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Systems based Microbiology Flashcards

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1
Q

What 2 protozoa are most likely to cause watery diarrhea?

A

Giardia and Cryptosporidium

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2
Q

What is the likely source of multiple brain abscesses?

A

Bacteremia

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3
Q

What causes of pneumonia are associated with intravenous drug use?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus

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4
Q

Which species of Chlamydia causes pneumonia in children younger than 3 years of age, and which causes it in school-aged children?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis in children younger than 3 years of age; Chlamydia pneumoniae in school-aged children

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5
Q

Which white blood cell type predominates in cerebrospinal fluid in bacterial, fungal, and viral meningitis?

A

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) in bacterial meningitis and lymphocytes in fungal and viral meningitis

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6
Q

Infection by which 2 organisms is most commonly linked to brain abscesses?

A

Viridans streptococci and Staphylococcus aureus

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7
Q

What microorganism is associated with food poisoning from reheated rice?

A

Bacillus cereus; “Food poisoning from reheated rice? Be serious! (B cereus)”

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8
Q

What is the mode of transmission of a TORCH infection?

A

Transmission of a microbe from mother to fetus; usually transplacental but can also occur during vaginal delivery (eg, HSV-2)

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9
Q

What constellation of findings may be seen in a congenital rubella infection?

A

Classic triad: eye abnormalities (eg, cataracts), ear issues (eg, deafness), congenital heart disease (eg, PDA) ± a “blueberry muffin” rash (“I [eye] ♥ ruby [rubella] earrings”)

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10
Q

What organism uniquely causes pneumonia in patients with HIV?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

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11
Q

What childhood rash presents with a high fever for several days followed by diffuse rose-colored macules?

A

Roseola (exanthem subitum) caused by human herpesvirus 6 infection; can present with febrile seizures

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12
Q

What causes of pneumonia are associated with alcohol overuse?

A

Klebsiella and anaerobes secondary to aspiration (eg, Fusobacterium, Peptostreptococcus, Prevotella, Bacteroides)

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13
Q

What feature of enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli causes bloody diarrhea and hemolytic-uremic syndrome?

A

Shiga-like toxin, produced by enterohemorrhagic E coli O157:H7

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14
Q

How does congenital HIV infection present?

A

Recurrent infections or chronic diarrhea

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15
Q

What organisms cause condyloma acuminata and condyloma lata, respectively?

A

Human papillomaviruses 6 and 11 cause condyloma acuminata, andTreponema pallidum causes condyloma lata

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16
Q

What childhood rash presents with pink macules and papules that start on the head and spread to the body and postauricular lymph nodes?

A

Rubella (caused by the rubella virus); the rash eventually desquamates

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17
Q

Which vaginal infections present with a vaginal pH > 4.5?

A

Bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginitis

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18
Q

In sexually active individuals, which pathogen commonly causes septic arthritis and rarely causes osteomyelitis?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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19
Q

What is the character of the sputum produced by patients with aspiration pneumonia?

A

Purulent and malodorous

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20
Q

How does cytomegalovirus infection present in a pregnant patient?

A

It is usually asymptomatic; in rare cases, mononucleosis-like symptoms may be present

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21
Q

What pathogen is higher risk in unvaccinated individuals and presents with low-grade fever and coryza progressing to cough with posttussive emesis?

A

Bordetella pertussis

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22
Q

What part of the body does Staphylococcus aureus normally colonize?

A

The nose

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23
Q

What aspects of Enterococcus infections make them particularly difficult to treat?

A

They are often drug resistant and nosocomial

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24
Q

What organisms most commonly cause meningitis in newborns and infants up to 6 months of age?

A

Group B Streptococcus, Escherichia coli, and Listeria

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25
Q

What organism is the most common cause of osteomyelitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (assume this cause if information is limited)

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26
Q

What vaginal infection presents with a “strawberry cervix” and frothy, foul-smelling, green-yellow discharge?

A

Trichomonas vaginitis

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27
Q

A patient in the intensive care unit who has been intubated for 1 week shows ↑ sputum production on suctioning. A chest x-ray shows new infiltrates. Likely diagnosis?

A

Ventilator-associated pneumonia from Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella, Acinetobacter, or Staphylococcus aureus (late onset)

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28
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in developed countries?

A

Norovirus

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29
Q

How does congenital syphilis infection present if the baby survives?

A

Facial abnormalities (notched teeth, saddle nose, short maxilla), cranial nerve VIII deafness, saber shins

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30
Q

What are the nonspecific signs common to many ToRCHHeS infections?

A

Most include hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenia, jaundice, and growth retardation

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31
Q

Which 2 organisms are common causes of pneumonia in neonates (< 4 weeks old)?

A

Group B streptococci and Escherichia coli

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32
Q

Why are urinary tract infections 10 times more common in females than in males?

A

Females have shorter urethras, which can be colonized by fecal flora

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33
Q

What is the pathophysiology of lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

Infection of the lymphatics caused by Chlamydia trachomatis (L1-L3)

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34
Q

Name the 6 organisms (microbes that pass from mother to fetus) that cause the TORCH infections.

A

ToRCHHeS: Toxoplasma gondii, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, HIV, Herpes simplex virus type 2, Syphilis

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35
Q

A patient with meningitis has an ↑ opening pressure on lumbar puncture. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows ↑ protein, ↓ glucose, and a lymphocytic pleocytosis. Diagnosis?

A

Fungal or tuberculosis-induced meningitis

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36
Q

What 2 toxins are produced by enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli

A

LT (heat-labile) and ST (heat-stable) toxins

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37
Q

What are 2 causes of painful genital ulcers?

A

Chancroid caused by Haemophilus ducreyi (it’s so painful, you do cry) and genital herpes caused by HSV-2

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38
Q

In a child with aToxoplasma gondii infection, what finding in addition to the classic triad of manifestations might be observed?

A

A “blueberry muffin” rash may accompany the triad of hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, and intracranial calcifications

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39
Q

What are some of the ways that the spastic paralysis of Clostridium tetani infection may present?

A

Lockjaw (trismus), opisthotonus

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40
Q

What organisms are associated with postviral causes of pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus, and Haemophilus influenzae

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41
Q

What risk factors predispose a patient to Clostridium difficile infection?

A

Recent antibiotic use or hospitalization

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42
Q

What microorganism is associated with a food-borne illness from meats, mayonnaise, and custards?

A

Stapylococcus aureus, which produces preformed toxins

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43
Q

What are the initial steps in treatment of a patient with suspected meningitis?

A

Give ceftriaxone and vancomycin empirically; if Listeria is suspected, add ampicillin

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44
Q

What fungal organisms cause meningitis and are associated with HIV?

A

Cryptococcus species

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45
Q

What clinical features are seen in the mother of an infant withToxoplasma gondii infection?

A

The mother is usually asymptomatic and rarely has lymphadenopathy

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46
Q

What sexually transmitted infection has a high risk for opportunistic infections, Kaposi sarcoma, and lymphoma?

A

HIV

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47
Q

In which part of the body are viridans streptococci considered normal flora?

A

The oropharynx

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48
Q

What sexually transmitted infection may present with conjunctivitis, urethritis, cervicitis, epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and reactive arthritis?

A

Chlamydia

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49
Q

How does genital herpes present?

A

Painful penile, vulvar, or cervical ulcers and vesicles

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50
Q

What pathogen is higher risk in unvaccinated individuals and presents with pharyngitis and grayish psuedomembranes that may cause airway obstruction?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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51
Q

What microscopic findings are seen with Candida vulvovaginitis?

A

Pseudohyphae

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52
Q

What is the cutaneous manifestation of erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)?

A

The classic “slapped cheek” rash that appears on the face (this is parvovirus B19 infection)

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53
Q

How has the incidence of meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae changed over time?

A

Decreased as a result of conjugate H influenzae vaccinations

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54
Q

Vertebral osteomyelitis can be uniquely caused by which organisms?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis in Pott disease (Staphylococcus aureus is another cause)

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55
Q

What pathogens are associated with infection related to urinary catheterization?

A

Proteus spp, Escherichia coli, Klebsiella (PEcK)

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56
Q

What causes of brain abscesses are associated with preceding dental infection or extraction?

A

Oral anaerobes

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57
Q

What organism that causes urinary tract infection is associated with the formation of struvite stones?

A

Proteus mirabilis

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58
Q

What organism is the second most common cause of urinary tract infections in sexually active females?

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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59
Q

What sexually transmitted infection presents with a painless, beefy red ulcerative genital lesion that bleeds on contact?

A

Donovanosis (or granuloma inguinale) caused by Klebsiella (Calymmatobacterium) granulomatis

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60
Q

What organism is likely responsible for a brain abscess in a patient with AIDS and a CD4+ count <100 cells/mm3?

A

Toxoplasma (a reactivation)

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61
Q

What organism that causes urinary tract infections is associated with a large mucoid capsule and viscous colonies?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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62
Q

What pathogens are associated with atypical pneumonia?

A

Chlamydophila, Mycoplasma, Legionella, and viruses (respiratory syncytial virus, cytomegalovirus, influenza, adenovirus)

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63
Q

What bacteria are typically found in dental plaque?

A

Streptococcus mutans

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64
Q

A baby is born with hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, and intracranial calcifications. What is the causative organism?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

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65
Q

What are the most likely causes of pneumonia in the elderly (>65 years of age) population?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, influenza virus, anaerobes, Haemophilus influenzae, and gram-negative rods

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66
Q

Which 2 bacteria are considered part of the normal flora in the colon?

A

Bacteroides fragilis and, to a lesser extent, Escherichia coli

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67
Q

What is the mechanism of cytomegalovirus transmission?

A

Sexual contact or organ transplantation

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68
Q

What is the most common source of Vibrio cholerae diarrhea?

A

Infected seafood

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69
Q

Name the 4 common bacterial organisms that can cause watery diarrhea.

A

Clostridium difficile, Clostridium perfringens, enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli, and Vibrio cholerae

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70
Q

Name 5 viral causes of meningitis.

A

Enteroviruses (particularly coxsackievirus), herpes simplex virus-2 (HSV-2), HIV, West Nile virus (which can result in encephalitis), varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

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71
Q

What pathogen resides in the nasopharynx and causes meningitis in unvaccinated children?

A

Haemophilus influenzae type b

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72
Q

When performing lumbar puncture, what are the opening pressure levels expected in bacterial, fungal, and viral meningitis, respectively?

A

Increased in both bacterial and fungal meningitis, while normal or increased in viral meningitis

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73
Q

What microorganism is associated with a food-borne illness from deli meats or soft cheeses?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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74
Q

Name the most common causes of pneumonia in adults 40 to 65 years of age.

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Mycoplasma, anaerobes, viruses

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75
Q

A patient with meningitis has ↑ opening pressure on lumbar puncture. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows ↑ protein, ↓ glucose, and a neutrophilic pleocytosis. Diagnosis?

A

Bacterial meningitis

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76
Q

What sexually transmitted infection may result in jaundice?

A

Hepatitis caused by hepatitis B virus

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77
Q

What species of bacteria that causes urinary tract infections grows with strong, pink lactose fermentation on MacConkey agar?

A

Escherichia coli

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78
Q

Where in the central nervous system does an abscess due to sinusitis or a dental infection typically present?

A

Frontal lobe

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79
Q

What 2 microorganisms are associated with a quick onset and a quick resolution of food poisoning?

A

Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus cause food poisoning that is quick to start and brief in duration

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80
Q

What are some signs and symptoms commonly seen in Legionella infection?

A

Signs of pneumonia, neurologic abnormalities, and gastrointestinal symptoms (eg, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting)

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81
Q

What organism is associated with pseudomembranous colitis and watery diarrhea?

A

Clostridium difficile

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82
Q

What organisms are the most likely causes of meningitis in patients aged 6 to 60 years?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, enteroviruses, and herpes simplex virus

83
Q

Which 2 organisms are likely causes of osteomyelitis in patients with prosthetic joint replacements?

A

Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis

84
Q

What constellation of findings is seen in patients with congenital cytomegalovirus infection?

A

Hearing loss, seizures, chorioretinitis, “blueberry muffin” rash, petechial rash, and periventricular calcifications

85
Q

Name the 4 types of infectious process that make up pelvic inflammatory disease.

A

Salpingitis, endometritis, hydrosalpinx, and tubo-ovarian abscess

86
Q

What is the test of choice for the diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis?

A

MRI (details sites that are involved)

87
Q

Why has the incidence of group B streptococcal meningitis decreased in neonates?

A

Because of screening and antibiotic prophylaxis during pregnancy

88
Q

Which diagnostic marker of urinary tract infections indicates evidence of WBC activity?

A

Leukocyte esterase

89
Q

What sexually transmitted infection may present with urethritis, cervicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, creamy purulent discharge, prostatitis, epididymitis, or arthritis?

A

Gonorrhea caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae

90
Q

What group of drugs is used in the treatment of Candida vulvovaginitis?

A

Azoles

91
Q

Where in the central nervous system does an abscess resulting from otitis media or mastoiditis typically present?

A

Temporal lobe and cerebellum

92
Q

What pathogen is higher risk in unvaccinated individuals and presents with fever, drooling, dysphagia, and difficulty breathing due to edema?

A

Haemophilus influenzae type b causing epiglottitis (can affect immunized and unimmunized children)

93
Q

What 2 organisms commonly cause osteomyelitis in patients with sickle cell disease?

A

Salmonella and Staphylococcus aureus

94
Q

What food sources are commonly associated with a Salmonella infection?

A

Most likely poultry or eggs

95
Q

What is the mechanism of transmission of herpes simplex virus 2?

A

Contact with skin or mucous membranes

96
Q

Osteomyelitis from cat or dog bites is most frequently caused by which organism?

A

Pasteurella multocida

97
Q

What is the cause of decreased incidence of rotavirus infections in developed countries?

A

Vaccination

98
Q

What organism can cause both bloody diarrhea and liver abscesses?

A

Entamoeba histolytica, a protozoan that causes amebic dysentery

99
Q

What species of bacteria is the leading cause of urinary tract infections?

A

Escherichia coli

100
Q

What is the likely source of a single brain abscess?

A

Spread of infection from contiguous sites

101
Q

What bacteria are considered normal flora in the vagina?

A

Lactobacillus, Escherichia coli, and group B streptococcus

102
Q

Which comma- or S-shaped organism grows at 42 °C and causes bloody diarrhea?

A

Campylobacter

103
Q

What are the most likely causes of meningitis in children 6 months to 6 years of age?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae type B, group B Streptococcus, and enteroviruses

104
Q

Name 2 classes of drugs that are associated with a Clostridium difficile infection.

A

Antibiotics and proton pump inhibitors

105
Q

What is the cause of amebic dysentery vs bacillary dysentery?

A

Amebic dysentery: Entamoeba histolytica; bacillary dysentery: Shigella

106
Q

What are the most common symptom and the most common laboratory finding seen with Clostridium difficile infection?

A

Watery diarrhea and leukocytosis

107
Q

Which infectious agents are the most common causes of pneumonia in the immunocompromised?

A

Staphylococcus aureus, Pneumocystis jirovecii (with HIV), enteric gram ⊖ rods, fungi, and viruses

108
Q

Which organisms commonly cause pneumonia in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, Pseudomonas

109
Q

What is the most common route of transmission for microbes that cause urinary tract infections?

A

Bacteria from the urethra ascends to the bladder

110
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of nosocomial infections?

A

Escherichia coli (urinary tract infections) and Staphylococcus aureus (wound infections)

111
Q

What sexually transmitted infection presents with exudative, painful genital ulcers and inguinal lymphadenopathy?

A

Chancroid caused by Haemophilus ducreyi (it’s so painful, you do cry)

112
Q

How does a rubella infection typically present in a pregnant patient?

A

Rash, polyarthritis, polyarthralgia, and lymphadenopathy

113
Q

Which organism that causes urinary tract infections is characterized by production of a red pigment?

A

Serratia marcescens

114
Q

How sensitive and specific are erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein laboratory assays in the workup for osteomyelitis?

A

Elevated values are sensitive but not specific for osteomyelitis

115
Q

What microorganism may cause a food-borne illness as well as wound infections from contact with contaminated shellfish or water?

A

Vibrio vulnificus

116
Q

How does maternal herpes simplex virus type 2 infection present?

A

Either without symptoms or with herpetic (vesicular) lesions

117
Q

What complications may be seen with a congenital herpes simplex virus type 2 infection?

A

Meningoencephalitis and herpetic vesicular lesions

118
Q

What pathogen is higher risk in unvaccinated individuals and presents with meningitis, myalgia, and paralysis?

A

Poliovirus

119
Q

What are the common signs and symptoms of pyelonephritis?

A

Fevers, chills, costovertebral angle tenderness, flank pain, hematuria

120
Q

What are some of the complications of salpingitis?

A

Adhesions, ectopic pregnancy, infertility, chronic pelvic pain

121
Q

What microscopic findings are seen with Trichomonas vaginitis

A

Motile trichomonads (pear shaped)

122
Q

What organism is associated with bloody diarrhea and pseudoappendicitis?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

123
Q

What is the treatment of choice for bacterial vaginosis?

A

Metronidazole or clindamycin

124
Q

What pathogens are likely responsible for nosocomial infections associated with decubitus ulcers, surgical wounds, or drains?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (including MRSA) or gram-negative anaerobes (eg, Prevotella, Bacteroides, Fusobacterium)

125
Q

What organism leads to chancroid?

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

126
Q

What are the dermatologic manifestations of a congenital cytomegalovirus infection?

A

Petechial rash, “blueberry muffin” rash

127
Q

Which stage of syphilis presents with fever, skin rashes, lymphadenopathy, and condyloma lata?

A

Secondary syphilis

128
Q

Is a neonate delivered via cesarean section colonized with bacteria at the time of birth?

A

No; neonates delivered by cesarean section are born without any flora but are colonized quickly after birth

129
Q

What virus is associated with genital herpes?

A

Herpes simplex virus 2 (also herpes simplex virus 1 but less commonly)

130
Q

What organism that causes urinary tract infections is associated with “swarming” on agar due to motility?

A

Proteus mirabilis

131
Q

What pathogen is higher risk in unvaccinated individuals and presents with postauricular lymphadenopathy and a descending rash?

A

Rubella virus

132
Q

How is rubella typically acquired?

A

Respiratory droplets

133
Q

What microorganism is associated with a food-borne illness from undercooked meat?

A

Escherichia coli O157:H7

134
Q

What are the glucose levels in cerebrospinal fluid in bacterial, fungal, and viral meningitis?

A

Decreased in bacterial and fungal; normal in viral

135
Q

What does a positive urine nitrite test result indicate?

A

Reduction of nitrates in urine by gram-negative bacteria such as Escherichia coli

136
Q

What pathogens are associated with infections related to mechanical ventilation or endotracheal intubation?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella, Acinetobacter, Staphylococcus aureus

137
Q

What microorganism is associated with a food-borne illness from reheated meat?

A

Clostridium perfringens

138
Q

What organism causes both watery diarrhea and gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

139
Q

What sexually transmitted infection presents with vaginitis and a strawberry-colored cervix?

A

Trichomoniasis caused by Trichomonas vaginalis

140
Q

What 3 microbes, other than ToRCHHeS, can be causes of neonatal infection or hydrops fetalis?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococci), Escherichia coli, and Listeria monocytogenes can cause meningitis in neonates; parvovirus B19 can lead to hydrops fetalis

141
Q

What pathogen is associated with infection related to water aerosols?

A

Legionella

142
Q

What diagnostic test is used to identify the organisms in osteomyelitis?

A

Culture of specimen obtained via biopsy or aspiration

143
Q

How is Toxoplasma gondii characteristically transmitted?

A

Through cat feces or ingestion of undercooked meat

144
Q

What characteristic x-ray findings may be seen after aspiration?

A

Infiltrates in the right lower lobe (or right upper or middle lobe if the patient is recumbent)

145
Q

Which comma-shaped organisms cause rice-water stools?

A

Vibrio cholerae

146
Q

Which of the TORCH infections often results in stillbirth or hydrops fetalis?

A

Syphilis

147
Q

Name the most common causes of pneumonia in adults 18 to 40 years of age.

A

Mycoplasma, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, viruses (eg, influenza)

148
Q

What organisms are associated with nosocomial pneumonia?

A

Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas, and enteric gram-negative rods

149
Q

What organisms commonly cause osteomyelitis associated with intravenous drug use?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (most common), Pseudomonas, Candida

150
Q

Which risk factors are associated with hepatitis B and hepatitis C nosocomial infections?

A

Renal dialysis provided in a dialysis unit, needlesticks

151
Q

Why does Staphylococcus aureus cause food poisoning quickly?

A

The toxins that cause the food poisoning are preformed

152
Q

What features are seen in infection caused by mechanical ventilation or endotracheal intubation?

A

New infiltrate on chest x-ray, increased sputum production (with a sweet odor if due to Pseudomonas)

153
Q

Which components of Clostridium botulinum are associated with a food-borne illness from consumption of improperly canned foods vs raw honey?

A

Improperly canned foods: toxins of C botulinum; raw honey: spores of C botulinum

154
Q

What are the protein levels in cerebrospinal fluid in bacterial, fungal, and viral meningitis?

A

Increased in bacterial and fungal; normal to increased in viral

155
Q

What sexually transmitted infection is characterized by genital warts and koilocytes?

A

Condyloma acuminata

156
Q

What is the vaginal pH in Candida vulvovaginitis?

A

Normal (4.0-4.5)

157
Q

Which microorganisms are associated with aspiration pneumonia?

A

Polymicrobial, gram-negative bacteria (often anaerobes)

158
Q

Name the most common causes of pneumonia in patients who are 4 weeks to 18 years of age.

A

Viruses (respiratory syncytial virus [RSV]), Mycoplasma, Chlamydia trachomatis, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Streptococcus pneumoniae (Runts May Cough Chunky Sputum)

159
Q

When will a urease test result be positive for a patient with a urinary tract infection?

A

When the infection is due to a urease-producing organism (eg, Proteus mirabilis)

160
Q

What pathogens are likely responsible for infections related to intravascular catheters?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (including MRSA), Staphylococcus epidermidis (from long-term use)

161
Q

What finding on urinalysis can help to distinguish a urinary tract infection from pyelonephritis?

A

Detection of WBC casts (absent in a urinary tract infection, present in pyleonephritis)

162
Q

Name some of the common predisposing factors for urinary tract infections.

A

Female sex, obstruction (kidney stones, enlarged prostate), catheterization, kidney surgery, congenital genitourinary malformation (eg, vesicoureteral reflux), pregnancy, diabetes

163
Q

What are the most likely causes of meningitis in patients older than 60 years?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae type b, group B Streptococcus, Listeria

164
Q

What microorganisms are associated with a food-borne illness from raw and undercooked seafood?

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus and Vibrio vulnificus

165
Q

What are the 3 congenitally acquired TORCH infections in which the pregnant patient is usually asymptomatic?

A

Toxoplasma gondii, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex virus type 2

166
Q

Which organisms cause pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis?

A

Pseudomonas, Burkholderia cepacia, Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae

167
Q

What are the common signs and symptoms of cystitis?

A

Dysuria, suprapubic pain, urinary frequency and urgency, urinalysis positive for white blood cells (but not their casts)

168
Q

What organism that causes urinary tract infection is associated with a fruity odor and blue-green tint?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, often acquired nosocomially

169
Q

What lactose-negative bacterium with a low median infective dose (ID50) is associated with bloody diarrhea?

A

Shigella

170
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease is most often caused by which 2 organisms?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis (subacute, often undiagnosed) and Neisseria gonorrhoeae (acute)

171
Q

What characteristic microscopic finding is associated with bacterial vaginosis?

A

Clue cells

172
Q

What is a life-threatening fetal complication caused by exposure to parvovirus B19 during pregnancy?

A

Hydrops fetalis

173
Q

What is seen on a wet prep performed for a patient with trichomoniasis?

A

Motile trichomonads

174
Q

How does enteroinvasive Escherichia coli cause diarrhea?

A

By invasion of the colonic mucosa

175
Q

Which 3 viruses cause watery diarrhea?

A

Rotavirus, enteric adenovirus, and norovirus

176
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis is part of the normal flora of what 2 parts of the body?

A

The skin and the nose

177
Q

In addition to painful genital lesions, herpes simplex virus type 2 commonly causes what systemic symptoms?

A

Headaches, fevers, myalgia (herpes simplex virus-1 may also cause these symptoms, but not as commonly)

178
Q

What childhood rash presents with cough, conjunctivitis, coryza, and bluish spots on the buccal mucosa followed by a descending confluent rash?

A

Measles (rubeola); the blue-white spots on the buccal mucosa are known as Koplik spots

179
Q

What is the pathophysiology behind pyelonephritis?

A

Ascension of bacteria to the kidneys from the bladder

180
Q

What sexually transmitted infection presents with painful inguinal lymphadenopathy (buboes) and painless genital ulcers?

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

181
Q

What microorganism is associated with a food-borne illness from poultry, meat, and eggs?

A

Salmonella

182
Q

When a pregnant patient contracts syphillis, which stages of the illness are likely to cause fetal infection?

A

The primary (chancre) and secondary (disseminated rash) stages

183
Q

What pathogen is higher risk in unvaccinated individuals and presents with cough, runny nose, conjunctivitis, a diffuse rash, and blue-white spots in the mouth?

A

Measles virus (the mouth lesions are called Koplik spots)

184
Q

What common vaginal infection presents without inflammation?

A

Bacterial vaginosis (inflammation is found with Trichomonas vaginitis [“strawberry cervix”] and Candida vulvovaginitis)

185
Q

What causes of pneumonia are associated with aspiration?

A

Anaerobes

186
Q

What are the characteristics of tertiary syphilis?

A

Gummas, tabes dorsalis, aortitis, general paresis, and an Argyll Robertson pupil

187
Q

What are the reservoirs associated with Shigella vs Salmonella?

A

Shigella: human reservoir only; Salmonella: animal reservoirs, especially poultry and eggs

188
Q

Why is MRI better than x-rays for the diagnosis of osteomyelitis?

A

MRI detects acute infection and details anatomic involvement; x-rays are insensitive in early detection but may be useful for patients with chronic osteomyelitis

189
Q

A patient with meningitis undergoes lumbar puncture. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows normal protein and glucose with lymphocytic pleocytosis. Diagnosis?

A

Viral meningits

190
Q

Which stage of syphilis presents with a painless chancre?

A

Primary syphilis

191
Q

What pathogen is higher risk in unvaccinated individuals and presents with muscle spasms and spastic paralysis?

A

Clostridium tetani

192
Q

What microscopic findings are associated with the ulcer shown in the image, which bleeds readily on contact?

A

Cytoplasmic Donovan bodies (the infectious agent is Klebsiella [Calymmatobacterium] granulomatis); this is granuloma inguinale (donovanosis)

193
Q

What congenital infection presents with the CT findings shown in the image?

A

Cytomegalovirus infection (image shows periventricular calcifications)

194
Q

A patient has the following exam findings: purulent cervical discharge (image), adnexal tenderness, and cervical motion tenderness. Diagnosis?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease

195
Q

A young woman presents with vaginal inflammation and a thick, white, cottage cheese–like discharge. What is your diagnosis?

A

Candida vulvovaginitis

196
Q

What is the treatment of choice for a patient with the microscopic findings shown in the image?

A

Metronidazole for both the patient and partners; the motile, pear-shaped trichomonads indicate aTrichomonas infection

197
Q

What childhood rash presents with a vesicular rash (image) that begins on the trunk before spreading to the face and extremities with lesions in different stages?

A

Chickenpox caused by the varicella-zoster virus

198
Q

The newborn of a mother with poor prenatal care has the eye findings shown in the image, and you note a continuous heart murmur on auscultation. What infection do you suspect?

A

Congenital rubella, which can cause both cataracts and congenital heart disease such as patent ductus arteriosus

199
Q

What childhood rash presents with painful oral ulcers and vesicles and oval vesicles on the palms and soles as shown in the image?

A

Coxsackievirus type A (this is hand-foot-mouth disease); the vesicles and ulcers in oral mucosa are referred to as herpangina

200
Q

You examine the vagina of a woman with vaginal discomfort and note the thin, white discharge with fishy odor (image). KOH whiff test is ⊕. What is your diagnosis?

A

Bacterial vaginosis

201
Q

A child, who has had a fever and sore throat, now exhibits a sandpaper-like rash (image), also seen on the trunk and extremities. What bacteria are responsible for these findings?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes (note the flushed cheeks and circumoral pallor in the image); strawberry tongue may also be seen (this is scarlet fever)

202
Q

Findings on laparoscopy of a 42-year-old patient with a history of untreated STIs are shown. Parietal peritoneum adhesions to her liver are noted. Diagnosis?

A

Fitz-Hugh–Curtis syndrome (a complication of pelvic inflammatory disease)

203
Q

The newborn of a mother with poor prenatal care has a rash (image). Which 3 infectious agents are in your differential diagnosis?

A

This is a “blueberry muffin” rash, seen in neonatal Toxoplasma gondii, rubella, and cytomegalovirus infections

Microbiology (7 decks)

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