T-6 EPQ Dash 1 Flashcards
1
Q
During a “pilot-monitored” start, the PCL should be placed to IDLE once N1 reaches ________. (Dash 1, 1-19)
A
13%
2
Q
Regardless of which seat initiates the ejection, the rear seat ejects first and the front seat will follow ______ seconds after, with the ISS in BOTH. (Dash 1, 1-56)
A
0.37
3
Q
During an auto start, at approximately ______ N1, the starter and igniters are de-energized and the boost pump is deactivated. (Dash 1, 1-19)
A
50%
4
Q
The highest possible oxygen concentration is _____________. (Dash 1, 1-121)
A
95%
5
Q
With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor limits the Np to at or below _______ at approximately 2120 RPM. (Dash 1, 1-15)
A
106%
6
Q
The propeller overspeed limit is ____Np. (Dash 1, 5-8)
A
110%
7
Q
Natural stall warning, in the form of light aerodynamic buffet, occurs approximately ____ knots before the stall during power-off stalls in all configurations. (-1 pg 6-4)
A
3
8
Q
After completing approximately ____ turns, the spin will have entered a near steady state condition. (-1 pg 6-9)
A
3
9
Q
With the SSK (seat survival kit) in AUTO, the SSK is lowered automatically ______ seconds after seat-pilot separation. (Dash 1, 1-57)
A
4
10
Q
To test the Aux Battery, position the switch forward for a minimum of _______ seconds. (Dash 1, 2-8)
A
5
11
Q
Depending on airspeed, N1 will indicate 0% within approximately __________seconds, even though the gas generator core may not have seized. (Dash 1, 3-8)
A
5
12
Q
Maximum permissible crosswind for and icy runway is ____ knots. (Dash 1, 5-10)
A
5
13
Q
The stick shaker provides artificial stall warning in each cockpit a minimum of _____ knots before the stall is reached. (-1 pg 6-4)
A
5
14
Q
Operations in visible moisture at outside air temperatures of ___ degrees C or below should be avoided. (Dash 1, 7-5)
A
5
15
Q
The standby attitude indicator will provide accurate indications for at least _______minutes after a loss of all electrical power. (Dash 1, 3-14)
A
9
16
Q
The electric boost pump is activated anytime the pressure in the motive flow line drops below ______ psi and the PCL is above the start ready position.
A
10
17
Q
The emergency oxygen system supplies the pilot with oxygen for approximately _______ minutes. (Dash 1, 1-53)
A
10
18
Q
There are _______ antennas mounted on the aircraft for navigation and communications. (Dash 1, 1-66)
A
10
19
Q
The Emergency Oxygen bottle provides approximately ___________minutes of oxygen. (Dash 1, 3-8)
A
10
20
Q
Maximum tailwind component for takeoff is ____ knots. (Dash 1, 5-10)
A
10
21
Q
If windshear is suspected on an approach, and unable to divert, set takeoff flaps and fly approach up to ___ knots faster than normal. (Dash 1, 7-3)
A
10
22
Q
Upon encountering windshear at low altitude, ensure the PCL is at MAX power and increase pitch attitude to no less than ___ degrees for best rate of climb. (Dash 1, 7-3)
A
15
23
Q
The oil system has an oil capacity of _______ U.S. quarts. (Dash 1, 1-6)
A
18
24
Q
The automatic fuel balancing system maintains fuel load in each wing to within _______pounds of the other. (Dash 1, 3-20)
A
20
25
Do not attempt a battery powered ground start if the battery voltage is below ____volts. (Dash 1, 5-8)
23.5
26
The GPS can store up to _______ flight plans. (Dash 1, 1-107)
25
27
The GPS can store up to _______ waypoints in each flight plan. (Dash 1, 1-107)
30
28
After landing off station, check oil level within ___ minutes of shutdown. (Dash 1, 2-24)
30
29
Standby instruments (and their associated lighting) and UHF tuning (backup UHF control head) will be powered for approximately ________minutes by the auxiliary battery. (Dash 1, 3-16.1)
30
30
Maximum lateral fuel imbalance is _____lbs. (Dash 1, 5-12)
50
31
Above _____% torque, full right rudder and full right aileron may not prevent a left roll off at stall. (-1 pg 6-4)
60
32
The baggage compartment is limited to _________ lbs. (Dash 1, 1-121)
80
33
The maximum weight in the baggage compartment is _____lbs. (Dash 1, 5-10)
80
34
A spin may be entered by maintaining full aft stick and applying full rudder in the desired spin direction at _____ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-9)
80
35
In no case should the aircraft be slowed below _______KIAS or to activation of the stick shaker, whichever is higher during a controllability check. (Dash 1, 3-21)
90
36
At approach speeds or below with flaps in the LDG position, full nose right trim is required at _____% torque. (-1 pg 6-2)
100
37
Altitude lost during recovery from a wings level stall is usually less than ______ feet, assuming a prompt application of recovery power. (-1 pg 6-7)
100
38
Illumination of the left or right fuel level low annunciator indicates that approximately _______pounds of usable fuel remains in the affected wing tank. (Dash 1, 3-20)
110
39
Landings have been accomplished at touchdown speeds up to approximately _____KIAS in the normal landing configuration. (Dash 1, 3-21)
110
40
Maintain a minimum of ________________KIAS when maneuvering to intercept the Emergency Landing Pattern
120
41
Plan to intercept the emergency landing pattern at or below high key in the appropriate configuration and a minimum airspeed of ________KIAS. (Dash 1, 3-31)
120
42
A spiral is a rolling and/or yawing motion of the aircraft that is often mistaken for a spin, but is not steady-state in that airspeed is increasing through _____ KIAS and motions are oscillatory. (-1 pg 6-8)
160
43
For uncoordinated rolling maneuvers initiated at -1 G, the maximum bank angle change is _____ degrees. (Dash 1, 5-9 IS-016)
180
44
If uncoordinated rolling maneuvers are initiated at -1 G, the maximum bank angle change is ________ degrees. (-1 pg 6-3)
180
45
Should flight through an area of thunderstorm activity become unavoidable, penetration airspeed of ____ KIAS is recommended. (Dash 1, 7-2)
180
46
Maximum airspeed for flying through turbulence is _____KIAS. (Dash 1, 5-8)
206
47
Operating maneuvering speed (Vo) is ______KIAS. (Dash 1, 5-8)
227
48
If PEL is being performed with IDLE power, add _______feet to high, low and base key altitudes to compensate for drag of un-feathered prop. (Dash 1, 3-31)
500
49
Maximum rate of descent at touchdown is _____ feet per minute. (Dash 1, 5-10)
780
50
The PT6A-68 engine has been flat rated to produce _________shaft horsepower. (Dash 1, 1-6)
1100
51
Pressing and holding the transponder field select key(Left rectangle) for three seconds automatically inputs ______. (Dash 1, 1-73)
1200
52
Approximately _________ft of altitude will be lost during an airstart attempt performed at best glide speed of 125 KIAS. (Dash 1, 3-10)
1,200
53
Once the hydraulic system is pressurized to ________ psi the system can be used to power the hydraulic components. (Dash 1, 1-27)
1800
54
Airstart procedure is not recommended below __________ft AGL, as primary attention should be to eject or safely recover the aircraft. (Dash 1, 3-8)
2,000
55
The EHYD PX LO annunciator will illuminate whenever emergency hydraulic pressure drops below __________psi indicated. (Dash 1, 3-21)
2400
56
The hydraulic system is pressurized to ______ psi. (Dash 1, 1-27)
3000
57
Altitude loss during a typical steady-state spin is approximately ______ feet for a six-turn spin. (-1 pg 6-8)
4500
58
The T-6A basic empty weight is approximately _______ lbs. (Dash 1, 1-4)
4900
59
Recommended minimum altitude for uncontrolled ejection is ____________ft AGL. (Dash 1, 3-13)
6,000
60
Maximum takeoff gross weight is _______ lbs. (Dash1, 1-4)
6500
61
For best cockpit cooling below ____ feet MSL, set Bleed Air Inflow and Ram Air switches to off. Set temperature controller as required. (Dash 1, 7-6)
7500
62
Cockpit pressure altitude at 31000 ft is _______ ft. (Dash 1, 1-61)
16600
63
The CKPT ALT annunciator light illuminates whenever the cockpit pressure altitude exceeds __________feet. (Dash 1, 3-24)
19,000
64
Airstarts may be attempted at any altitude and airspeed, although airstarts have only been demonstrated at ___________ft MSL and below. (Dash 1, 3-8)
20,000
65
As the aircraft gets to the missed approach point, the GPS automatically switches the CDI scale to ______ NM. (Dash 1, 1-112)
± 1
66
Above 18, 769 feet MSL, what is the Maximum operating airspeed (Vmo)? (Dash 1, 5-8)
.67 MACH
67
What are the asymmetric gear and flaps extended acceleration limits? (Dash 1, 5-9)
#ERROR!
68
What are the symmetric gear and flaps extended acceleration limits? (Dash 1, 5-9)
#ERROR!
69
What are the asymmetric clean acceleration limits? (Dash 1, 5-9)
#ERROR!
70
What are the symmetric clean acceleration limits? (Dash 1, 5-9)
#ERROR!
71
Mach information is blanked below _______ . (Dash 1, 1-41)
0.40 Mach
72
Should the collector tank fuel probe fail, the fuel level in both wing tanks will each drop __________. (Dash 1, 1-23)
½ the gaged level (approximately 20 lbs per side)
73
Once recovery controls have been applied, spin rotation will abruptly cease within __________ turns after applying controls. (-1 pg 6-10)
1 ½
74
The amount of usable oil is __________. (Dash 1, 1-121)
1 Qt
75
The fuel transfer pumps pressurize the collector tank to ______ psi. (Dash 1, 1-24)
1 to 1.5
76
When parking on ramps with greater than ______ slope, the fuel system may vent fuel overboard through the pressure relief valve on the _______ wing. (Dash 1, 1-21)
1%, Low
77
The hydraulic system has a total hydraulic fluid capacity of ________. (Dash 1, 1-27)
1.25 gal
78
If gusty winds are present during takeoff, increase rotation speed by __________. (Dash 1, 2-15)
1/2 the gust factor (up to 10 knots)
79
With the PMU OFF, permissible maximum Np is? (Dash 1, 5-7)
100 ± 2 %
80
For AOA approaches/landings, optimum approach airspeed is ________. (Dash 1, 1-46)
100 knots minus approximately one knot for every 100 lbs of fuel used
81
With the PMU offline, the mechanical overspeed governor limits the Np to at or below _______ at approximately 2000 RPM. (Dash 1, 1-15)
100±2%
82
The "Green Arc" on the angle of attack indicator indicates: (Dash 1, 5-3)
10-11 units
83
Best glide speed with gear down, flaps up, and speed brake up is approximately _____ KIAS with a sink rate of __________ fpm. (-1 pg 6-4)
105, 1500
84
With the PCL at MAX, the engine is rated to produce at least _______shp and indicate ____% torque below critical altitude on a standard day? (Dash 1, 5-7)
1100, 100
85
In a runaway trim situation, except when trim is at full nose down, reducing airspeed to ____________KIAS will reduce control forces. (Dash 1, 3-23)
110-150
86
The amber L/R FUEL LO annunciator indicates fuel quantity below approximately _________ in the respective wing tank. (Dash 1, 1-24)
112 lbs
87
What is the critical altitude, which is the altitude at which maximum sea level horsepower is no longer available? (Dash 1, 5-7)
12,000 - 16,000 feet MSL
88
Nose wheel tire pressure is ___________. (Dash 1, 1-121)
120 ± 5 psi
89
100% torque is available from sea level to approximately __________ on a standard day. (Dash 1, 1-6)
12000 to 16000 ft MSL
90
Recommended entry speed for a Split S is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
120-140
91
Best glide speed in clean configuration is approximately _____ KIAS with a sink rate of __________ fpm. (-1 pg 6-4)
125, 1100-1300
92
What is the maximum airspeed with the flaps extended? (Dash 1, 5-8)
150 KIAS
93
What is the maximum airspeed during flap operation? (Dash 1, 5-8)
150 KIAS
94
The maximum airspeed with the landing gear extended (VLE) or during landing gear operation is? (Dash 1, 5-8)
150 KIAS
95
A pitch attitude of __________ degrees nose high provides the best entry into a spin. (-1 pg 6-9)
15-20
96
________ units indicates a stall on the AOA gage. (Dash 1, 1-45)
18 (red arc)
97
9. The "Red Arc" on the angle of attack indicator indicates: (Dash 1, 5-3)
18 units
98
The nose wheel is a free castoring type with ______ degrees of castor. (Dash 1, 1-32)
180 (90 left and right of center)
99
Recommended entry speed for an Aileron Roll is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
180-220
100
What is the cooling period for the second starter duty cycle? (Dash 1, 5-8)
2 minutes
101
As aircraft gets to within ________ NM of the FAF with a loaded approach, the GPS automatically switches to approach active and the CDI changes to ______ NM. (Dash 1, 1-112)
2, ± 0.3
102
After a start is automatically or manually aborted and fuel has been introduced, the engine must be manually motored for _________ to clear any residual fuel from the engine. (Dash 1, 1-19)
20 sec
103
The OBOGS TEMP annunciator illuminates when the ducting exceeds ___________. (Dash 1, 1-119)
200°F
104
Recommended minimum altitudes for ejection are _________ft AGL for controlled ejection and __________ft AGL for uncontrolled ejection. (Dash 1, 3-25)
2000, 6000
105
Recommended entry speed for a Lazy Eight is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
200-220
106
Recommended entry speed for a Clover Leaf is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
200-220
107
Recommended entry speed for a Barrel Roll is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
200-220
108
Recommended entry speed for a Chandelle is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
200-250
109
Main gear tire pressure is ___________. (Dash 1, 1-121)
225 ± 5 psi
110
Spin rotation rates will stabilize to approximately ____________ seconds per turn with altitude loss of ____________ feet per turn. (-1 pg 6-9)
2-3, 400-500
111
Recommended entry speed for a Loop is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
230-250
112
Recommended entry speed for an Immelmann is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
230-250
113
Recommended entry speed for a Cuban Eight is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
230-250
114
The emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits an audible tone on _________. (Dash 1, 1-76)
243.0 MHz; 121.5 MHz
115
The electrical system uses a __________ as the secondary power source. (Dash 1, 1-26)
24VDC, 5 amp-hr auxiliary battery
116
External ground power must provide _____________. (Dash 1, 1-121)
28-28.5 VDC, 1000-1500 Amps
117
The electrical system uses a __________ as the primary power source. (Dash 1, 1-24)
28VDC, 300 amp starter/generator
118
At 100% indicated torque, the engine is producing approximately ________ of torque at the prop shaft. (Dash 1, 1-6)
2900 ft-lbs
119
Normal cockpit indications when the emergency extension system is used are ___________. (Dash 1, 1-31)
3 green, 2 red (doors), 1 red (handle)
120
The OBOGS BIT (Built in Test) lasts __________. (Dash 1, 1-119)
3 min
121
The cockpit pressurization schedule limit is _________psi. (Dash 1, 5-12)
3.6 ± .1
122
An 8000 ft cockpit altitude is maintained until a differential pressure of _________ is reached at 18069 ft. (Dash 1, 1-61)
3.6 ± 0.1 psi
123
The amber FUEL BAL annunciator illuminates any time a indicated fuel imbalance exceeds ______ between the wing tanks for _______, or a fuel probe fails. (Dash 1, 1-24)
30 lbs, 2 min
124
During emergencies, the auxiliary battery will power the standby instruments, backup UHF control and the FIRE 1 detection system for approximately __________. (Dash 1, 1-26)
30 min
125
What is the cooling period for the forth starter duty cycle? (Dash 1, 5-8)
30 minutes
126
What is the cooling period for the first starter duty cycle? (Dash 1, 5-8)
30 seconds
127
As aircraft gets to within ________ NM of an airport with a loaded approach, the GPS automatically switches to approach arm and the CDI changes to ______ NM over a 30 second transition period. (Dash 1, 1-111)
30, ± 1
128
If bleed air temperature in the environmental system duct exceeds _______ at any time, the DUCT TEMP annunciator will illuminate. (Dash 1, 1-61)
300°F
129
The reduction gearbox reduces the power turbine output shaft speed from ________ to ________ RPM. (Dash 1, 1-12)
30000, 2000
130
Should the middle fuel probe fail, the affected tank will show a normal fuel level until the fuel level drops below the outer fuel probe. The fuel will then drop to the best indication for the next inboard (inner) fuel probe ( __________ ) and remain there until enough fuel is used to drop below the failed fuel probe. (Dash 1, 1-23)
308 ± 50 lbs
131
What is the Maximum operating airspeed (Vmo) at and below 18, 769 feet MSL? (Dash 1, 5-8)
316 KIAS
132
The maximum allowable airspeed is: (Dash 1, 5-3)
316 KIAS/ .67 MACH
133
________ units indicates max range on the AOA gage. (Dash 1, 1-45)
4.9 (white triangle)
134
8. The "White triangle (max range)" on the angle of attack indicator indicates: (Dash 1, 5-3)
4.9 units
135
The canopy shall not be opened on the ground when the surface winds exceed ___________.( Dash 1, 5-12)
40 knots
136
Maximum cruise power is the PCL position which yields an ITT ____°C below the observed maximum ITT at critical altitude, not to exceed 780°C. (Dash 1, 5-8)
40°C
137
The recommended enroute descent procedure is power and configuration as required and descent rate of _____. (Dash 1, 2-16)
4000 fpm
138
Should the outer fuel probe fail, the affected tank will show a fuel level drop to the best indication for the next inboard (middle) fuel probe ( __________ ) and remain there until enough fuel is used to drop below the failed fuel probe. (Dash 1, 1-23)
445 ± 50 lbs
139
Once the emergency firewall shutoff handle is pulled the engine will continue to run for approximately _______. (Dash 1, 1-24)
5 - 10 sec
140
What is the cooling period for the third starter duty cycle? (Dash 1, 5-8)
5 minutes
141
Expect to lose approximately _____ feet for every turn of a spin with an additional ___________ feet for a normal dive. (-1 pg 6-10)
500, 1500-2000
142
The wing tanks and central collector tank each hold ________ lbs of fuel respectively. (Dash 1, 1-21)
530, 40
143
The standby attitude indicator provides accurate pitch and roll indications within _____ degrees for a period of _____ min after all electrical power is lost. (Dash 1, 1-42)
6, 9
144
To prevent ground resonance within the propeller, stabilized operation of the propeller in the __________ range is prohibited on the ground. (Dash 1, 2-13)
62% to 80% Np
145
Sustained propeller operation on the ground between _________Np is prohibited to prevent damage from ground resonance. (Dash 1, 5-8)
62-80%
146
What is the maximum takeoff weight? (Dash 1, 5-10)
6500 lbs
147
What is the maximum landing weight? (Dash 1, 5-10)
6500 lbs
148
The PMU limits the flight idle N1 to ________ and the ground idle N1 to _________. (Dash 1, 1-18.1)
67,60
149
For optimum engine life, the PCL should be retarded with the defog on to maintain ITT at or below ______. (Dash 1, 1-62)
740°C
150
A pressure altitude switch prevents bleed air inflow anytime the air conditioner clutch is engaged below ________. (Dash 1, 1-61)
7500 ft MSL
151
________ units indicates max endurance on the AOA gage. (Dash 1, 1-45)
8.8 (white diamond)
152
10. The "White Diamond (max endurance)" on the angle of attack indicator indicates: (Dash 1, 5-3)
8.8 units
153
Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will not make any further trim inputs until the aircraft accelerates to at least ______. (Dash 1, 1-39)
80 KIAS, no weight on wheels
154
Hydroplaning can occur above ___ knots for the nose tire and above ___ knots of the main tires. (Dash 1, 7-5)
85, 115
155
The canopy is held in the open position by ________. (Dash 1, 1-48)
a canopy lock
156
The PMU is powered by ___________. (Dash 1, 1-19)
A dedicated permanent magnet alternator (PMA)
157
Inverted flight is made possible by __________. (Dash 1, 1-21)
A flip-flop valve located in the collector tank
158
An incipient spin can be identified by an oscillatory spin like motion, ________________ , ______________, and airspeed that is accelerating or decelerating toward the steady-state value. (-1 pg 6-8)
a fully-deflected turn needle, a stalled angle of attack
159
The PT6A-68 engine contains ____________. (Dash 1, 1-4)
A gas generator section; A power turbine section
160
During a wings level power-on stall, _________ rolling tendency is induced at stall by engine torque before reaching full aft stick. (-1 pg 6-4)
A left
161
If the maximum allowable airspeed limit is exceeded what will occur? (Dash 1, 5-3)
A red arc will appear between the indicated airspeed and the maximum allowable airspeed pointer.
162
...
A table representation of the traffic
163
___________ is used to provide cockpit cooling. (Dash 1, 1-59)
A vapor cycle system
164
T-6 primary controls include _______________. (Dash 1, 1-34)
A, B and C
165
When talking about the T-6A propeller, which of the following are true? (Dash 1, 1-15)
Aluminum, 97 inch; Four bladed; Constant speed, Variable pitch
166
Altitude loss during dive recovery is determined by the following independent factors. (-1 pg 6-11)
Angle of dive, and acceleration maintained during pullout; Altitude at start of pullout, airspeed at start of pullout
167
If departure from controlled flight progresses into a steady state spin, typical indications will be: (Dash 1, 3-13)
AOA 18+; Airspeed 110-125 KIAS
168
PROBES ANTI-ICE controls icing for _________. (Dash 1, 1-44)
AOA vein; Pitot tubes
169
Indications of an active GPS Approach are ____________. (Dash 1, 1-111)
APP ACT appears in lower right corner of EHSI; GPS course needle centers
170
The T-6A fuel system provides ______ of usable fuel through the single point refueling system. (Dash 1, 1-21)
approximately 1100 lbs
171
Should the inner fuel probe fail, the affected tank will show a normal fuel level until the fuel level drops below the middle fuel probe. Fuel level will then drop to the best indication for the collector tank, which is divided evenly between sides ( __________ ). (Dash 1, 1-23)
approximately 20 lbs per side
172
The PCL (Power Control Lever) _________. (Dash 1, 1-12/15)
Are interconnected with a push-pull rod between the cockpits; Is connected to the FMU in the front cockpit; Has a friction control adjustment in the front cockpit only; Contains speed brake, rudder trim, UHF/VHF radio, and intercommunication system switches
173
Taxi over raised arresting cables (such as BAK 9, BAK 12, and /or BAK 13) at? (Dash 1, 5-10)
As slow a speed as possible.
174
During the start sequence, the PCL may be advanced to IDLE any time N1 is _________. (Dash 1, 1-19)
At or above 60%
175
An aggravated spin is caused by ____________. (-1 pg 6-9)
B and C
176
The weight and balance of the aircraft shall be checked to determine that gross weight and CG limitations are not exceeded for which of the following? (Dash 1, 5-9)
Baggage compartment is used.; Overwing refueling.
177
If the generator has failed and the bus tie is open, only items on the ______ buss/es will be powered. (Dash 1, 1-26)
Battery
178
For high altitude ejections, seat-man separation and parachute deployment are delayed until ________. (Dash 1, 1-52)
below 15000 ft MSL
179
Illumination of the DUCT TEMP annunciator indicates that: (Dash 1, 3-23)
Bleed air temp in the environmental systems duct has exceeded 300 deg F; Bleed air temp in the defog duct has exceeded 300 deg F
180
The interseat sequencing selector located in the aft cockpit must be in ______ to allow both seats to eject once one ejection handle is pulled. (Dash 1, 1-52)
BOTH
181
The NACWS traffic advisory is which type of symbol? (Dash 1, 1-91)
Both B and C
182
Activation of either external CFS handle activates which canopy fracturing system? (Dash 1, 1-50)
Both transparencies
183
The _________ allows isolation of the battery and generator buses. (Dash 1, 1-26)
Bus Tie switch
184
Slight control stick inputs _________ result in airspeed or altitude deviations, from hands off trim condition. (-1 pg 6-3)
Can
185
With the engine out, flaps _________ be deployed prior to extending the landing gear in a power-off glide because the engine driven hydraulic pump is not operating. (-1 pg 6-4)
Cannot
186
The hydraulic system is used to operate all of the following, except. (Dash 1, 1-27)
Canopy
187
Should the canopy latch mechanism and microswitches indicate the canopy is not closed and locked, which red annunciator will illuminate? (Dash 1, 1-48)
CANOPY
188
In the event of canopy fracture system failure, each seat is fitted with a _______ to fracture the transparency. (Dash 1, 1-50)
canopy breaker
189
The right P3 port provides bleed air for the ___________. (Dash 1, 1-27)
Canopy seal and anti-G system; ECS
190
An operating procedure, technique, etc., which could result in damage to equipment is a _________. (Dash 1, iii)
Caution
191
Should the FUEL PX annunciator illuminate and the boost pump activate during inverted flight, you should _____. (Dash 1, 1-21)
Cease inverted maneuvers and notify maintenance after flight
192
Compressor stalls may be identified by: (Dash 1, 3-12.2)
Change in engine noise (loud bang or backfire); Fluctuating Torque; Fluctuating ITT, N1, and Fuel Flow
193
The anti-G system utilizes _________ to supply pressure for the anti-G suit. (Dash 1, 1-57)
conditioned engine bleed air
194
___________ is used to provide cockpit heating and pressurization. (Dash 1, 1-59)
Conditioned engine bleed air
195
The best response to a spiral is to neutralize the ___________ and reduce ____________ until motion stops. (-1 pg 6-8)
Controls, the power to IDLE
196
The pressure seal is pneumatically inflated using _____________ from the anti-G system. (Dash 1, 1-48)
Cooled engine bleed air
197
Factor(s) which effect glide performance are________. (-1 pg 6-4)
coordinated or uncoordinated flight; angle of bank and aircraft configuration; airspeed
198
The ___________ is the only interior light which is not dimmable. (Dash 1, 1-115)
Digital clock
199
Entry into idle power, erect spins is characterized by roll and yaw in the ___________________ is applied. (-1 pg 6-9)
Direction rudder
200
To transmit on VHF, press the toggle ______. (Dash 1, 1-69)
Down
201
A _________ is used to stabilize and reduce the forward speed of the ejection seat. (Dash 1, 1-52)
drogue parachute
202
Selecting ___________, opens the control valve and allows bleed air inflow to continue. (Dash 1, 1-63)
DUMP
203
________ is the only indication of emergency hydraulic system health. (Dash 1, 1-28)
EHYD PX LO
204
Once extended, the speed brake remains extended until ____________. (Dash 1, 1-34)
either switch is moved forward to retract; the flaps are extended; the PCL is moved to MAX
205
________ provides fuel for initial engine start and serves as a backup to the engine-driven low-pressure fuel pump. (Dash 1, 1-24)
Electric boost pump
206
Momentarily placing the starter switch in the AUTO/RESET position ________. (Dash 1, 1-12)
Engages the starter and energizes the spark ignition system
207
When shutting the engine down, the PCL must be fully in the OFF position to preclude _______. (Dash 1, 1-19)
Engine damage; Fuel from entering the engine and causing a possible over temperature
208
The _________ routes fuel to the engine-driven high-pressure fuel pump and the FMU. (Dash 1, 1-21)
Engine driven low pressure fuel pump
209
If the following situation(s) occur(s) during ground operations, execute the EMERGENCY ENGINE SHUTDOWN boldface: (Dash 1, 3-4)
Engine Fire; Prop Strike; Chip Light
210
The directional trim is commanded by the trim aid computer as a function of? (-1 pg 6-2)
engine torque and indicated airspeed; pressure altitude and pitch rate.
211
Failure to route the lap belt over the SSK lines may result in _________. (Dash 1, 1-57)
entanglement with the SSK lines
212
The ejection seat pilot weight limits of 121 minimum and 271 maximum include the following. (Dash 1, 5-12)
Equipment and flight gear
213
If landing with a known wheel brake failure in one wheel, land on the side of the runway corresponding to the _________brake. (Dash 1, 3-36)
Failed
214
The red OIL PX annunciator illuminates if the oil pressure _____________. (Dash 1, 1-6)
Falls below 40 psi with PCL above IDLE; Falls below 15 psi with PCL at IDLE
215
(T/F) The aircraft shall be flown solo from the rear cockpit only? (Dash 1, 5-2)
FALSE
216
(T/F) Use of the nose wheel steering for takeoff or landing is acceptable? (Dash 1, 5-10)
FALSE
217
The OBOGS (On-Board Oxygen Generating System) is only usable for 30 days, then must be recharged. (Dash 1, 1-119)
False -
218
(T/F) Operations in known icing conditions is permitted provided it is only trace icing. (Dash 1, 5-12)
False - may not operate in any known icing conditions.
219
(T/F) Maximum crosswind component for wet runway is 5 knots. (Dash 1, 5-10)
False - 10kts
220
With the ISS selector set to BOTH, only the seats with the ejection handle safety pin removed will eject. (Dash 1, 1-56)
False - both seats will eject even if one has a safety pin installed with the ISS in BOTH. At least one pin must be removed.
221
Single point pressure refueling fills the collector tank then the low wing before the high wing. (Dash 1, 1-21)
False - both wings are filled simultaneously.
222
(T/F) The maximum range power-off glide airspeed remains the same with changes in aircraft configuration. (-1 pg 6-4)
False - Clean = 125, Gear = 105, Gear/Flaps = 95
223
The PT6A-68 free turbine turboprop engine is a reverse flow design with air entering the engine from the front. (Dash 1, 1-4)
False - enters in the rear of the engine.
224
Both OBOGS supply levers must be ON to operate the OBOGS. (Dash 1, 1-121)
False - if either regulator is ON, the OBOGS system is operative.
225
The database information is accurate only after the aircraft is accepted from the factory. (Dash 1, 1-97)
False - is only accurate if it is used before the expiration data.
226
(T/F) If control of EHSI display is lost, it is not possible to control EHSI functions from the other cockpit. (Dash 1, 3-18)
FALSE - it MAY BE possible to control the EHSI functions from the other cockpit.
227
(T/F) After initial power-up, the OBOGS FAIL annunciator will be inhibited for two minutes during OBOGS monitor warmup. (Dash 1, 2-12)
False - it takes 3 minutes for the warmup sequence to be completed.
228
If oil pressure is lost, the propeller will automatically freeze in its present pitch position. (Dash 1, 1-15)
False - it will automatically move to the feathered position due to the feathering spring and counterweights.
229
The selection of DEFOG will not affect ITT. (Dash 1, 1-62)
False - it will increase ITT due to the higher bleed air load on the engine.
230
The front cockpit should confirm the flaps position with the rear cockpit since the flaps cannot be visually verified from the front cockpit. (Dash 1, 1-33)
False - Neither cockpit can visually see the flaps because the flaps are hinged to the lower surface of the wing.
231
The gear may be retracted after being extended with the emergency system.
False - Not until the aircraft is serviced by maintenance.
232
The OBOGS will continue to work, even after engine failure, as long as there is power supplied to the battery bus. (Dash 1, 1-119)
False - OBOGS will fail due to the lack of bleed air supplied from the engine after failure.
233
(T/F) The maximum allowable airspeed (red striped) pointer is not self adjusting for altitude on the Standby airspeed indicator? (Dash 1, 5-3)
False - on the electronic airspeed indicator
234
The TAD automatically sets takeoff trim in the yaw axis after engine start.
False - once turned on
235
The gear UP/flaps LDG and the gear UP/ aircraft on the ground warnings may be cancelled by pressing the silence switch.
False - Only the gear UP/power low warning can be cancelled.
236
Static ports are protected from icing by electrical heating elements. (Dash 1, 1-39)
False - only the pitot tubes are protected thru pitot heat. The static ports are protected from icing by airframe location.
237
(T/F) With the ISS selector set to SOLO, both seats will eject if the handle is pulled. (Dash 1, 2-4)
False - only the seat that initiates ejection will eject.
238
(T/F) Recovery from inadvertent loss of aircraft control, including poststall gyrations and incipient spins, can be accomplished by promptly advancing power to MAX, and positively neutralizing flight controls in all axes. (-1 pg 6-8)
False - Power to IDLE
239
The emergency firewall shutoff handle can only be reset by maintenance personnel. (Dash 1, 1-21)
False - pushing the handle down will reset the valves.
240
The gear handle must be down in order to lower the gear with the emergency extension. (Dash 1, 1-31)
False - Regardless of the landing gear control position, the landing gear will extend and lock down.
241
(T/F) Selection of IDLE power automatically retracts the speed brake. (Dash 1, 2-17)
False - Selection of MAX, lowering the gear/flaps or raising the speed brake.
242
The stand-by attitude indicator should be uncaged and adjusted after applying power and caged and locked after removing power. (Dash 1, 1-43)
False - Should be uncaged prior to applying power and caged prior to removing power.
243
The TAD is designed to completely trim the aircraft in yaw and allow the pilot to fly "Feet off". (Dash 1, 1-39)
False - some rudder trim will be required.
244
You should not press the master caution or master warning switchlights to clear a malfunction since that will clear the illuminated annunciators on the annunciator panel. (Dash 1, 1-118)
False - the annunciators on the annunciator panel will only clear after pressing the MC/MW lights IF the problem has corrected itself.
245
If an OBOGS failure occurs, the pilot must drop his or her mask to receive oxygen or pull the emergency oxygen handle. (Dash 1, 1-119)
False - the anti-suffocation valve will allow the pilot to breath cockpit ambient air.
246
If the aircraft hydraulics are reading zero, brake failure will also be expected. (Dash 1, 1-33)
False - the brake system is independent of the aircraft hydraulic system. The brake system is not affected by a failure of the aircraft hydraulic system.
247
When properly locked, care should be taken with the canopy handle since it may be rotated aft without raising the unlock lever. (Dash 1, 1-50)
False - The canopy handle CANNOT be rotated without raising the unlock lever.
248
The GPS always displays distance to the active waypoint. During GPS approaches, this distance will always be the same as the published DME distance on the intrument approach procedure. (Dash 1, 1-110)
False - The distance MAY NOT be the same as the published IAP.
249
Operation of the CFS system disable the firing of either ejection seat. (Dash 1, 1-52)
False - the ejection seat is still hot.
250
Prior to pulling the ejection handle the emergency oxygen must be pulled to provide oxygen for the pilot. (Dash 1, 1-52)
False - the emergency oxygen is activated when ejection is initiated.
251
The engine may be shutdown by lifting the PCL over the cutoff stop. (Dash 1, 1-15)
False - the fingerlift must be raised to place the PCL into the OFF position.
252
The entire T-6 canopy is thick enough to protect against birdstrikes. (Dash 1, 1-48)
False - The front windscreen and front transparency are thicker than the rear transparency.
253
(T/F) Both OBOGS regulators deactivate when the battery is turned off. (Dash 1, 2-23)
False - the OBOGS is located on the Hot Battery bus and will deplete the battery power if left on.
254
Firing of one seat while the ISS selector is set to SOLO prevents the other seat from firing. (Dash 1, 1-56)
False - the other seat may still eject.
255
Both cockpits have a complete environmental control panel. (Dash 1, 1-62)
False - the rear cockpit only has a fan control switch.
256
(T/F) If the flaps are extended, the speed brake will not retract if extended. (-1 pg 6-3)
False - the SB will automatically retract if the flaps are set to any other position than UP.
257
(T/F) The pilot is required to change the trim during speed brake operation. (-1 pg 6-3)
False - The speed brake-elevator interconnect reduces the pitch tendency.
258
When manually balancing the fuel system, the fuel system will automatically reset the auto balance system once the fuel load has been balanced to within approximately 20 lbs. (Dash 1, 1-23)
False - The system must be manually reset by placing the fuel balance switch back to AUTO.
259
During emergency operation, the hydraulic system will allow a one-time extension of the landing gear only. (Dash 1, 1-27)
False - the system will allow a one-time extension of the landing gear, landing gear doors, and the flaps.
260
If the main oil filter becomes clogged, the engine will overheat and seize due to absence of lubrication. (Dash 1, 1-6)
False - there is a filter bypass valve that allows unfiltered oil to continue to lubricate the engine.
261
The gas generator section shaft drives the reduction gearbox. (Dash 1, 1-12)
False - There is no mechanical connection between the gas generator section and the RGB. Hot gases drive the RGB from the gas generator section.
262
The landing gear control handle and gear lights are illuminated in both cockpits when the lamp test switch is activated. (Dash 1, 1-116)
False - they are only activated in the cockpit which activated the lamp test.
263
(T/F) The turn needle will be fully deflected in the opposite direction of the spin. (-1 pg 6-9)
False - turn needle will show the direction of the spin.
264
The only way to transmit and receive on UHF GUARD is to manually dial in GUARD (243.0 MHz) or use a preset with GUARD saved. (Dash 1, 1-69)
False - UHF simultaneously and continuously monitors GUARD freq (243.0 MHz)
265
Should the engine-driven high pressure fuel pump fail, along with the electric boost pump and engine-driven low pressure pump, the engine will receive enough fuel to continue to run from motive flow suction. (Dash 1, 1-24)
False - without the suction from the high pressure engine-driven fuel pump the engine will flameout and will not be able to be restarted.
266
The autostart feature will not automatically terminate the ground start sequence upon detection of a malfunction such as a hung or hot start. (Dash 1, 1-18.1)
False - yes it will.
267
(T/F) To avoid damaging the rudder trim tab and trim mechanism, push gently on rudder trim tab when checking rudder movement. (Dash 1, 2-7)
False - you should NOT push or pull on the rudder trim tabs.
268
(T/F) 5 seconds is the inverted flight time limit? (Dash 1, 5-8)
False (15 seconds)
269
(T/F) Aerobatic operation is prohibited with indicated fuel quantities below 150 lbs total fuel (yellow arc on gage)? (Dash 1, 5-12)
False (150 lbs per side)
270
(T/F) If the rear pilot weight exceeds 250 lbs (including gear) the weight and balance of the aircraft shall be checked? (Dash 1, 5-9)
False (260 lbs )
271
(T/F) The cockpit DP display changes to red and overpressurization safety valve opens at 3.9 psi. (Dash 1, 5-12)
False (4.0 psi)
272
(T/F) The aircraft will decelerate rapidly with power in a dive. (-1 pg 6-3)
False (accelerate)
273
(T/F) The roll trim authority is insufficient to trim the aircraft laterally, with the maximum allowable fuel imbalance of 50 pounds at all airspeeds and configurations. (-1 pg 6-2)
False (adequate)
274
(T/F) A poststall gyration can occur at high airspeed but not at low airspeed. (-1 pg 6-7)
False (both high and low airspeed)
275
(T/F) The stick shaker intensifies noticeably as the flap limit airspeed is approached. (-1 pg 6-3)
False (Buffeting intensifies)
276
(T/F) The starter duty cycle is limited to three 20 second cycles? (Dash 1, 5-8)
False (four 20 second cycles)
277
(T/F) The aircraft is cleared to operate on soft surfaced runways (grass, gravel or similar). (Dash 1, 5-12)
False (hard surfaced runways)
278
(T/F) Intentional spins are prohibited? (Dash 1, 5-8.1)
False (intentional inverted spins are prohibited)
279
(T/F) Intentional inverted stalls are not prohibited? (Dash 1, 5-8.1)
False (they are prohibited)
280
(T/F) The trim aid computer will completely trim the aircraft directionally? (-1 pg 6-2)
False (will not)
281
(T/F) The FUEL BAL annunciator will illuminate when there is greater than a 20 pound difference between the left and right wing tanks for more than two minutes. (Dash 1, 3-20)
FALSE -30 pound difference
282
(T/F) The Propeller will NOT feather unless the PCL is in IDLE. (Dash 1, 3-8)
FALSE -PCL must be in CUT OFF to feather the prop.
283
The stick shaker activates approximately ________ knots prior to the stall. (Dash 1, 1-47)
five to ten
284
The canopy fracturing system uses __________ to fracture the front transparency and ___________ to fracture the rear transparency. (Dash 1, 1-50)
flexible linear shaped charge, mild detonating cord
285
The _________ provides a minimum 15 second supply of fuel regardless of orientation, and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system. (Dash 1, 1-21)
Flip-flop valve
286
The active flight plan is always displayed as ________. (Dash 1, 1-107)
FPL 0
287
When the emergency firewall shutoff handle is pulled _________ is shutoff. (Dash 1, 1-21)
Fuel flow; Hydraulic fluid; Bleed air
288
If the ________ ground personnel will not be able to operate canopy fracturing system in an emergency. (Dash 1, 2-7)
ground egress door is locked
289
A ___________ cools engine bleed air so that the bleed air is provided to the suit at a comfortable temperature. (Dash 1, 1-59)
heat exchanger
290
The _________ provides pressure to drive a metal bellows, which provides pressure for emergency landing gear and flap operation. (Dash 1, 1-28)
helium precharge
291
The sensor tubes in the overheat and fire detection system contain ________. (Dash 1, 1-19)
Helium; Hydrogen
292
Spins below 10,000 feet MSL are prohibited due to ______________________ which occur during the spin maneuver with the propeller RPM below 80%.(-1 pg 6-9)
High stresses on the propeller
293
The _________ allows approximately 45 cubic inches of hydraulic fluid to pass until the pressure on the main side and the emergency side is approximately equal. (Dash 1, 1-28)
hydraulic fuse
294
The _________ prevents the loss of all hydraulic fluid from the main system to the emergency system, allowing gear and flaps to be lowered using the main system. (Dash 1, 1-28)
hydraulic fuse
295
The ________ is used to pressurize the hydraulic system and emergency accumulator to 3000 psi. (Dash 1, 1-27)
Hydraulic pump
296
When will the FUEL PX annunciator illuminate? (Dash 1, 3-19)
If engine feed fuel pressure drops below 10 psi; The boost pump fails to engage automatically
297
At what point will external power be disconnected from the aircrafts electrical system. (Dash 1, 1-26)
If external voltage reaches 29.2 VDC
298
The spin-like motion that occurs between a postal gyration and a fully-developed spin is called an _____________.(-1 pg 6-8)
Incipient spin
299
During hot weather operations ground speed will be _____ , during takeoff, for the same IAS when compared to operations at cooler temperatures. (Dash 1, 7-7)
Increased
300
What is the defining characteristic of an upright, wings-level stall? (-1 pg 6-4)
Increased buffet; Roll off; Wing-drop; Roll-off and wing-drop
301
The reversible flight control system becomes more sensitive as airspeed _______.(-1 pg 6-3)
Increases
302
A __________ is used to lock the main gear in the down position. (Dash 1, 1-30)
Internal lock
303
The 28V generator _________. (Dash 1, 1-26)
Is the primary power source; Is regulated by a generator control unit; Is sufficient to operate all equipment on the generator bus and battery bus; Has sufficient power to charge the 24V battery
304
In order to shut off the emergency oxygen system__________. (Dash 1, 1-53)
It cannot be shut off once activated
305
Leg garters should be attached __________. (Dash 1, 1-53)
just above the boots
306
Which systems are inoperative when the HYDR FL LO annunciator is illuminated: (Dash 1, 3-20.1)
Landing gear normal extension; Flap normal extension; Speed brake and NWS
307
Failure to route the __________ SSK lines may result in entanglement with the SSK lines during seat-pilot separation. (Dash 1, 2-8)
lap belt over
308
The _________ are designed to prevent leg injuries due to flailing during ejections. (Dash 1, 1-53)
leg restraint system
309
The standby magnetic compass is accurate during _____________. (Dash 1, 1-43)
level, unaccelerated flight
310
Initial indications of engine failure/flameout are: (Dash 1, 3-8)
Loss of power and airspeed; Rapid decay in N1, torque, and ITT; Propeller movement towards feather
311
The auto balance system __________. (Dash 1, 1-23)
Maintains the fuel load in each tank within 20 lbs of the each other; Activates the transfer valve to close the motive flow line to the light tank; Illuminates the amber FUEL BAL annunciator should the imbalance exceed 30 lbs for more than 2 min.
312
The _____________ initiates seat-pilot separation if the automatic system fails, or if seat-pilot separation is desired above 15000 ft MSL. (Dash 1, 1-53)
manual override handle (MOR)
313
The auto balance system ________ reset to provide an additional two minutes for the automatic system to balance fuel load. (Dash 1, 1-23)
May be
314
The generator switches are _______ held and ________ interlocked, to allow the generator to be controlled from either cockpit. (Dash 1, 1-26)
Mechanically, electrically
315
The battery switches are _______ held and ________ interlocked, to allow the generator to be controlled from either cockpit. (Dash 1, 1-26)
Mechanically, electrically
316
The engine data manager (EDM) _____________. (Dash 1, 1-15)
Monitors engine operating parameters and illuminates the appropriate annunciator when necessary; Drives the primary and alternate engine system displays, and the engine/systems/NACWS display; Aids the fuel system in fuel balancing and quantity indications
317
As airspeed increases, trim appears to become ___________________.(-1 pg 6-2)
More effective
318
Do what to the aircraft if winds are expected above 80 knots. (Dash 1, 1-122)
Move the aircraft to a hangar.
319
With the interphone control set to HOT, pressing the ICS KEY/MUTE switch ___________.(Dash 1, 1-68)
Mutes all external incoming audio
320
The primary pitot system probe is located ________. (Dash 1, 1-39)
Near the right wingtip
321
Pulsing the trim control is ___________ to avoid over-trimming at higher airspeeds. (-1 pg 6-2)
Necessary
322
What is the time limit for operation at maximum power? (Dash 1, 5-8)
No limit
323
If the generator will not reset, very the starter switch is in ________. The starter will drain battery power in ________minutes if left in MANUAL. (Dash 1, 3-12)
NORM, 10
324
An operating procedure, technique, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize is a _________. (Dash 1, iii)
Note
325
The left P3 port provides bleed air for the ____________. (Dash 1, 1-27)
OBOGS
326
With the bleed air inflow switch set to OFF position, the following systems will be operational: (Dash 1, 3-24)
OBOGS
327
What is the best means of recovery if a progressive spin is inadvertently encountered? (-1 pg 6-9)
OCF procedure
328
What is the best means of recovery if an aggravated spin is inadvertently encountered? (-1 pg 6-9)
OCF procedure
329
If the PMU terminates the start, or if the start is manually aborted, retard the PCL to ______ and manually motor the engine for ___ seconds. (Dash 1, 2-10.1)
off, 20
330
How many times may the PMU be reset? (Dash 1, 1-18.2)
Once, if fails again set to off and continue flight in manual mode.
331
The oil quantity operating range is between full and ? (Dash 1, 5-7)
One quart low for normal operation.
332
The _________ prevents backflow from the emergency system to the main system, allowing the gear and flaps to be lowered using the emergency system. (Dash 1, 1-28)
one way check valve
333
During rear seat ejection, which of the following are true? (Dash 1, 1-50)
Only the rear transparency detonates; The rear seat ejects prior to the first seat should the ISS be in BOTH.
334
Setting the bus tie switch to ______ is the only action required to lower electrical load enough for the main battery to last at least 30 minutes if the generator fails in flight. (Dash 1, 1-27)
OPEN
335
All stopping distances computed from Appendix A are based on _______. (Dash 1, 2-22)
Optimum Braking
336
With ailerons held in the directions of spin rotation, roll and yaw become noticeably _________________.(-1 pg 6-9)
Oscillatory
337
Which of the following is true regarding the activation of the CFS by ground personnel. (Dash 1, 1-52)
Personnel should face away from the canopy when activating the CFS.; The handle lanyard must be pulled to the full extent of its 10 foot length.
338
An incipient spin is characterized by oscillations in ________. (-1 pg 6-8)
Pitch and roll; Yaw attitudes and rates
339
The air data computer (ADC) receives ________ information and develops airspeed, altitude, and climb rate parameters. (Dash 1, 1-41)
Pitot/static
340
Which indications will you receive with the PMU OFF. (Dash 1, 1-18.1)
PMU FAIL; PMU STATUS
341
Illumination of the CHIP annunciator indicates: (Dash 1, 3-15)
Possible metal contamination in engine oil supply
342
In general, OCF can be divided into which following categories: (-1 pg 6-7)
Poststall gyrations and steady state-spins; Poststall spins and incipient spins
343
What device automatically controls the propeller blade angle (pitch) and propeller speed (Np)? (Dash 1, 1-15)
Power management unit (PMU); Propeller interface unit (PIU)
344
The _________ prevents damage from high system pressures. (Dash 1, 1-28)
pressure relief valve
345
The _________ feeds fuel to the main fuel line. (Dash 1, 1-21)
Primary jet pump
346
Intentional inverted departures and spins are _____________.(-1 pg 6-9)
Prohibited
347
Intentional spins in other than cruise configuration at idle power are ____________.(-1 pg 6-10)
Prohibited
348
Erect spin recovery is ___________ after recovery controls are applied. (-1 pg 6-10)
Prompt
349
An accelerated stall induced by a turning entry and increased G is preceded by _________ buffet before the stall is reached. (-1 pg 6-7)
Pronounced
350
A spiral can result from misapplication of ________________. (-1 pg 6-8)
pro-spin controls
351
To operate the emergency extension of the flaps, ___________. (Dash 1, 1-33)
Pull the emergency landing gear extension handle; The gear must be down.
352
Max cooling is achieved by selecting ________________. (Dash 1, 1-63)
RAM AIR - OFF; BLEED AIR INFLOW - OFF
353
Selecting ___________, opens the control valve and the fresh air valve, and allows bleed air inflow to continue. (Dash 1, 1-61,63)
RAM DUMP
354
Amber markings on engine instrumentation indicate: (Dash 1, 5-2)
Range where special attention should be given
355
The the UHF backup control unit is ON, the word ________ is displayed in the UHF box on the RMU. (Dash 1, 1-74)
REMOTE
356
Actuating the trim disconnect switch will ____________. (Dash 1, 1-34)
Remove power from the trim system and cause the trim aid device to disengage
357
Frequent cross-checks of airspeed are ____________ during climb out to prevent deviations from the climb airspeed schedule. (-1 pg 6-3)
Required
358
If engine start is initiated with the PCL in OFF, the start may be aborted by ______________. (Dash 1, 2-12)
reselecting AUTO/RESET on the starter switch
359
To discriminate between fire or overheat, ___________. (Dash 1, 1-19)
Retard the PCL. If the warning ceases, suspect an overheat
360
The decision to takeoff or abort should be based on the following: (Dash 1, 3-7)
Runway length and condition, terminal weather conditions and area traffic; If any system emergency affecting safety of flight is experienced prior to liftoff
361
Prior to pilot entry and egress from the aircraft, ensure the ISS is in the ______ position. (Dash 1, 1-56)
SOLO
362
A __________ is used to lock the nose gear in the down position. (Dash 1, 1-30)
Spring-strut
363
To begin an automatic start, the PCL must be positioned at the ________ position. (Dash 1, 1-19)
St Ready
364
Poststall gyrations are the motions of the aircraft about one or more axes immediately following: (-1 pg 6-7)
Stall and prior to the incipient spin
365
A spin requires ________________ simultaneously with __________________.(-1 pg 6-8)
Stalled angle-of-attack, sustained yaw rate
366
When spin recovery controls are applied the pitch attitude will ___________ and spin rate will initially ____________.(-1 pg 6-10)
Steepen, increase
367
The gust lock locks ____________. (Dash 1, 1-39)
the ailerons and rudder in the neutral position, elevator in a nose down position.
368
When testing the AOA gage in the LOW position, you should see _____________. (Dash 1, 1-46)
The amber donut; No red chevron in either cockpit indexer; AOA gage reads 10.5 ± 0.25
369
If the auxiliary battery test switch light does not illuminated when tested, _________. (Dash 1, 1-116)
The auxiliary battery is less than 50% capacity.
370
The CKPT ALT annunciator illuminates when ______________. (Dash 1, 1-62)
The cockpit altitude rises above 19000 ft
371
A red CKPT PX annunciator illuminates when ______________. (Dash 1, 1-62)
the cockpit pressure differential exceeds 3.9 ± 0.1 psi
372
Should the electric boost pump and the engine-driven low pressure pump fail, _________ will suction feed sufficient fuel for continued engine operation. (Dash 1, 1-24)
the engine-drive high-pressure fuel pump
373
HYDR FL LO annunciator indicates that ________. (Dash 1, 1-28)
the fluid level in the hydraulic reservoir has dropped below approximately 1quart.
374
A red light in each gear handle illuminates to indicate ____________. (Dash 1, 1-32)
The gear doors are not closed; The PCL is approaching IDLE with the gear handle UP.
375
The gear horn is sound when ___________ (Dash 1, 1-32)
The Gear is UP (3 red) and power is below 87% N1 with the airspeed below 120 KIAS and the flaps at any position.; The Gear is UP (no lights) with flaps in the LDG position at any power setting.
376
The red lens in the gear indication is illuminated when ___________. (Dash 1, 1-32)
The gear or gear doors (mains only) are in transit.; The PCL is approaching IDLE and the gear handle is UP, regardless of airspeed.
377
Max endurance AOA yields ___________. (Dash 1, 1-47)
the greatest amount of flying time per pound of fuel remaining
378
When testing the AOA gage in the HIGH position, you should see _____________. (Dash 1, 1-46)
The green chevron in both cockpit indexers; No amber donut in either cockpit indexer; AOA gage reads 18.0 ± 0.25; Activation of the stick shaker
379
With UHF comm in BOTH, the receiver monitors ___________. (Dash 1, 1-73)
the guard receiver; the main receiver
380
After the PCL is advanced past the IDLE gate, how can the start be terminated? (Dash 1, 1-19)
The PCL must be placed in the OFF position.
381
After the PCL is advanced past the start ready position, how can the start be terminated? (Dash 1, 1-19)
The PCL must be placed in the OFF position.; The STARTER switch must be placed to AUTO/RESET.
382
EHYD PX LO annunciator indicates that ________. (Dash 1, 1-28)
the pressure in the emergency accumulator has dropped below 2400±150
383
If a red GEN annunciator is illuminated _________. (Dash 1, 1-26)
The starter/generator has malfunctioned; The air conditioning is automatically shed
384
Activation of either internal CFS handle activates which canopy fracturing system? (Dash 1, 1-50)
The transparency over the respective cockpit.
385
When the transponder is set to STBY, _________________. (Dash 1, 1-70)
the transponder code may be selected, but the transponder will not respond to ground or airborne interrogations.
386
When the transponder is set to ALT, _________________. (Dash 1, 1-70)
the transponder will respond to interrogations with the selected code and altitude info.
387
When the transponder is set to ON, _________________. (Dash 1, 1-70)
the transponder will transmit the selected code when interrogated, but will not provide altitude reporting info.
388
If the PMU STATUS light illuminates 1 minute after landing _________. (Dash 1, 1-18.1)
There is a fault that is not serious enough to have reverted the system to the manual mode of operation during flight.
389
The CHIP annunciator indicates ___________. (Dash 1, 1-12)
There is metal contamination in the oil system
390
Conditions that may indicate windshear include. (Dash 1, 7-3)
Thunderstorm activity; Gust fronts; Virga; Large Temperature Inversions
391
When connecting the leg garters, buckles should be _______, and D-rings _______. (Dash 1, 1-57)
to the inside, aft
392
The _________ direct/s fuel from each wing tank to the collector tank, keeping the collector tank pressurized. (Dash 1, 1-21)
transfer jet pumps
393
Which button manually selects the NACWS display for seven seconds? (Dash 1, 1-91)
Trigger
394
The only way to transmit and receive on VHF GUARD is to manually dial in GUARD (121.5 MHz) or use a preset with GUARD saved. (Dash 1, 1-70)
TRUE
395
(T/F) In the event of ICS failure, the pilot requesting control will shake the control stick, and the pilot relinquishing control will raise both hands. (Dash 1, 2-3)
TRUE
396
(T/F) Any fault discovered during the overspeed governor check is reason for ground abort. (Dash 1, 2-13)
TRUE
397
(T/F) If the flaps are set to LDG and the gear is raised, the gear warning horn will sound and cannot be canceled. (Dash 1, 2-16)
TRUE
398
(T/F) Allow ITT to stabilize at idle for at least one minute prior to shutdown. (Dash 1, 2-23)
TRUE
399
(T/F) If the PCL is left in a position other than OFF when shutting the engine down, fuel flow may continue and cause serious damage due to over temperature. (Dash 1, 2-23)
TRUE
400
(T/F) To prevent possible burns, application of electrical power to pitot and AOA heating elements should not exceed 10 seconds. (Dash 1, 2-25)
TRUE
401
(T/F) The maximum allowable airspeed (red striped) pointer is self adjusting for altitude on the Electronic Airspeed indicator? (Dash 1, 5-3)
TRUE
402
(T/F) Sustained operation at maximum power may significantly reduce engine service life? (Dash 1, 5-8)
TRUE
403
(T/F) Operating maneuvering speed (Vo) is the speed above which full or abrupt control movements can result in structural damage to the aircraft. (Dash 1, 5-8)
TRUE
404
(T/F) 5 seconds is the Intentional zero-G flight time limit? (Dash 1, 5-8)
TRUE
405
(T/F) Spinning with the speed brake extended is prohibited? (Dash 1, 5-9)
TRUE
406
(T/F) Canopy defog must be off for takeoff and landing. (Dash 1, 5-10)
TRUE
407
(T/F) Crew duties are not applicable to this aircraft? (Dash 1, 4-1)
TRUE
408
The pilot applying the most pedal force determines the amount of braking being used.
True.
409
Each RMU provide remote tuning and mode selection for ___________. (Dash 1, 1-71)
UHF comm; VHF comm; Transponder; VOR nav/DME
410
To transmit on UHF, press the toggle ______. (Dash 1, 1-69)
Up
411
If the speed brake has been extended, it will automatically retract if the flaps are set to any position other than ________.(-1 pg 6-3)
UP
412
The _________ allows the high-pressure pump to purge to the collector tank. (Dash 1, 1-21)
Vent line
413
There is _____________ pitch trim change when flaps are selected to the takeoff position. (-1 pg 6-3)
Very little
414
Which of the following navigation displays are options on the EHSI? (Dash 1, 1-87)
VOR; GPS; None (Blank)
415
An operating procedure, technique, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life is a _______. (Dash 1, iii)
Warning
416
The PMU ground and flight modes are controlled by a ________. (Dash 1, 1-15)
Weight on wheels switch on the main gear struts
417
During rapid acceleration from low to high speed, the pilot ____________ need to initially trim nose down to avoid a rapid build up in forces. (-1 pg 6-2)
Will
418
The Martin-Baker ejection seat is capable of providing safe escape from _________. (Dash 1, 1-52)
Zero altitude; Zero airspeed; £ 35000 ft; £ 370 KIAS
419
Flattening, twisting, kinking or denting of the fire detection loop will affect test or flight operation of the system. (Dash 1, 1-19)
FALSE
420
(T/F) Only intentional erect spins with landing gear, flaps, and speed brake up and power at MAX are permitted. (-1 pg 6-9)
FALSE
421
(T/F) The T-6 Texan II is approved for flight into known icing conditions. (Dash 1, 7-4)
FALSE
422
(T/F) To avoid damage to the canopy, chip all ice off the canopy prior to engine start. (Dash 1, 7-5)
FALSE
423
With the ignition switch set to NORM, the PMU will energize and de-energize the igniters as required. (Dash 1, 1-12)
TRUE
424
When feathered, the propeller blades are aligned nearly straight into the wind, thereby minimizing drag. (Dash 1, 1-15)
TRUE
425
With an EDM FAIL message all indications are correct except those replaced with amber dashes and/or mission pointers are invalid. (Dash 1, 1-18.1)
TRUE
426
Engine bleed air is utilized for canopy pressurization seal, anti-G system, environmental control system (ECS), pressurization and the OBOGS. (Dash 1, 1-27)
TRUE
427
When the emergency gear extension is activated, the main gear inner doors will remain open. (Dash 1, 1-31)
TRUE
428
Failure to secure the cowling latches prior to takeoff may allow the cowling to open in flight, causing damage to the aircraft or loss of control. (Dash 1, 1-48)
TRUE
429
DME hold function can only be used when the primary navigation source is selected w/groundspeed and thime to go displayed. (Dash 1, 1-90)
TRUE
430
The front unit must be on and functioning properly for either unit to be used for navigation. The last input from either cockpit has priority for system control. (Dash 1, 1-94)
TRUE
431
Both the landing and taxi lights will only illuminate once all three gear are down and locked. (Dash 1, 1-116)
TRUE
432
(T/F) Failure to close and latch the CFS pin storage box prior to closing the canopy may damage the canopy when the canopy is closed. (Dash 1, 2-24)
TRUE
433
(T/F) After a stop which required maximum effort braking and if overheated brakes are suspected, do not taxi into or park in a congested area until brakes have had sufficient time to cool. (Dash 1, 3-7)
TRUE
434
(T/F) With suspected overheated brakes, do not set the parking brake (Dash 1, 3-7)
TRUE
435
(T/F) With a loss of hydraulic pressure, landing gear and flaps CANNOT be lowered by normal means. (Dash 1, 3-7)
TRUE
436
(T/F) Engine failure will result in a loss of bleed air supply to the OBOGS concentrator and environmental control system causing subsequent OBOGS and ECS failure. (Dash 1, 3-8)
TRUE
437
(T/F) Do not delay ejection while attempting airstart at low altitude if below 2000 ft AGL. (Dash 1, 3-11)
TRUE
438
(T/F) Do not reset circuit breaker in flight after an uncommanded movement of the propeller to feather (Dash 1, 3-12.1)
TRUE
439
(T/F) Extension of nose gear may establish airflow into the engine compartment that could reignite a smoldering fire or cause a hydraulic fire if a hydraulic leak exists. (Dash 1, 3-13)
TRUE
440
(T/F) To prevent injury, ensure oxygen mask is on and the visor is down prior to actuating the CFS system. (Dash 1, 3-14)
TRUE
441
(T/F) If the CHIP detector is illuminated, the engine may fail with little or no further warning. (Dash 1, 3-15)
TRUE
442
(T/F) Emergency flaps will be powered by the main battery through the auxiliary battery bus as long as the main battery has not failed. (Dash 1, 3-16.1)
TRUE
443
(T/F) If engine fuel feed pressure is fluctuating at or below 10 psi, the boost pump will alternately cycle on and off, illuminating and extinguishing the BOOST PUMP annunciator. (Dash 1, 3-19)
TRUE
444
(T/F) With a full lateral fuel imbalance (one tank full, the other tank empty), sufficient lateral authority exists to control the aircraft (no crosswind). (Dash 1, 3-20)
TRUE
445
(T/F) Actuation of landing gear or flaps will normally cause a momentary drop in hydraulic pressure below the green arc. (Dash 1, 3-21)
TRUE
446
(T/F) Whenever the trim interrupt button is being depressed, or when the trim disconnect switch is set to disconnect, all trim systems are disengaged and the TAD is disconnected. (Dash 1, 3-23)
TRUE
447
(T/F) With a sudden or rapid decompression at altitudes near 20,000 ft MSL, there may be a transient OBOGS FAIL indication as the OBOGS system switches to high altitude mode to compensate for higher cockpit pressure altitudes. (Dash 1, 3-24)
TRUE
448
(T/F) Do not land or taxi across raised arresting cables with main gear doors open. (Dash 1, 3-35)
TRUE
449
(T/F) With the ISS selector set to BOTH, both seats will eject, even if one is safely pinned. (Dash 1, 3-4)
TRUE
450
(T/F) With a loss of hydraulic pressure, flaps will extend slowly with residual pressure and may take longer to deploy. (Dash 1, 3-35)
TRUE
451
(T/F) The aircraft incorporates a reversible flight control system. (-1 pg 6-2)
TRUE
452
(T/F) Lowering the flaps to the LDG position produces a slight pitch up, which is easily controllable. (-1 pg 6-3)
TRUE
453
(T/F) The flap/speed brake interconnect prevents the use of the speed brake with the flaps extended. (-1 pg 6-3)
TRUE
454
(T/F) Without normal hydraulic pressure, use of the speed brake in a power-off glide is not possible. (-1 pg 6-4)
TRUE
455
(T/F) During accelerated/turning entries into a stall, moderate buffet occurs well prior to the actual stall. (-1 pg 6-4)
TRUE
456
(T/F) The stick shaker may mask natural aircraft buffet during stall approach and recovery. (-1 pg 6-4)
TRUE
457
(T/F) Poststall gyrations may be violent and disorienting. (-1 pg 6-7)
TRUE
458
(T/F) Anti-spin controls may not be effective in arresting the spiral and may actually aggravate the situation. (-1 pg 6-8)
TRUE
459
(T/F) After completing the initial turn, of an erect spin, the nose will pitch to approximately 60° below the horizon. (-1 pg 6-9)
TRUE
460
(T/F) Spins in either direction may exhibit roll and yaw oscillations after three turns with neutral ailerons. (-1 pg 6-9)
TRUE
461
(T/F) Ailerons have pronounced effect on spin characteristics. (-1 pg 6-9)
TRUE
462
(T/F) During a spin, oil pressure may decrease below 40 psi with idle power, which is acceptable provided normal indications return after recovery. (-1 pg 6-9)
TRUE
463
T or F A progressive spin is a result of misapplication of recovery controls. (-1 pg 6-9)
TRUE
464
(T/F) The aircraft will recover from erect spins with controls free and with the PCL at IDLE. (-1 pg 6-10)
TRUE
465
(T/F) In all cases of inverted or power on departures, the engine shall be inspected by qualified maintenance personnel after flight. (-1 pg 6-11)
TRUE
466
(T/F) Every effort should be made during servicing to prevent moisture from entering the fuel system. To this end, whenever possible, leave the aircraft parked with full fuel tanks to reduce condensation. (Dash 1, 7-6)
TRUE
467
(T/F) Takeoff planning is of extreme importance when operating from a marginal length runway in high ambient temperatures and high density altitudes. (Dash 1, 7-7)
TRUE
