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My UPT > T-6 By the Numbers > Flashcards

T-6 By the Numbers Flashcards

1
Q

Empty weight

A

4900 lbs

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2
Q

Max takeoff weight

A

6500 lbs

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3
Q

Max Shaft Horsepower

A

1100

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4
Q

oil capacity

A

18.5 quarts

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5
Q

OIL PX annunciator with PCL above idle (PSI)

A

40 psi

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6
Q

OIL PX annunciator with PCL at idle (PSI)

A

15 psi

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7
Q

turbine output shaft speed

A

30,000 RPM

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8
Q

prop operating speed

A

2000 RPM

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9
Q

ground mode at idle (N1)

A

60% N1

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10
Q

flight mode at idle (N1)

A

67% N1

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11
Q

PMU managed minimum above 10K (N1)

A

80% N1

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12
Q

ignition and boost pump deactivated during auto start (N1)

A

50% N1

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13
Q

fuel pressure switch limit, turns on BP

A

10 psi

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14
Q

manual motor after aborted start/inverted flight time limit

A

20 seconds

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15
Q

normal wing tank capacity

A

530 lbs

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16
Q

collector tank capacity

A

40 lbs

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17
Q

SPR refueled full fuel load

A

1100 lbs

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18
Q

over wing refueled full fuel load

A

1200 lbs

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19
Q

(for 2 minutes) imbalance where FUEL BAL annunciator illuminated

A

30 lbs

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20
Q

auto fuel balance tolerance

A

20 lbs

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21
Q

middle fuel probe reading

A

445 (+ 50) lbs

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22
Q

inner fuel probe reading

A

308 (+ 50) lbs

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23
Q

collector tank pressurized at ___ PSI by transfer jet pumps

A

1 to 1.5 psi

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24
Q

L or R FUEL LO annunciator illuminated

A

110 lbs

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25
Q

starter/generator output

A

28 VDC (300 amp)

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26
Q

main battery output

A

24 VDC (42A HR)

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27
Q

aux battery output

A

24 VDC (5 A HR)

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28
Q

hydraulic pressure

A

3000 psi

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29
Q

hydraulic system total capacity

A

1.25 gal

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30
Q

hydraulic reservoir capacity

A

0.6 gal

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31
Q

min hydraulic pressure to operate NW steering, gear, flaps, speed brake

A

1800 psi

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32
Q

fuel pressure supplied by engine driven low pressure fuel pump

A

40 psi

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33
Q

fuel pressure supplied by engine driven high pressure fuel pump

A

700 psi

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34
Q

max hydraulic volume allowed past the hydraulic fuse

A

45 cubic inches

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35
Q

hydraulic pressure relief valve opens

A

3250 to 3500 psi

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36
Q

EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminates

A

2400 (+ 150) psi

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37
Q

HYDR FL LO annunciator illuminates

A

1 qt

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38
Q

normal gear extension/retraction time

A

6 seconds

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39
Q

Below ___ %N1 gear warning horn sounds if A/S is below 120

A

87% N1

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40
Q

NWS range

A

24°

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41
Q

flap deflection in TO

A

23°

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42
Q

flap deflection in LDG

A

50°

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43
Q

speed brake deflection when deployed

A

70°

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44
Q

TAD active with no weight on wheels

A

80 knots

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45
Q

Below this Mach is blanked on A/S ind

A

0.40 Mach

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46
Q

stall AOA

A

18 units

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47
Q

on speed AOA

A

10-11 units

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48
Q

max endurance AOA

A

8.8 units

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49
Q

max range AOA

A

4.9 units

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50
Q

Optimum approach speed decrease rate

A

1 knot/100 lbs

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51
Q

Max velocity in level flight at sea level (thrust limited)

A

255 KIAS

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52
Q

Optimum max range AOA altitude

A

25,000’ MSL

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53
Q

Pre-stall stick shaker

A

5 - 10 kts (15.5 units)

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54
Q

Ejection seat limits

A

0’/0 KIAS to 35,000’/370 KIAS

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55
Q

Automatic seat man separation altitude

A

14,000’ to 16,000’ MSL

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56
Q

ISS BOTH rear seat ejection delay

A

0.37 seconds

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57
Q

altitude where bleed air inflow is prevented with A/C clutch engaged

A

<7500’ MSL

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58
Q

automatically maintained pressure until 18,069’ MSL (3.6 + 0.1 psid)

A

8000’ cockpit P/A

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59
Q

CKPT ALT annunciator illuminated

A

19,000’ cockpit P/A

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60
Q

CKPT PX annunciator illuminated

A

3.9 + 0.1 psid

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61
Q

DUCT TEMP annunciator illuminated

A

300° F

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62
Q

RMU cursor automatically reverts to UHF field

A

20 seconds

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63
Q

UHF/VHF memory

A

20 frequencies

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64
Q

NAV memory

A

10 frequencies

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65
Q

ELT transmission limit (battery limited)

A

50 hours

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66
Q

EADI declutters

A

> +30°/-20° pitch or 65° roll

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67
Q

Full EADI presentation reappears after unusual attitude

A

< +25°/-15° pitch and 60° roll

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68
Q

GPS self test indications

A

34.5 NM, 315 DTK, 130° bearing

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69
Q

GPS user defined waypoints

A

250

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70
Q

GPS stored flightplans

A

25

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71
Q

max waypoints per flight plan

A

30

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72
Q

flash prior to turn to next waypoint

A

20 seconds

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73
Q

CDI full scale deflection, enroute mode

A

ERROR!

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74
Q

CDI full scale deflection, approach arm

A

ERROR!

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75
Q

CDI full scale deflection, approach active

A

ERROR!

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76
Q

Approach arm

A

30 NM

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77
Q

Approach active

A

2 NM

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78
Q

FDR annunciator illuminates

A

80% full

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79
Q

AUX BAT test light will not illuminate

A

<50% capacity

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80
Q

OBOGS TEMP annunciator illuminates

A

200° F

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81
Q

NORMAL OBOGS O2 concentration, sea level to 15,000’ MSL

A

25% to 70%

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82
Q

NORMAL OBOGS O2 concentration, 15,000’ to 31,000’ MSL

A

45% to 95%

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83
Q

O2 concentration, MAX selected

A

94.5% (95%)

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84
Q

OBOGS warm-up time (after engine start)

A

3 minutes

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85
Q

OBOGS FAIL annunciator extinguishes during BIT test

A
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86
Q

baggage compartment weight limit

A

80 lbs

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87
Q

max weight of bags and pubs on glareshield

A

8.5 lbs

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88
Q

icing inhibitor mix

A

.5 pint/ 50 gal fuel

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89
Q

external power requirements

A

28 to 28.5 VDC/1000 to 1500 Amps

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90
Q

main gear tire pressure

A

225 +- 5 psi

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91
Q

nose wheel tire pressure

A

120 +- 5 psi

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92
Q

Number of static wicks

A

17 - 4 on each wing, 6 on elevator, 3 on rudder

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93
Q

sufficient battery voltage for start

A

23.5 VDC

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94
Q

Minimum main gear strut extension

A

2.0 inches

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95
Q

Minimum nose gear strut extension

A

2.5 inches

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96
Q

delay between ejections w/ISS in both

A

0.37 second

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97
Q

LOW AOA (amber donut)

A

10.5 units

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98
Q

HIGH AOA (green chevron)

A

18 units

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99
Q

PMU IOAT limit for start

A

121 degrees C

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100
Q

use HIGH IOAT START procedure

A

80 degrees C

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101
Q

time for STARTER SWITCH MANUAL to cool IOAT or clear residual fuel

A

20 seconds

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102
Q

stay clear area distance from aircraft with engine running

A

3 feet

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103
Q

minimum idle on ground (N1)

A

60% N1

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104
Q

maximum icing limits

A

5000 feet of light rime (probes anti ice on whenever in visible moisture)

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105
Q

prohibited range of stabilized prop speed on the ground

A

62-80% Np

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106
Q

idle with PMU off during overspeed gov check (N1)

A

67% N1

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107
Q

NP when at approximately 30% torque during overspeed gov check

A

100%

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108
Q

NP limit with PMU off during overspeed gov check

A

100 + -2%

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109
Q

max amps limit for T/O

A

ERROR!

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110
Q

radius for inside gear w/NWS (0.0 feet w/differential braking)

A

15.5 feet

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111
Q

radius for nose wheel w/NWS (8.3 feet w/differential braking)

A

18.0 feet

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112
Q

radius for outside gear w/NWS (8.6 feet w/differential braking)

A

19.6 feet

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113
Q

radius for wingtip w/NWS (21.0 feet w/differential braking)

A

33.2 feet

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114
Q

Torque setting to check engine instruments for T/O check

A

25-30% torque

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115
Q

degrees nose up for rotation

A

7-10

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116
Q

gusty wind T/O correction

A

½ gust factor (up to 10 knots)

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117
Q

climbout speed (160-180 KIAS for better forward visibility in climb)

A

140 KIAS

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118
Q

climbout pitch attitude

A

10-15 degrees NH

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119
Q

pitch and speed for obstacle clearance climb

A

15 degrees nose high and 140 KIAS

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120
Q

Passing through ___ feet, check OBOGS and defog

A

10,000 feet

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121
Q

increase in ITT w/defog on at any PCL setting

A

40 degrees C

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122
Q

ITT limit as controlled by PMU

A

820 degrees C

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123
Q

required pressure differential above 18,000 feet MSL

A

3.6 + 0.2 psi

124
Q

max fuel imbalance for pre-stall, spinning and aerobatic checks

A

50 lbs

125
Q

recommended holding speed

A

120 - 150 KIAS

126
Q

speed on instrument approach before configuring and during missed approach

A

150 KIAS

127
Q

speed on instrument final w/gear and flaps T/O

A

110 KIAS

128
Q

speed on outside downwind (clean)

A

200 KIAS

129
Q

speed on initial (USAF/USN)

A

200 KIAS

130
Q

min speed on downwind (USAF)

A

120 KIAS

131
Q

min speed in final turn (USAF/USN)

A

110 KIAS

132
Q

speed on final with full flaps (USAF/USN)

A

100 KIAS

133
Q

speed on final with T/O flaps (USAF/USN)

A

105 KIAS

134
Q

speed on final with no flaps (USAF/USN)

A

110 KIAS

135
Q

gusty wind threshold and touchdown speeds

A

½ gust factor (up to 10 knots)

136
Q

normal touchdown speed (depending on flap setting)

A

80-95 KIAS

137
Q

braking above ___ KIAS to be done with great caution

A

80 KIAS

138
Q

check oil within ___ after landing to be max hot

A

30 minutes

139
Q

max time to apply power to pitot/AOA heating elements on ground

A

10 seconds

140
Q

min volume of MIL 85470 ice inhibitor to be added to fuel (½ pint/50 gal)

A

0.1-0.15%

141
Q

max slope approved for fueling

A

3 degrees

142
Q

time limit for LH and RH single point refueling precheck valves to shut

A

10 seconds

143
Q

wind speed to consider hangaring A/C

A

80 knots

144
Q

max nose wheel deflection while towing

A

80 degrees

145
Q

max ITT for start

A

1000 degrees C

146
Q

time for ITT to start rising after fuel flow indication during start

A

10 seconds

147
Q

altitude/airspeed parameters for ejection seat

A

0/0

148
Q

minimum speed to maintain while maneuvering to intercept ELP

A

120 KIAS

149
Q

N1 with engine flameout (speeds below 8% not indicated)

A

0% within 5 seconds

150
Q

engine out glide speed

A

125 KIAS

151
Q

duration of emergency O2

A

10 minutes

152
Q

consider rapid descent above this altitude if using emer O2 to prevent depletion

A

20,000 MSL

153
Q

airstart not recommended below

A

2000 feet AGL

154
Q

airstarts are demonstrated below

A

20,000 feet MSL

155
Q

altitude lost during airstart procedure (at 125 KIAS glide)

A

1200 feet

156
Q

time to complete airstart sequence

A

40 seconds

157
Q

airstart envelope (above 15,000 feet MSL)

A

135-200 KIAS

158
Q

airstart envelope (at or below 15,000 feet MSL)

A

125-200 KIAS

159
Q

time for prop to unfeather after N1 reaches approximately 45%

A

15-20 seconds

160
Q

PCL to idle for PMU off airstart (look for ITT rise w/in 10 seconds or abort)

A

13% N1

161
Q

initial fuel flow during airstart

A

75- 80 PPH

162
Q

amp reading after airstart

A

Above 30 Amps

163
Q

time for starter to drain battery if generator is not reset

A

10 minutes

164
Q

time for prop to come out of feather after prop sys CB is pulled

A

15-20 seconds

165
Q

minimum altitude uncontrolled ejection

A

6000 feet AGL

166
Q

___ to ___ KIAS and AOA 18+ indicate a steady state spin

A

120 - 135

167
Q

time standby attitude indicator will provide accurate info after loss of power

A

9 minutes

168
Q

time aux battery provides stby instruments/lighting, fire 1 and standby UHF

A

30 minutes

169
Q

normal sustained oil pressure limits

A

90-120 psi

170
Q

time battery will last with bus tie open

A

30 minutes

171
Q

Electrical readings indicating generator is inoperative

A

25 volts and ammeter discharging

172
Q

reading if battery bus fails

A

0 volts 0 amps

173
Q

engine feed fuel pressure below ___ PSI causes boost pump to automatically engage

A

10 psi

174
Q

max engine time with high pressure fuel pump suction feeding

A

10 hours

175
Q

auto fuel balancing keeps fuel balance within

A

20 lbs

176
Q

More than ____ fuel imbalance for two minutes triggers FUEL BAL light (fault in auto system)

A

30 lbs

177
Q

level of fuel that triggers L or R FUEL LO annunciator

A

110 lbs (16 gallons)

178
Q

EHYD PX LO light illuminates below

A

2400 + 150 psi

179
Q

HYDR FL LO light illuminates below

A

1 qt

180
Q

pressure hydraulic system functions at a reduced capacity & speed

A

1800 psi - 2880 psi

181
Q

hydraulic pressure within green arc

A

2880-3120 psi

182
Q

minimum altitude for controllability check

A

6000 ft AGL

183
Q

minimum speed during Controllability check (or stick shaker or max deflection)

A

90 KIAS

184
Q

add ___ KIAS to minimum controllable speed on final with structural damage

A

20 KIAS

185
Q

touchdowns in landing configuration have been accomplished up to ___ KIAS

A

110 KIAS

186
Q

touchdowns above ___ KIAS cause increased directional sensitivity & longer landing

A

100 KIAS

187
Q

in environmental systems or defog duct triggers the DUCT TEMP light

A

300 degrees F

188
Q

descend below with environmental system/pressurization failure

A

25,000 feet MSL

189
Q

speed to attain with runaway trim

A

110-150 KIAS

190
Q

stick pressure at approach speed with elevator trim failure at high speed cruise

A

10 lbs

191
Q

stick pressure at approach speed with aileron trim failure at high speed cruise

A

5 lbs

192
Q

stick pressure at approach speed with rudder trim failure at high speed cruise

A

20 lbs

193
Q

max speed with canopy shattered/damaged/gone or CANOPY light on

A

150 KIAS

194
Q

CKPT PX light illuminates with this pressure differential

A

3.9+ 0.1 psi

195
Q

cabin alt triggers CKPT ALT annunciator

A

19,000 MSL

196
Q

decompression above___ feet may trigger OBOGS light due to mode compensation

A

20,000 feet MSL

197
Q

AGL altitude to use MOR handle to deploy parachute & separate from seat in mtns.

A

8,000 feet AGL

198
Q

speed range for controlled ejection

A

125-180 KIAS

199
Q

Ejection seat time to full chute

A

4.37 sec (FRONT)/4.00 sec (REAR)

200
Q

min ejection altitude with 90 degree dive and 250 KIAS

A

850 feet AGL

201
Q

min ejection altitude inverted (level flight) with 250 KIAS

A

180 feet AGL

202
Q

For each 1000 ft MSL of altitude add ___to minimum ejection numbers for additional terrain clearance

A

Add 1%

203
Q

ejection seat chart not accurate above ___

A

8000 feet MSL

204
Q

glide speed to high key

A

125 KIAS

205
Q

min speed until intercepting final on ELP

A

120 KIAS

206
Q

min speed on final during ELP

A

110 KIAS

207
Q

Above ___ knots ditch into the wind instead of parallel the swells

A

25

208
Q

add ___ feet to high, low, and base key with engine in idle due to no feathering

A

500 feet

209
Q

max descent rate for 125 KIAS glide, 4-6% torque, clean.

A

1350 fpm

210
Q

high key altitude

A

3000 feet AGL

211
Q

low key altitude

A

1500 feel AGL

212
Q

base key altitude

A

600-800 feet AGL

213
Q

max time inverted flight

A

15 seconds

214
Q

max time zero G flight

A

5 sec

215
Q

torque to set for ELP, PEL, or to simulate zero thrust

A

4-6%

216
Q

minimum fuel to burn down to for landing with gear malfunction

A

100 lbs

217
Q

If no rise in ITT ___ seconds after fuel flow indications, place PCL off and abort start

A

10

218
Q

approximate idle for PMU off ground start (N1)

A

67% N1

219
Q

PCL in idle before ___ N1 during manual start may cause engine damage/overtemp

A

60% N1

220
Q

FUEL PX light illuminates

A

<10 psi fuel px

221
Q

OIL PX light illuminates

A

<40 psi above idle or 15 psi at idle

222
Q

OBOGS TEMP light illuminates

A

200 degrees F

223
Q

MAINT FDR light illuminates

A

80% memory full

224
Q

Maximum allowable airspeed

A

316 KIAS/0.67 Mach

225
Q

Maximum torque for T/O

A

100%

226
Q

Maximum torque transient for 20 seconds

A

131%

227
Q

Maximum ITT for T/O

A

820° C

228
Q

Maximum ITT idle

A

750° C

229
Q

Max ITT for start (5 seconds)

A

1000° C

230
Q

Max transient ITT (20 seconds)

A

870° C

231
Q

Max N1

A

104%

232
Q

Max Np, PMU off

A

100 + 2 %

233
Q

Emergency Max Np

A

110%

234
Q

Normal oil pressure range

A

90 - 120 psi

235
Q

Max oil pressure during start

A

200 psi

236
Q

Transient oil pressure range, aerobatics and spins only

A

40 - 130 psi

237
Q

Minimum oil pressure, at idle, aerobatics and spins only (5 seconds max)

A

15 psi

238
Q

Normal oil temperature range

A

10° to 105° C

239
Q

Min oil temperature for start

A

-40° C

240
Q

Acceptable oil temperature, transient power, 10 minutes max

A

106° - 110° C

241
Q

Normal hydraulic pressure

A

1800 - 3000 psi

242
Q

starter duty cycle

A

20 seconds

243
Q

cooling period before second start attempt

A

30 seconds

244
Q

cooling period before third start attempt

A

2 minutes

245
Q

cooling period before fourth start attempt

A

5 minutes

246
Q

cooling period before fifth start attempt

A

30 minutes

247
Q

gear/flap extension airspeed limit

A

150 KIAS

248
Q

Max turbulence penetration A/S

A

195 KIAS

249
Q

Symmetric Vo (operating maneuvering speed)

A

227 KIAS

250
Q

Asymmetric Vo 5 seconds

A

177 KIAS

251
Q

Symmetric, clean G limits

A

-3.5 to 7.0 G

252
Q

Symmetric, gear/flaps extended G limits

A

0 to 2.5 G

253
Q

Asymmetric, clean G limits

A

-1.0 to 4.7 G

254
Q

Asymmetric, gear/flaps extended G limits

A

0 to 2.0 G

255
Q

Spins prohibited below

A

10,000’ MSL

256
Q

Spins prohibited above

A

22,000’ MSL

257
Q

Check CG when:

A

1) Rear pilot exceeds 260 lbs
2) Combined crew weight exceeds 500 lbs
3) Fuel exceeds 1100 lbs
4) Baggage compartment is used

258
Q

Max ramp weight

A

6550

259
Q

Max takeoff/landing weight

A

6500

260
Q

Max zero fuel weight

A

5500

261
Q

Max descent rate at touchdown (main tires serviced to normal landing conditions pressure 185 +- 5)

A

600 fpm

262
Q

Max descent rate at touchdown (main tires serviced to max landing conditions pressure 225 +- 5)

A

780 fpm

263
Q

Max crosswind

A

25 knots

264
Q

Max tailwind for takeoff

A

10 knots

265
Q

Aerobatics prohibited with fuel lower than

A

150 lbs/side

266
Q

Max fuel imbalance

A

50 lbs

267
Q

Ground ops temperature limits

A

-23° C (-9.4° F) to +43° C (109.4° F)

268
Q

Apply equipment cooling chart

A

35° C (95° F)

269
Q

Pressurization Safety valve opens

A

4.0 +- .1 psi

270
Q

Canopy open wind limit

A

40 knots

271
Q

Min / Max Pilot weight (Nude) for ejection seat

A

103 - 245 lbs

272
Q

Min / Max Pilot weight (with equipment) for ejection seat

A

121- 271 lbs

273
Q

Above ___ KIAS utilize half lateral stick inputs or less performing sustained elevated G rolls

A

180

274
Q

sink rate at best glide, clean

A

1100 to 1300 fpm

275
Q

best glide speed, gear down, flaps/SB up

A

105 KIAS

276
Q

sink rate at best glide w/gear down

A

1500 fpm

277
Q

Above ___ torque full right rudder and full right aileron may not prevent a left roll off at stall

A

60%

278
Q

altitude loss during six turn, steady-state spin

A

4500’

279
Q

nose high pitch for best spin entry

A

15° to 20°

280
Q

time, altitude loss, and airspeed per turn, stabilized spin

A

2 - 3 seconds, 400’ to 500’, 120 KIAS, 18 AOA

281
Q

aggravated spin attitude and turn rate

A

70° nose down, 280°/second turn

282
Q

altitude loss for spins

A

500’/turn, 1500’ to 2000’ dive recovery

283
Q

Recommended turbulence/t-storm penetration airspeed

A

180 KIAS

284
Q

Approach/landing speed with ice accumulation on aircraft

A

VAPP + 10(min)

285
Q

Windshear recovery

A

15° pitch/110 KIAS min/10.5 AOA max/PCL MAX

286
Q

Operations in visible moisture should be avoided below what temp.

A

5° C/41° F (or below)

287
Q

hydroplaning can occur in less than ___ of slush or water

A

0.1 inch

288
Q

CONVERSION == MPH/1.15 = Knots

A

knots x 1.15 = MPH

289
Q

nose tire hydroplane speed

A

85 knots

290
Q

main tire hydroplane speed

A

115 knots

291
Q

below ___ degrees power-up of the digital instruments may shorten instrument service life

A

-21° C (-6° F)

292
Q

below ___ degrees remove battery

A

-29° C (-20° F)

293
Q

CONVERSION °F = (°C x 1.8) + 32

A

°C = (°F - 32) x 1.8

294
Q

Standard day, sea level temp

A

15°C (59°F)

295
Q

Standard day, sea level pressure

A

29.921

296
Q

Dry RCR

A

23

297
Q

wet RCR

A

12

298
Q

ice/ standing water RCR

A

5

299
Q

Maximum brake energy absorption capability

A

3.96 Million Foot-lbs

300
Q

Max abort speed reaction time

A

6 seconds (3 sec decision/3 sec application)

301
Q

Airspeed increase during 6 second reaction at max abort speed

A

20 knots

302
Q

Max crosswind

A

25 knots

303
Q

Max crosswind, wet

A

10 knots

304
Q

Max crosswind, ice

A

5 knots

305
Q

Charted performance climb speed

A

140 KIAS

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