separation if the automatic system fails, or if seat-pilot separation is desired above 15000 ft MSL. (Dash 1, 1-53)
manual override handle (MOR)
The auto balance system ________ reset to provide an additional two minutes for the automatic system to balance fuel load. (Dash 1, 1-23)
May be
The generator switches are _______ held and ________ interlocked, to allow the generator to be controlled from either cockpit. (Dash 1, 1-26)
Mechanically, electrically
The battery switches are _______ held and ________ interlocked, to allow the generator to be controlled from either cockpit. (Dash 1, 1-26)
Mechanically, electrically
The engine data manager (EDM) _____________. (Dash 1, 1-15)
Monitors engine operating parameters and illuminates the appropriate annunciator when necessary; Drives the primary and alternate engine system displays, and the engine/systems/NACWS display; Aids the fuel system in fuel balancing and quantity indications
As airspeed increases, trim appears to become ___________________.(-1 pg 6-2)
More effective
Do what to the aircraft if winds are expected above 80 knots. (Dash 1, 1-122)
Move the aircraft to a hangar.
With the interphone control set to HOT, pressing the ICS KEY/MUTE switch ___________.(Dash 1, 1-68)
Mutes all external incoming audio
The primary pitot system probe is located ________. (Dash 1, 1-39)
Near the right wingtip
Pulsing the trim control is ___________ to avoid over-trimming at higher airspeeds. (-1 pg 6-2)
Necessary
What is the time limit for operation at maximum power? (Dash 1, 5-8)
No limit
If the generator will not reset, very the starter switch is in ________. The starter will drain battery power in ________minutes if left in MANUAL. (Dash 1, 3-12)
NORM, 10
An operating procedure, technique, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize is a _________. (Dash 1, iii)
Note
The left P3 port provides bleed air for the ____________. (Dash 1, 1-27)
OBOGS
With the bleed air inflow switch set to OFF position, the following systems will be operational: (Dash 1, 3-24)
OBOGS
What is the best means of recovery if a progressive spin is inadvertently encountered? (-1 pg 6-9)
OCF procedure
What is the best means of recovery if an aggravated spin is inadvertently encountered? (-1 pg 6-9)
OCF procedure
If the PMU terminates the start, or if the start is manually aborted, retard the PCL to ______ and manually motor the engine for ___ seconds. (Dash 1, 2-10.1)
off, 20
How many times may the PMU be reset? (Dash 1, 1-18.2)
Once, if fails again set to off and continue flight in manual mode.
The oil quantity operating range is between full and ? (Dash 1, 5-7)
One quart low for normal operation.
The _________ prevents backflow from the emergency system to the main system, allowing the gear and flaps to be lowered using the emergency system. (Dash 1, 1-28)
one way check valve
During rear seat ejection, which of the following are true? (Dash 1, 1-50)
Only the rear transparency detonates; The rear seat ejects prior to the first seat should the ISS be in BOTH.
Setting the bus tie switch to ______ is the only action required to lower electrical load enough for the main battery to last at least 30 minutes if the generator fails in flight. (Dash 1, 1-27)
OPEN
All stopping distances computed from Appendix A are based on _______. (Dash 1, 2-22)
Optimum Braking
With ailerons held in the directions of spin rotation, roll and yaw become noticeably _________________.(-1 pg 6-9)
Oscillatory
Which of the following is true regarding the activation of the CFS by ground personnel. (Dash 1, 1-52)
Personnel should face away from the canopy when activating the CFS.; The handle lanyard must be pulled to the full extent of its 10 foot length.
An incipient spin is characterized by oscillations in ________. (-1 pg 6-8)
Pitch and roll; Yaw attitudes and rates
The air data computer (ADC) receives ________ information and develops airspeed, altitude, and climb rate parameters. (Dash 1, 1-41)
Pitot/static
Which indications will you receive with the PMU OFF. (Dash 1, 1-18.1)
PMU FAIL; PMU STATUS
Illumination of the CHIP annunciator indicates: (Dash 1, 3-15)
Possible metal contamination in engine oil supply
In general, OCF can be divided into which following categories: (-1 pg 6-7)
Poststall gyrations and steady state-spins; Poststall spins and incipient spins
What device automatically controls the propeller blade angle (pitch) and propeller speed (Np)? (Dash 1, 1-15)
Power management unit (PMU); Propeller interface unit (PIU)
The _________ prevents damage from high system pressures. (Dash 1, 1-28)
pressure relief valve
The _________ feeds fuel to the main fuel line. (Dash 1, 1-21)
Primary jet pump
Intentional inverted departures and spins are _____________.(-1 pg 6-9)
Prohibited
Intentional spins in other than cruise configuration at idle power are ____________.(-1 pg 6-10)
Prohibited
Erect spin recovery is ___________ after recovery controls are applied. (-1 pg 6-10)
Prompt
An accelerated stall induced by a turning entry and increased G is preceded by _________ buffet before the stall is reached. (-1 pg 6-7)
Pronounced
A spiral can result from misapplication of ________________. (-1 pg 6-8)
pro-spin controls
To operate the emergency extension of the flaps, ___________. (Dash 1, 1-33)
Pull the emergency landing gear extension handle; The gear must be down.
Max cooling is achieved by selecting ________________. (Dash 1, 1-63)
RAM AIR - OFF; BLEED AIR INFLOW - OFF
Selecting ___________, opens the control valve and the fresh air valve, and allows bleed air inflow to continue. (Dash 1, 1-61,63)
RAM DUMP
Amber markings on engine instrumentation indicate: (Dash 1, 5-2)
Range where special attention should be given
The the UHF backup control unit is ON, the word ________ is displayed in the UHF box on the RMU. (Dash 1, 1-74)
REMOTE
Actuating the trim disconnect switch will ____________. (Dash 1, 1-34)
Remove power from the trim system and cause the trim aid device to disengage
Frequent cross-checks of airspeed are ____________ during climb out to prevent deviations from the climb airspeed schedule. (-1 pg 6-3)
Required
If engine start is initiated with the PCL in OFF, the start may be aborted by ______________. (Dash 1, 2-12)
reselecting AUTO/RESET on the starter switch
To discriminate between fire or overheat, ___________. (Dash 1, 1-19)
Retard the PCL. If the warning ceases, suspect an overheat
The decision to takeoff or abort should be based on the following: (Dash 1, 3-7)
Runway length and condition, terminal weather conditions and area traffic; If any system emergency affecting safety of flight is experienced prior to liftoff
Prior to pilot entry and egress from the aircraft, ensure the ISS is in the ______ position. (Dash 1, 1-56)
SOLO
A __________ is used to lock the nose gear in the down position. (Dash 1, 1-30)
Spring-strut
To begin an automatic start, the PCL must be positioned at the ________ position. (Dash 1, 1-19)
St Ready
Poststall gyrations are the motions of the aircraft about one or more axes immediately following: (-1 pg 6-7)
Stall and prior to the incipient spin
A spin requires ________________ simultaneously with __________________.(-1 pg 6-8)
Stalled angle-of-attack, sustained yaw rate
When spin recovery controls are applied the pitch attitude will ___________ and spin rate will initially ____________.(-1 pg 6-10)
Steepen, increase
The gust lock locks ____________. (Dash 1, 1-39)
the ailerons and rudder in the neutral position, elevator in a nose down position.
When testing the AOA gage in the LOW position, you should see _____________. (Dash 1, 1-46)
The amber donut; No red chevron in either cockpit indexer; AOA gage reads 10.5 ± 0.25
If the auxiliary battery test switch light does not illuminated when tested, _________. (Dash 1, 1-116)
The auxiliary battery is less than 50% capacity.
The CKPT ALT annunciator illuminates when ______________. (Dash 1, 1-62)
The cockpit altitude rises above 19000 ft
A red CKPT PX annunciator illuminates when ______________. (Dash 1, 1-62)
the cockpit pressure differential exceeds 3.9 ± 0.1 psi
Should the electric boost pump and the engine-driven low pressure pump fail, _________ will suction feed sufficient fuel for continued engine operation. (Dash 1, 1-24)
the engine-drive high-pressure fuel pump
HYDR FL LO annunciator indicates that ________. (Dash 1, 1-28)
the fluid level in the hydraulic reservoir has dropped below approximately 1quart.
A red light in each gear handle illuminates to indicate ____________. (Dash 1, 1-32)
The gear doors are not closed; The PCL is approaching IDLE with the gear handle UP.
The gear horn is sound when ___________ (Dash 1, 1-32)
The Gear is UP (3 red) and power is below 87% N1 with the airspeed below 120 KIAS and the flaps at any position.; The Gear is UP (no lights) with flaps in the LDG position at any power setting.
The red lens in the gear indication is illuminated when ___________. (Dash 1, 1-32)
The gear or gear doors (mains only) are in transit.; The PCL is approaching IDLE and the gear handle is UP, regardless of airspeed.
Max endurance AOA yields ___________. (Dash 1, 1-47)
the greatest amount of flying time per pound of fuel remaining
When testing the AOA gage in the HIGH position, you should see _____________. (Dash 1, 1-46)
The green chevron in both cockpit indexers; No amber donut in either cockpit indexer; AOA gage reads 18.0 ± 0.25; Activation of the stick shaker
With UHF comm in BOTH, the receiver monitors ___________. (Dash 1, 1-73)
the guard receiver; the main receiver
After the PCL is advanced past the IDLE gate, how can the start be terminated? (Dash 1, 1-19)
The PCL must be placed in the OFF position.
After the PCL is advanced past the start ready position, how can the start be terminated? (Dash 1, 1-19)
The PCL must be placed in the OFF position.; The STARTER switch must be placed to AUTO/RESET.
EHYD PX LO annunciator indicates that ________. (Dash 1, 1-28)
the pressure in the emergency accumulator has dropped below 2400±150
If a red GEN annunciator is illuminated _________. (Dash 1, 1-26)
The starter/generator has malfunctioned; The air conditioning is automatically shed
Activation of either internal CFS handle activates which canopy fracturing system? (Dash 1, 1-50)
The transparency over the respective cockpit.
When the transponder is set to STBY, _________________. (Dash 1, 1-70)
the transponder code may be selected, but the transponder will not respond to ground or airborne interrogations.
When the transponder is set to ALT, _________________. (Dash 1, 1-70)
the transponder will respond to interrogations with the selected code and altitude info.
When the transponder is set to ON, _________________. (Dash 1, 1-70)
the transponder will transmit the selected code when interrogated, but will not provide altitude reporting info.
If the PMU STATUS light illuminates 1 minute after landing _________. (Dash 1, 1-18.1)
There is a fault that is not serious enough to have reverted the system to the manual mode of operation during flight.
The CHIP annunciator indicates ___________. (Dash 1, 1-12)
There is metal contamination in the oil system
Conditions that may indicate windshear include. (Dash 1, 7-3)
Thunderstorm activity; Gust fronts; Virga; Large Temperature Inversions
When connecting the leg garters, buckles should be _______, and D-rings _______. (Dash 1, 1-57)
to the inside, aft
The _________ direct/s fuel from each wing tank to the collector tank, keeping the collector tank pressurized. (Dash 1, 1-21)
transfer jet pumps
Which button manually selects the NACWS display for seven seconds? (Dash 1, 1-91)
Trigger
The only way to transmit and receive on VHF GUARD is to manually dial in GUARD (121.5 MHz) or use a preset with GUARD saved. (Dash 1, 1-70)
TRUE
(T/F) In the event of ICS failure, the pilot requesting control will shake the control stick, and the pilot relinquishing control will raise both hands. (Dash 1, 2-3)
TRUE
(T/F) Any fault discovered during the overspeed governor check is reason for ground abort. (Dash 1, 2-13)
TRUE
(T/F) If the flaps are set to LDG and the gear is raised, the gear warning horn will sound and cannot be canceled. (Dash 1, 2-16)
TRUE
(T/F) Allow ITT to stabilize at idle for at least one minute prior to shutdown. (Dash 1, 2-23)
TRUE
(T/F) If the PCL is left in a position other than OFF when shutting the engine down, fuel flow may continue and cause serious damage due to over temperature. (Dash 1, 2-23)
TRUE
(T/F) To prevent possible burns, application of electrical power to pitot and AOA heating elements should not exceed 10 seconds. (Dash 1, 2-25)
TRUE
(T/F) The maximum allowable airspeed (red striped) pointer is self adjusting for altitude on the Electronic Airspeed indicator? (Dash 1, 5-3)
TRUE
(T/F) Sustained operation at maximum power may significantly reduce engine service life? (Dash 1, 5-8)
TRUE
(T/F) Operating maneuvering speed (Vo) is the speed above which full or abrupt control movements can result in structural damage to the aircraft. (Dash 1, 5-8)
TRUE
(T/F) 5 seconds is the Intentional zero-G flight time limit? (Dash 1, 5-8)
TRUE
(T/F) Spinning with the speed brake extended is prohibited? (Dash 1, 5-9)
TRUE
(T/F) Canopy defog must be off for takeoff and landing. (Dash 1, 5-10)
TRUE
(T/F) Crew duties are not applicable to this aircraft? (Dash 1, 4-1)
TRUE
The pilot applying the most pedal force determines the amount of braking being used.
True.
Each RMU provide remote tuning and mode selection for ___________. (Dash 1, 1-71)
UHF comm; VHF comm; Transponder; VOR nav/DME
To transmit on UHF, press the toggle ______. (Dash 1, 1-69)
Up
If the speed brake has been extended, it will automatically retract if the flaps are set to any position other than ________.(-1 pg 6-3)
UP
The _________ allows the high-pressure pump to purge to the collector tank. (Dash 1, 1-21)
Vent line
There is _____________ pitch trim change when flaps are selected to the takeoff position. (-1 pg 6-3)
Very little
Which of the following navigation displays are options on the EHSI? (Dash 1, 1-87)
VOR; GPS; None (Blank)
An operating procedure, technique, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life is a _______. (Dash 1, iii)
Warning
The PMU ground and flight modes are controlled by a ________. (Dash 1, 1-15)
Weight on wheels switch on the main gear struts
During rapid acceleration from low to high speed, the pilot ____________ need to initially trim nose down to avoid a rapid build up in forces. (-1 pg 6-2)
Will
The Martin-Baker ejection seat is capable of providing safe escape from _________. (Dash 1, 1-52)
Zero altitude; Zero airspeed; £ 35000 ft; £ 370 KIAS
Flattening, twisting, kinking or denting of the fire detection loop will affect test or flight operation of the system. (Dash 1, 1-19)
FALSE
(T/F) Only intentional erect spins with landing gear, flaps, and speed brake up and power at MAX are permitted. (-1 pg 6-9)
FALSE
(T/F) The T-6 Texan II is approved for flight into known icing conditions. (Dash 1, 7-4)
FALSE
(T/F) To avoid damage to the canopy, chip all ice off the canopy prior to engine start. (Dash 1, 7-5)
FALSE
With the ignition switch set to NORM, the PMU will energize and de-energize the igniters as required. (Dash 1, 1-12)
TRUE
When feathered, the propeller blades are aligned nearly straight into the wind, thereby minimizing drag. (Dash 1, 1-15)
TRUE
With an EDM FAIL message all indications are correct except those replaced with amber dashes and/or mission pointers are invalid. (Dash 1, 1-18.1)
TRUE
Engine bleed air is utilized for canopy pressurization seal, anti-G system, environmental control system (ECS), pressurization and the OBOGS. (Dash 1, 1-27)
TRUE
When the emergency gear extension is activated, the main gear inner doors will remain open. (Dash 1, 1-31)
TRUE
Failure to secure the cowling latches prior to takeoff may allow the cowling to open in flight, causing damage to the aircraft or loss of control. (Dash 1, 1-48)
TRUE
DME hold function can only be used when the primary navigation source is selected w/groundspeed and thime to go displayed. (Dash 1, 1-90)
TRUE
The front unit must be on and functioning properly for either unit to be used for navigation. The last input from either cockpit has priority for system control. (Dash 1, 1-94)
TRUE
Both the landing and taxi lights will only illuminate once all three gear are down and locked. (Dash 1, 1-116)
TRUE
(T/F) Failure to close and latch the CFS pin storage box prior to closing the canopy may damage the canopy when the canopy is closed. (Dash 1, 2-24)
TRUE
(T/F) After a stop which required maximum effort braking and if overheated brakes are suspected, do not taxi into or park in a congested area until brakes have had sufficient time to cool. (Dash 1, 3-7)
TRUE
(T/F) With suspected overheated brakes, do not set the parking brake (Dash 1, 3-7)
TRUE
(T/F) With a loss of hydraulic pressure, landing gear and flaps CANNOT be lowered by normal means. (Dash 1, 3-7)
TRUE
(T/F) Engine failure will result in a loss of bleed air supply to the OBOGS concentrator and environmental control system causing subsequent OBOGS and ECS failure. (Dash 1, 3-8)
TRUE
(T/F) Do not delay ejection while attempting airstart at low altitude if below 2000 ft AGL. (Dash 1, 3-11)
TRUE
(T/F) Do not reset circuit breaker in flight after an uncommanded movement of the propeller to feather (Dash 1, 3-12.1)
TRUE
(T/F) Extension of nose gear may establish airflow into the engine compartment that could reignite a smoldering fire or cause a hydraulic fire if a hydraulic leak exists. (Dash 1, 3-13)
TRUE
(T/F) To prevent injury, ensure oxygen mask is on and the visor is down prior to actuating the CFS system. (Dash 1, 3-14)
TRUE
(T/F) If the CHIP detector is illuminated, the engine may fail with little or no further warning. (Dash 1, 3-15)
TRUE
(T/F) Emergency flaps will be powered by the main battery through the auxiliary battery bus as long as the main battery has not failed. (Dash 1, 3-16.1)
TRUE
(T/F) If engine fuel feed pressure is fluctuating at or below 10 psi, the boost pump will alternately cycle on and off, illuminating and extinguishing the BOOST PUMP annunciator. (Dash 1, 3-19)
TRUE
(T/F) With a full lateral fuel imbalance (one tank full, the other tank empty), sufficient lateral authority exists to control the aircraft (no crosswind). (Dash 1, 3-20)
TRUE
(T/F) Actuation of landing gear or flaps will normally cause a momentary drop in hydraulic pressure below the green arc. (Dash 1, 3-21)
TRUE
(T/F) Whenever the trim interrupt button is being depressed, or when the trim disconnect switch is set to disconnect, all trim systems are disengaged and the TAD is disconnected. (Dash 1, 3-23)
TRUE
(T/F) With a sudden or rapid decompression at altitudes near 20,000 ft MSL, there may be a transient OBOGS FAIL indication as the OBOGS system switches to high altitude mode to compensate for higher cockpit pressure altitudes. (Dash 1, 3-24)
TRUE
(T/F) Do not land or taxi across raised arresting cables with main gear doors open. (Dash 1, 3-35)
TRUE
(T/F) With the ISS selector set to BOTH, both seats will eject, even if one is safely pinned. (Dash 1, 3-4)
TRUE
(T/F) With a loss of hydraulic pressure, flaps will extend slowly with residual pressure and may take longer to deploy. (Dash 1, 3-35)
TRUE
(T/F) The aircraft incorporates a reversible flight control system. (-1 pg 6-2)
TRUE
(T/F) Lowering the flaps to the LDG position produces a slight pitch up, which is easily controllable. (-1 pg 6-3)
TRUE
(T/F) The flap/speed brake interconnect prevents the use of the speed brake with the flaps extended. (-1 pg 6-3)
TRUE
(T/F) Without normal hydraulic pressure, use of the speed brake in a power-off glide is not possible. (-1 pg 6-4)
TRUE
(T/F) During accelerated/turning entries into a stall, moderate buffet occurs well prior to the actual stall. (-1 pg 6-4)
TRUE
(T/F) The stick shaker may mask natural aircraft buffet during stall approach and recovery. (-1 pg 6-4)
TRUE
(T/F) Poststall gyrations may be violent and disorienting. (-1 pg 6-7)
TRUE
(T/F) Anti-spin controls may not be effective in arresting the spiral and may actually aggravate the situation. (-1 pg 6-8)
TRUE
(T/F) After completing the initial turn, of an erect spin, the nose will pitch to approximately 60° below the horizon. (-1 pg 6-9)
TRUE
(T/F) Spins in either direction may exhibit roll and yaw oscillations after three turns with neutral ailerons. (-1 pg 6-9)
TRUE
(T/F) Ailerons have pronounced effect on spin characteristics. (-1 pg 6-9)
TRUE
(T/F) During a spin, oil pressure may decrease below 40 psi with idle power, which is acceptable provided normal indications return after recovery. (-1 pg 6-9)
TRUE
T or F A progressive spin is a result of misapplication of recovery controls. (-1 pg 6-9)
TRUE
(T/F) The aircraft will recover from erect spins with controls free and with the PCL at IDLE. (-1 pg 6-10)
TRUE
(T/F) In all cases of inverted or power on departures, the engine shall be inspected by qualified maintenance personnel after flight. (-1 pg 6-11)
TRUE
(T/F) Every effort should be made during servicing to prevent moisture from entering the fuel system. To this end, whenever possible, leave the aircraft parked with full fuel tanks to reduce condensation. (Dash 1, 7-6)
TRUE
(T/F) Takeoff planning is of extreme importance when operating from a marginal length runway in high ambient temperatures and high density altitudes. (Dash 1, 7-7)
TRUE
