T-6 EPQ Dash 1 Flashcards
During a “pilot-monitored” start, the PCL should be placed to IDLE once N1 reaches ________. (Dash 1, 1-19)
13%
Regardless of which seat initiates the ejection, the rear seat ejects first and the front seat will follow ______ seconds after, with the ISS in BOTH. (Dash 1, 1-56)
0.37
During an auto start, at approximately ______ N1, the starter and igniters are de-energized and the boost pump is deactivated. (Dash 1, 1-19)
50%
The highest possible oxygen concentration is _____________. (Dash 1, 1-121)
95%
With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor limits the Np to at or below _______ at approximately 2120 RPM. (Dash 1, 1-15)
106%
The propeller overspeed limit is ____Np. (Dash 1, 5-8)
110%
Natural stall warning, in the form of light aerodynamic buffet, occurs approximately ____ knots before the stall during power-off stalls in all configurations. (-1 pg 6-4)
3
After completing approximately ____ turns, the spin will have entered a near steady state condition. (-1 pg 6-9)
3
With the SSK (seat survival kit) in AUTO, the SSK is lowered automatically ______ seconds after seat-pilot separation. (Dash 1, 1-57)
4
To test the Aux Battery, position the switch forward for a minimum of _______ seconds. (Dash 1, 2-8)
5
Depending on airspeed, N1 will indicate 0% within approximately __________seconds, even though the gas generator core may not have seized. (Dash 1, 3-8)
5
Maximum permissible crosswind for and icy runway is ____ knots. (Dash 1, 5-10)
5
The stick shaker provides artificial stall warning in each cockpit a minimum of _____ knots before the stall is reached. (-1 pg 6-4)
5
Operations in visible moisture at outside air temperatures of ___ degrees C or below should be avoided. (Dash 1, 7-5)
5
The standby attitude indicator will provide accurate indications for at least _______minutes after a loss of all electrical power. (Dash 1, 3-14)
9
The electric boost pump is activated anytime the pressure in the motive flow line drops below ______ psi and the PCL is above the start ready position.
10
The emergency oxygen system supplies the pilot with oxygen for approximately _______ minutes. (Dash 1, 1-53)
10
There are _______ antennas mounted on the aircraft for navigation and communications. (Dash 1, 1-66)
10
The Emergency Oxygen bottle provides approximately ___________minutes of oxygen. (Dash 1, 3-8)
10
Maximum tailwind component for takeoff is ____ knots. (Dash 1, 5-10)
10
If windshear is suspected on an approach, and unable to divert, set takeoff flaps and fly approach up to ___ knots faster than normal. (Dash 1, 7-3)
10
Upon encountering windshear at low altitude, ensure the PCL is at MAX power and increase pitch attitude to no less than ___ degrees for best rate of climb. (Dash 1, 7-3)
15
The oil system has an oil capacity of _______ U.S. quarts. (Dash 1, 1-6)
18
The automatic fuel balancing system maintains fuel load in each wing to within _______pounds of the other. (Dash 1, 3-20)
20
Do not attempt a battery powered ground start if the battery voltage is below ____volts. (Dash 1, 5-8)
23.5
The GPS can store up to _______ flight plans. (Dash 1, 1-107)
25
The GPS can store up to _______ waypoints in each flight plan. (Dash 1, 1-107)
30
After landing off station, check oil level within ___ minutes of shutdown. (Dash 1, 2-24)
30
Standby instruments (and their associated lighting) and UHF tuning (backup UHF control head) will be powered for approximately ________minutes by the auxiliary battery. (Dash 1, 3-16.1)
30
Maximum lateral fuel imbalance is _____lbs. (Dash 1, 5-12)
50
Above _____% torque, full right rudder and full right aileron may not prevent a left roll off at stall. (-1 pg 6-4)
60
The baggage compartment is limited to _________ lbs. (Dash 1, 1-121)
80
The maximum weight in the baggage compartment is _____lbs. (Dash 1, 5-10)
80
A spin may be entered by maintaining full aft stick and applying full rudder in the desired spin direction at _____ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-9)
80
In no case should the aircraft be slowed below _______KIAS or to activation of the stick shaker, whichever is higher during a controllability check. (Dash 1, 3-21)
90
At approach speeds or below with flaps in the LDG position, full nose right trim is required at _____% torque. (-1 pg 6-2)
100
Altitude lost during recovery from a wings level stall is usually less than ______ feet, assuming a prompt application of recovery power. (-1 pg 6-7)
100
Illumination of the left or right fuel level low annunciator indicates that approximately _______pounds of usable fuel remains in the affected wing tank. (Dash 1, 3-20)
110
Landings have been accomplished at touchdown speeds up to approximately _____KIAS in the normal landing configuration. (Dash 1, 3-21)
110
Maintain a minimum of ________________KIAS when maneuvering to intercept the Emergency Landing Pattern
120
Plan to intercept the emergency landing pattern at or below high key in the appropriate configuration and a minimum airspeed of ________KIAS. (Dash 1, 3-31)
120
A spiral is a rolling and/or yawing motion of the aircraft that is often mistaken for a spin, but is not steady-state in that airspeed is increasing through _____ KIAS and motions are oscillatory. (-1 pg 6-8)
160
For uncoordinated rolling maneuvers initiated at -1 G, the maximum bank angle change is _____ degrees. (Dash 1, 5-9 IS-016)
180
If uncoordinated rolling maneuvers are initiated at -1 G, the maximum bank angle change is ________ degrees. (-1 pg 6-3)
180
Should flight through an area of thunderstorm activity become unavoidable, penetration airspeed of ____ KIAS is recommended. (Dash 1, 7-2)
180
Maximum airspeed for flying through turbulence is _____KIAS. (Dash 1, 5-8)
206
Operating maneuvering speed (Vo) is ______KIAS. (Dash 1, 5-8)
227
If PEL is being performed with IDLE power, add _______feet to high, low and base key altitudes to compensate for drag of un-feathered prop. (Dash 1, 3-31)
500
Maximum rate of descent at touchdown is _____ feet per minute. (Dash 1, 5-10)
780
The PT6A-68 engine has been flat rated to produce _________shaft horsepower. (Dash 1, 1-6)
1100
Pressing and holding the transponder field select key(Left rectangle) for three seconds automatically inputs ______. (Dash 1, 1-73)
1200
Approximately _________ft of altitude will be lost during an airstart attempt performed at best glide speed of 125 KIAS. (Dash 1, 3-10)
1,200
Once the hydraulic system is pressurized to ________ psi the system can be used to power the hydraulic components. (Dash 1, 1-27)
1800
Airstart procedure is not recommended below __________ft AGL, as primary attention should be to eject or safely recover the aircraft. (Dash 1, 3-8)
2,000
The EHYD PX LO annunciator will illuminate whenever emergency hydraulic pressure drops below __________psi indicated. (Dash 1, 3-21)
2400
The hydraulic system is pressurized to ______ psi. (Dash 1, 1-27)
3000
Altitude loss during a typical steady-state spin is approximately ______ feet for a six-turn spin. (-1 pg 6-8)
4500
The T-6A basic empty weight is approximately _______ lbs. (Dash 1, 1-4)
4900
Recommended minimum altitude for uncontrolled ejection is ____________ft AGL. (Dash 1, 3-13)
6,000
Maximum takeoff gross weight is _______ lbs. (Dash1, 1-4)
6500
For best cockpit cooling below ____ feet MSL, set Bleed Air Inflow and Ram Air switches to off. Set temperature controller as required. (Dash 1, 7-6)
7500
Cockpit pressure altitude at 31000 ft is _______ ft. (Dash 1, 1-61)
16600
The CKPT ALT annunciator light illuminates whenever the cockpit pressure altitude exceeds __________feet. (Dash 1, 3-24)
19,000
Airstarts may be attempted at any altitude and airspeed, although airstarts have only been demonstrated at ___________ft MSL and below. (Dash 1, 3-8)
20,000
As the aircraft gets to the missed approach point, the GPS automatically switches the CDI scale to ______ NM. (Dash 1, 1-112)
± 1
Above 18, 769 feet MSL, what is the Maximum operating airspeed (Vmo)? (Dash 1, 5-8)
.67 MACH
What are the asymmetric gear and flaps extended acceleration limits? (Dash 1, 5-9)
ERROR!
What are the symmetric gear and flaps extended acceleration limits? (Dash 1, 5-9)
ERROR!
What are the asymmetric clean acceleration limits? (Dash 1, 5-9)
ERROR!
What are the symmetric clean acceleration limits? (Dash 1, 5-9)
ERROR!
Mach information is blanked below _______ . (Dash 1, 1-41)
0.40 Mach
Should the collector tank fuel probe fail, the fuel level in both wing tanks will each drop __________. (Dash 1, 1-23)
½ the gaged level (approximately 20 lbs per side)
Once recovery controls have been applied, spin rotation will abruptly cease within __________ turns after applying controls. (-1 pg 6-10)
1 ½
The amount of usable oil is __________. (Dash 1, 1-121)
1 Qt
The fuel transfer pumps pressurize the collector tank to ______ psi. (Dash 1, 1-24)
1 to 1.5
When parking on ramps with greater than ______ slope, the fuel system may vent fuel overboard through the pressure relief valve on the _______ wing. (Dash 1, 1-21)
1%, Low
The hydraulic system has a total hydraulic fluid capacity of ________. (Dash 1, 1-27)
1.25 gal
If gusty winds are present during takeoff, increase rotation speed by __________. (Dash 1, 2-15)
1/2 the gust factor (up to 10 knots)
With the PMU OFF, permissible maximum Np is? (Dash 1, 5-7)
100 ± 2 %
For AOA approaches/landings, optimum approach airspeed is ________. (Dash 1, 1-46)
100 knots minus approximately one knot for every 100 lbs of fuel used
With the PMU offline, the mechanical overspeed governor limits the Np to at or below _______ at approximately 2000 RPM. (Dash 1, 1-15)
100±2%
The “Green Arc” on the angle of attack indicator indicates: (Dash 1, 5-3)
10-11 units
Best glide speed with gear down, flaps up, and speed brake up is approximately _____ KIAS with a sink rate of __________ fpm. (-1 pg 6-4)
105, 1500
With the PCL at MAX, the engine is rated to produce at least _______shp and indicate ____% torque below critical altitude on a standard day? (Dash 1, 5-7)
1100, 100
In a runaway trim situation, except when trim is at full nose down, reducing airspeed to ____________KIAS will reduce control forces. (Dash 1, 3-23)
110-150
The amber L/R FUEL LO annunciator indicates fuel quantity below approximately _________ in the respective wing tank. (Dash 1, 1-24)
112 lbs
What is the critical altitude, which is the altitude at which maximum sea level horsepower is no longer available? (Dash 1, 5-7)
12,000 - 16,000 feet MSL
Nose wheel tire pressure is ___________. (Dash 1, 1-121)
120 ± 5 psi
100% torque is available from sea level to approximately __________ on a standard day. (Dash 1, 1-6)
12000 to 16000 ft MSL
Recommended entry speed for a Split S is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
120-140
Best glide speed in clean configuration is approximately _____ KIAS with a sink rate of __________ fpm. (-1 pg 6-4)
125, 1100-1300
What is the maximum airspeed with the flaps extended? (Dash 1, 5-8)
150 KIAS
What is the maximum airspeed during flap operation? (Dash 1, 5-8)
150 KIAS
The maximum airspeed with the landing gear extended (VLE) or during landing gear operation is? (Dash 1, 5-8)
150 KIAS
A pitch attitude of __________ degrees nose high provides the best entry into a spin. (-1 pg 6-9)
15-20
________ units indicates a stall on the AOA gage. (Dash 1, 1-45)
18 (red arc)
- The “Red Arc” on the angle of attack indicator indicates: (Dash 1, 5-3)
18 units
The nose wheel is a free castoring type with ______ degrees of castor. (Dash 1, 1-32)
180 (90 left and right of center)
Recommended entry speed for an Aileron Roll is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
180-220
What is the cooling period for the second starter duty cycle? (Dash 1, 5-8)
2 minutes
As aircraft gets to within ________ NM of the FAF with a loaded approach, the GPS automatically switches to approach active and the CDI changes to ______ NM. (Dash 1, 1-112)
2, ± 0.3
After a start is automatically or manually aborted and fuel has been introduced, the engine must be manually motored for _________ to clear any residual fuel from the engine. (Dash 1, 1-19)
20 sec
The OBOGS TEMP annunciator illuminates when the ducting exceeds ___________. (Dash 1, 1-119)
200°F
Recommended minimum altitudes for ejection are _________ft AGL for controlled ejection and __________ft AGL for uncontrolled ejection. (Dash 1, 3-25)
2000, 6000
Recommended entry speed for a Lazy Eight is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
200-220
Recommended entry speed for a Clover Leaf is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
200-220
Recommended entry speed for a Barrel Roll is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
200-220
Recommended entry speed for a Chandelle is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
200-250
Main gear tire pressure is ___________. (Dash 1, 1-121)
225 ± 5 psi
Spin rotation rates will stabilize to approximately ____________ seconds per turn with altitude loss of ____________ feet per turn. (-1 pg 6-9)
2-3, 400-500
Recommended entry speed for a Loop is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
230-250
Recommended entry speed for an Immelmann is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
230-250
Recommended entry speed for a Cuban Eight is ________ KIAS. (-1 pg 6-3)
230-250
The emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits an audible tone on _________. (Dash 1, 1-76)
243.0 MHz; 121.5 MHz
The electrical system uses a __________ as the secondary power source. (Dash 1, 1-26)
24VDC, 5 amp-hr auxiliary battery
External ground power must provide _____________. (Dash 1, 1-121)
28-28.5 VDC, 1000-1500 Amps
The electrical system uses a __________ as the primary power source. (Dash 1, 1-24)
28VDC, 300 amp starter/generator
At 100% indicated torque, the engine is producing approximately ________ of torque at the prop shaft. (Dash 1, 1-6)
2900 ft-lbs
Normal cockpit indications when the emergency extension system is used are ___________. (Dash 1, 1-31)
3 green, 2 red (doors), 1 red (handle)
The OBOGS BIT (Built in Test) lasts __________. (Dash 1, 1-119)
3 min
The cockpit pressurization schedule limit is _________psi. (Dash 1, 5-12)
3.6 ± .1
An 8000 ft cockpit altitude is maintained until a differential pressure of _________ is reached at 18069 ft. (Dash 1, 1-61)
3.6 ± 0.1 psi
The amber FUEL BAL annunciator illuminates any time a indicated fuel imbalance exceeds ______ between the wing tanks for _______, or a fuel probe fails. (Dash 1, 1-24)
30 lbs, 2 min
During emergencies, the auxiliary battery will power the standby instruments, backup UHF control and the FIRE 1 detection system for approximately __________. (Dash 1, 1-26)
30 min
What is the cooling period for the forth starter duty cycle? (Dash 1, 5-8)
30 minutes
What is the cooling period for the first starter duty cycle? (Dash 1, 5-8)
30 seconds
As aircraft gets to within ________ NM of an airport with a loaded approach, the GPS automatically switches to approach arm and the CDI changes to ______ NM over a 30 second transition period. (Dash 1, 1-111)
30, ± 1
If bleed air temperature in the environmental system duct exceeds _______ at any time, the DUCT TEMP annunciator will illuminate. (Dash 1, 1-61)
300°F
The reduction gearbox reduces the power turbine output shaft speed from ________ to ________ RPM. (Dash 1, 1-12)
30000, 2000
Should the middle fuel probe fail, the affected tank will show a normal fuel level until the fuel level drops below the outer fuel probe. The fuel will then drop to the best indication for the next inboard (inner) fuel probe ( __________ ) and remain there until enough fuel is used to drop below the failed fuel probe. (Dash 1, 1-23)
308 ± 50 lbs
What is the Maximum operating airspeed (Vmo) at and below 18, 769 feet MSL? (Dash 1, 5-8)
316 KIAS
The maximum allowable airspeed is: (Dash 1, 5-3)
316 KIAS/ .67 MACH
________ units indicates max range on the AOA gage. (Dash 1, 1-45)
4.9 (white triangle)
- The “White triangle (max range)” on the angle of attack indicator indicates: (Dash 1, 5-3)
4.9 units
The canopy shall not be opened on the ground when the surface winds exceed ___________.( Dash 1, 5-12)
40 knots
Maximum cruise power is the PCL position which yields an ITT ____°C below the observed maximum ITT at critical altitude, not to exceed 780°C. (Dash 1, 5-8)
40°C
The recommended enroute descent procedure is power and configuration as required and descent rate of _____. (Dash 1, 2-16)
4000 fpm
Should the outer fuel probe fail, the affected tank will show a fuel level drop to the best indication for the next inboard (middle) fuel probe ( __________ ) and remain there until enough fuel is used to drop below the failed fuel probe. (Dash 1, 1-23)
445 ± 50 lbs
Once the emergency firewall shutoff handle is pulled the engine will continue to run for approximately _______. (Dash 1, 1-24)
5 - 10 sec
What is the cooling period for the third starter duty cycle? (Dash 1, 5-8)
5 minutes
Expect to lose approximately _____ feet for every turn of a spin with an additional ___________ feet for a normal dive. (-1 pg 6-10)
500, 1500-2000
The wing tanks and central collector tank each hold ________ lbs of fuel respectively. (Dash 1, 1-21)
530, 40
The standby attitude indicator provides accurate pitch and roll indications within _____ degrees for a period of _____ min after all electrical power is lost. (Dash 1, 1-42)
6, 9
To prevent ground resonance within the propeller, stabilized operation of the propeller in the __________ range is prohibited on the ground. (Dash 1, 2-13)
62% to 80% Np
Sustained propeller operation on the ground between _________Np is prohibited to prevent damage from ground resonance. (Dash 1, 5-8)
62-80%
What is the maximum takeoff weight? (Dash 1, 5-10)
6500 lbs
What is the maximum landing weight? (Dash 1, 5-10)
6500 lbs
The PMU limits the flight idle N1 to ________ and the ground idle N1 to _________. (Dash 1, 1-18.1)
67,60
For optimum engine life, the PCL should be retarded with the defog on to maintain ITT at or below ______. (Dash 1, 1-62)
740°C
A pressure altitude switch prevents bleed air inflow anytime the air conditioner clutch is engaged below ________. (Dash 1, 1-61)
7500 ft MSL
________ units indicates max endurance on the AOA gage. (Dash 1, 1-45)
8.8 (white diamond)
- The “White Diamond (max endurance)” on the angle of attack indicator indicates: (Dash 1, 5-3)
8.8 units
Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will not make any further trim inputs until the aircraft accelerates to at least ______. (Dash 1, 1-39)
80 KIAS, no weight on wheels
Hydroplaning can occur above ___ knots for the nose tire and above ___ knots of the main tires. (Dash 1, 7-5)
85, 115
The canopy is held in the open position by ________. (Dash 1, 1-48)
a canopy lock
The PMU is powered by ___________. (Dash 1, 1-19)
A dedicated permanent magnet alternator (PMA)
Inverted flight is made possible by __________. (Dash 1, 1-21)
A flip-flop valve located in the collector tank
An incipient spin can be identified by an oscillatory spin like motion, ________________ , ______________, and airspeed that is accelerating or decelerating toward the steady-state value. (-1 pg 6-8)
a fully-deflected turn needle, a stalled angle of attack
The PT6A-68 engine contains ____________. (Dash 1, 1-4)
A gas generator section; A power turbine section
During a wings level power-on stall, _________ rolling tendency is induced at stall by engine torque before reaching full aft stick. (-1 pg 6-4)
A left
If the maximum allowable airspeed limit is exceeded what will occur? (Dash 1, 5-3)
A red arc will appear between the indicated airspeed and the maximum allowable airspeed pointer.
…
A table representation of the traffic
___________ is used to provide cockpit cooling. (Dash 1, 1-59)
A vapor cycle system
T-6 primary controls include _______________. (Dash 1, 1-34)
A, B and C
When talking about the T-6A propeller, which of the following are true? (Dash 1, 1-15)
Aluminum, 97 inch; Four bladed; Constant speed, Variable pitch
Altitude loss during dive recovery is determined by the following independent factors. (-1 pg 6-11)
Angle of dive, and acceleration maintained during pullout; Altitude at start of pullout, airspeed at start of pullout
If departure from controlled flight progresses into a steady state spin, typical indications will be: (Dash 1, 3-13)
AOA 18+; Airspeed 110-125 KIAS
PROBES ANTI-ICE controls icing for _________. (Dash 1, 1-44)
AOA vein; Pitot tubes
Indications of an active GPS Approach are ____________. (Dash 1, 1-111)
APP ACT appears in lower right corner of EHSI; GPS course needle centers
The T-6A fuel system provides ______ of usable fuel through the single point refueling system. (Dash 1, 1-21)
approximately 1100 lbs
Should the inner fuel probe fail, the affected tank will show a normal fuel level until the fuel level drops below the middle fuel probe. Fuel level will then drop to the best indication for the collector tank, which is divided evenly between sides ( __________ ). (Dash 1, 1-23)
approximately 20 lbs per side
The PCL (Power Control Lever) _________. (Dash 1, 1-12/15)
Are interconnected with a push-pull rod between the cockpits; Is connected to the FMU in the front cockpit; Has a friction control adjustment in the front cockpit only; Contains speed brake, rudder trim, UHF/VHF radio, and intercommunication system switches
Taxi over raised arresting cables (such as BAK 9, BAK 12, and /or BAK 13) at? (Dash 1, 5-10)
As slow a speed as possible.
During the start sequence, the PCL may be advanced to IDLE any time N1 is _________. (Dash 1, 1-19)
At or above 60%
An aggravated spin is caused by ____________. (-1 pg 6-9)
B and C
The weight and balance of the aircraft shall be checked to determine that gross weight and CG limitations are not exceeded for which of the following? (Dash 1, 5-9)
Baggage compartment is used.; Overwing refueling.
If the generator has failed and the bus tie is open, only items on the ______ buss/es will be powered. (Dash 1, 1-26)
Battery
For high altitude ejections, seat-man separation and parachute deployment are delayed until ________. (Dash 1, 1-52)
below 15000 ft MSL
Illumination of the DUCT TEMP annunciator indicates that: (Dash 1, 3-23)
Bleed air temp in the environmental systems duct has exceeded 300 deg F; Bleed air temp in the defog duct has exceeded 300 deg F
The interseat sequencing selector located in the aft cockpit must be in ______ to allow both seats to eject once one ejection handle is pulled. (Dash 1, 1-52)
BOTH
The NACWS traffic advisory is which type of symbol? (Dash 1, 1-91)
Both B and C
Activation of either external CFS handle activates which canopy fracturing system? (Dash 1, 1-50)
Both transparencies
The _________ allows isolation of the battery and generator buses. (Dash 1, 1-26)
Bus Tie switch
Slight control stick inputs _________ result in airspeed or altitude deviations, from hands off trim condition. (-1 pg 6-3)
Can
With the engine out, flaps _________ be deployed prior to extending the landing gear in a power-off glide because the engine driven hydraulic pump is not operating. (-1 pg 6-4)
Cannot
The hydraulic system is used to operate all of the following, except. (Dash 1, 1-27)
Canopy
