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ERJ-145 > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

1
Q

The maximum flap extension speed for the EMB-145 flaps 45° is;

A

145 kt.

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2
Q

The CVG actuators are operated by;

A

Fuel pressure.

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3
Q

What items are installed on the accessory gearbox?

A 
FPMU.
Alternator.
Air turbine starter.
Hydraulic pump.
Oil pump.
Generators (2).
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4
Q

The electric hydraulic pumps are activated in the AUTO position if;

A

The associated engine N2 falls below 56.4%.

The hydraulic pressure falls below 1600 psi.

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5
Q

If the FADEC in control of the engine fails;

A

The other FADEC will immediately assume control.

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6
Q

The RUDDER OVERBOOST message on the EICAS means;

A

The aircraft is above 135 kt with both hydraulic systems supplying the

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7
Q

Hydraulic system 1 incorporates a priority valve to;

A

Ensure sufficient hydraulic pressure of the flight controls during electric … operation.

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8
Q

To extend the speed brakes you must set the speed brake lever to open and;

A

Thrust setting low, flaps 0 or 9 degrees.

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9
Q

What is the maximum altitude to start the APU?

A

30 000 ft.

FL300.

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10
Q

The APU fuel shutoff valve automatically closes;

A

10 seconds after an APU fire is detected on the ground or when the extinguishing switch is pressed.

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11
Q

The MAIN DOOR OPEN EICAS message warning is displayed;

A

When the aircraft is on the ground with engine 1 running and the main door is open or unlocked.

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12
Q

The number 1 hydraulic accumulator supplies enough backup pressure to;

A

Open and close the nose gear doors 4 times.

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13
Q

Choose the correct statement concerning the DAUs;

A

DAU #2 monitors the rear aircraft systems as well as the on side engine.

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14
Q

If both PFDs display an amber SG2 symbol;

A

SGU is supplying the information for both PFDs.

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15
Q

Choose the correct statement about EICAS take-off inhibition logic.

A

Begins at V1 minus 15 kt and ends at 400 ft (radar altimeter), CAS less than 60 kt or 1 minute.

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16
Q

During normal flight operations the electrical system is;

A

Divided into two seperate networks, left and right.

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17
Q

The 24 volt lead acid battery provides;

A

A source of power for the operation of the GCUs.

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18
Q

The engine/APU fire detection system;

A

Automatically returns to normal mode when the fire or overheat condition has been removed.

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19
Q

The engine fire bottles;

A

Are cross connected to enable the bottle to be discharged into either engine.

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20
Q

The lavatory waste bin fire extinguisher;

A

Will discharge automatically if the temperature in the waste bin exceeds a preset level.

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21
Q

In the event of a complete loss of electric fuel pumps;

A

The engines can suction fuel feed.

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22
Q

To determine the fuel quantity using the measuring sticks;

A

Enter the table in the OAM with the value read on the stick to obtain the fuel quantity in gallons.

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23
Q

The normal way to shut down the APU is;

A

Press the stop button.

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24
Q

If an APU caution message appears on the EICAS;

A

Do not try to restart the APU.

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25
Q

The 24 blade ducted fan is driven by;

A

The 3 stage low pressure turbine.

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26
Q

The 14th stage HP bleed air valve opens;

A

During low engine thrust, cross bleed starts and anti ice operation.

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27
Q

Operation of the landing gear is;

A

Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.

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28
Q

The nose gear doors are;

A

Hydraulically actuated.

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29
Q

To avoid retraction on the ground;

A

A machanical device locks the landing gear lever.

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30
Q

The nose wheel steering is enabled by;

A

The nose gear weight on wheel proximity switch.

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31
Q

The total nose wheel steering authority using both tiller and pedals is;

A

76°.

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32
Q

The steering can be manually disengaged by;

A

Either steering disengagement button on both control wheels.

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33
Q

A red BLD 1 or 2 OVTEMP warning message is displayed;

A

If bleed air temperature downstream of the pre-cooler is too high.

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34
Q

The low speed awareness airspeed tape indication has three colours;

A

White, yellow, red.

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35
Q

The minimum crew oxygen pressure for dispatch without an observer is;

A

1100 psi.

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36
Q

The PBEs provide oxygen for a minimum of;

A

15 minutes.

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37
Q

The purpose of the primary RSB is to;

A

Connect RMU 1 and 2 so they can cross-tune the radios.

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38
Q

The Tuning Backup Control Head (TBCH);

A

Can be used to tune COM 2 and NAV 2.

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39
Q

A passenger oxygen generator will produce oxygen for approximately;

A

12 minutes.

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40
Q

Proper operation of the IRS requires the mode selector;

A

To be set to align briefly between each flight.

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41
Q

The EGPWS will generate an aural TERRAIN, TERRAIN PULL UP message;

A

30 seconds away from terrain conflict.

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42
Q

The nose gear landing light;

A

Requires the nose gear to be down and locked and the nose landing switch selected to illuminate.

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43
Q

Low bank mode is automatically selected;

A

When climbing above 25000 ft.

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44
Q

Choose the correct statement regarding the Flight Level Change Mode (FLC).

A

FLC will maintain a climb speed of Mach 0.56 above 17377 ft.

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45
Q

The red light on the emergency flashlights;

A

Is illuminated when the flashlight is charging.

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46
Q

The crew oxygen mask delivers oxygen under positive pressure;

A

By selecting the emergency setting on the mask.

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47
Q

When the passenger oxygen knob is set to AUTO the system is automatically deployed when;

A

The cabin altitude is above 14000 +/- 500 ft.

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48
Q

If the FPMU fails;

A

The engine will shut down.

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49
Q

If the CPL button is pressed with the autopilot engaged;

A

The autopilot will default to HDG and PITCH hold modes.

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50
Q

In the auto pressure controller, the take-off sequence lasts until;

A

The cabin altitude is equal to the theoretical altitude.

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51
Q

If an Air Data Computer fails;

A

A red X will appear on the airspeed and altitude display.

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52
Q

Why does the weather RADAR receives AHRS information?

A

For antenna stabilisation.

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53
Q

The maximum airspeed for windshield wiper operation is;

A

170 kt.

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54
Q

Take-off configuration warning systems parameters include;

A

Flaps, spoilers, pitch trim and brakes.

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55
Q

An EICAS caution message AURAL WARN FAIL means;

A

Both AWU channels are inoperative.

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56
Q

The stick pusher;

A

Requires agreement from both SPS computer channels.

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57
Q

The GPU AVAIL caption indicates;

A

Ground power can be selected by pressing the GPU button on the electrical panel.

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58
Q

During normal in flight operation;

A

One electric fuel pump is in operation and the other two are in automatic standby.

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59
Q

With only two generators available in flight, which bus bars will still be powered?

A

All except the Shed Buses will be powered.

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60
Q

To correct a fuel imbalance;

A

Turn the cross feed knob towards the low tank.

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61
Q

Hydraulic system 1 supplies the;

A

The rudder, the landing gear, and the outboard brakes.

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62
Q

The right #2 engine may be started with;

A

Bleed air from the APU with the cross bleed open.

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63
Q

Correct operation of the thermal anti-ice system can be confirmed by;

A

Open inscriptions in the anti-ice switches on the overhead panel.

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64
Q

The rear electronics compartment is cooled in flight by;

A

Opening of the pressurisation outflow valves which are situated in the compartment.

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65
Q

When holding in icing conditions;

A

You must be configured with flaps up, gear up and maintain 200 kt.

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66
Q

The forward electronics bay cooling system includes;

A

NACA air inlets with water separators, recirculating and exhaust fans.

Shut off valves and thermostats.

BOTH ARE CORRECT.

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67
Q

What is the maximum rear baggage compartment weight?

A

2646 lb.

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68
Q

The engine igniters are powered by;

A

The PMAs only.

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69
Q

The maximum operating altitude for the EMB-145 is;

A

37000 ft.

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70
Q

The aircraft flight number is entered into the DFDR through the;

A

Captain’s clock.

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71
Q

The ram air valves;

A

Open automatically when both packs are OFF.

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72
Q

Icing conditions exist when;

A

Visible moisture is present in any form and the outside air temperature is 10°C or less.

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73
Q

Proper operation of the pressurisation system requires the pilot to;

A

Enter the landing elevation.

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74
Q

To perform the ice detector test on the ground;

A

The engines must be supplying system bleed air.

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75
Q

The flight crew oxygen system;

A

Includes and external discharge indicator on the right forward fuselage.

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76
Q

How many igniter plugs are there in each engine?

A

2.

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77
Q

A red HDG FAIL annunciation on the PFT indicates;

A

A failure of the heading system.

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78
Q

On landing the weather RADAR;

A

Automatically goes into forced standby mode.

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79
Q

Blank display screens on MFD 1 and PFD 2 indicate;

A

DC bus 2 failure.

80
Q

The emergency light batteries are charged;

A

By the essential bus.

81
Q

High pressure engine bleed air is tapped from the compressor;

A

14th stage.

82
Q

Ram air for the standby airspeed indicator is supplied by;

A

Pilot static tube 3.

83
Q

The FADEC is powered by the PMA at;

A

50% N2.

84
Q

The normal source of power for starting the APU is;

A

Battery #2.

85
Q

The anti-skid system;

A

Can only relieve brake pressure.

86
Q

The emergency/parking brake system is;

A

Mechanically commanded.

87
Q

Which statement regarding the hydraulic ENG PUMP SHUTOFF valve is correct?

A

The valve shuts off supply to the engine driven pump only.

88
Q

In the event of hydraulic system 2 failure, how many applications of the emergency brake does the accumulator provide?

A

6.

89
Q

Turbulent air penetration speed above 10 000 ft is;

A

250 kt/0.63 Mach whichever is lower.

90
Q

The bleed air pre-cooler functions to control;

A

Bleed air temperature.

91
Q

The maximum airspeed for the extension of the landing gear is;

A

250 kt.

92
Q

The maximum cabin differential over pressure is;

A

8.1 psid.

93
Q

In icing conditions, the air conditioning logic closes which pack?

A

The left pack below 24600 ft.

94
Q

If a fuel pump was to fail in flight how would the crew be alerted?

A

A cycling amber FUEL LO PRESSURE EICAS message would be presented.

95
Q

The APU will automatically shutdown in flight;

A

Under speed, loss of speed data or ESU failure.

96
Q

The loss of a generator is flight will result in the following automatic actions.

A

The three remaining generators will operate in parallel.

97
Q

Manoeuvring speed VA is;

A

200 kt.

98
Q

The engine accessory gearbox is driven by the;

A

High pressure spool.

99
Q

The electric hydraulic pumps activated in the AUTO position if;

A

The associated engine N2 falls below 56.4%.

100
Q

To extend the speed brakes you must set the speed brake lever to open and;

A

Thrust lever angle must be low, and flaps at 0 or 9 degrees.

101
Q

The ground spoilers are deployed when the aircraft is on the ground and;

A

Main landing it will speed is greater than 25 kt with a low TLA.

102
Q

The RUDDER OVERBOOST message on the EICAS means;

A

The aircraft is above 135 kt with both hydraulic systems operating the rudder.

103
Q

The left engine may be started with;

A

Bleed air from the right engine with the crossbleed open.

104
Q

The maximum landing weight of the ERJ-145 LR is;

A

42 549 lb.

105
Q

The crossbleed valve opens when the switch is in the auto position if;

A

Engine 2 is being started with the APU or a crossbleed engine start.

106
Q

Hydraulic system 2 supplies the;

A

Emergency brakes, outboard spoilers and inboard brakes.

107
Q

The landing gear warning message will be heard if;

A

The flaps are extended to 45 and the gear is not down and locked.

108
Q

The emergency brakes;

A

Use system 2 hydraulic pressure and an accumulator.

109
Q

The STEER INOP message on the EICAS means;

A

The nose wheel is in the free-castor mode and must be reset with the steering.

110
Q

The normal cabin differential pressure is;

A

7.8 psid.

111
Q

Pitch trim on the ERJ-145 is achieved by;

A

Electrically repositioning the horizontal stabiliser.

112
Q

The flap velocity sensors;

A

Detect flap asymmetry.

113
Q

A battery over temperature warning is activated if the battery temperature exceeds;

A

70°C.

114
Q

The maximum fuel tank imbalance in the ERJ-145 is;

A

800 lb.

115
Q

The electric hydraulic pumps are activated in the auto position by;

A

System pressure less than 1600 psi.

116
Q

If the EICAS displays PRESN AUTO FAIL caution message, you should;

A

Consult the QRH.

117
Q

The total number of landing lights is;

A

3, one on each wing and one on the nose.

118
Q

The red beacon light switch controls;

A

The red beacon lights and the flight data recorder.

119
Q

When the courtesy light switch is in the auto position;

A

All courtesy and stair lights extinguish if the main door is closed.

120
Q

The courtesy light switch can control the cockpit dome light provided;

A

The courtesy light switch is in the AUTO position and the A/C is de-energised.

121
Q

No smoking/fasten seatbelt signs are automatically illuminated;

A

Whenever the oxygen dispensing units are open either automatically by the altimetric switch or manually from the cockpit control.

122
Q

The emergency lights are charging when;

A

The emergency light switch is in ARM.

123
Q

In the ARM position, the emergency lights will automatically illuminate;

A

For an electrical emergency, supplied by dedicated batteries.

124
Q

The APU fuel shut off valve automatically closes;

A

10 seconds after and APU fire is detected on the ground or when the APU fire extinguishing switch is pressed.

125
Q

The minimum altitude for auto pilot engagement after take-off is;

A

500 ft.

126
Q

Choose the incorrect statement concerning the over wing emergency exits;

A

They can only be open from inside the aircraft.

127
Q

In the event of an IC 600 1 failure;

A

PFD 1, MFD 1 and EICAS will display a red X.

128
Q

If the air data computer fails;

A

A red X appears on the airspeed and altitude tapes, and a red VS is displayed on the vertical speed indicator.

129
Q

An amber CAS MSG displayed on the EICAS means;

A

There is a discrepancy in the number of messages between IC 600 1 and 2.

130
Q

The brake ON light indicates;

A

The parking brake is applied and there is hydraulic pressure in the parking lines.

131
Q

The APU generator supplies 28 V DC and is rated at;

A

400 amps below 30 000 feet, 300 amps above 30 000 feet.

132
Q

24 V, 44 amp/hour NiCad batteries can supply essential in-flight power for;

A

40 minutes.

133
Q

Detection of a fire in the APU compartment;

A

Causes an automatic shutdown of the APU if the aircraft is on the ground.

134
Q

Choose the correct statement concerning the APU fire extinguishing button.

A

When pressed, the extinguisher will discharge and the APU shut off valve will close.

135
Q

Select the correct statement about the baggage compartment smoke detection system.

A

The BAGG SMOKE EICAS message disappears when smoke is no longer present.

136
Q

The purpose of the baggage compartment meted discharge extinguisher;

A

To provide a constant flow of halon for 50 minutes.

137
Q

Pulling the engine fire handle;

A

Closest the associated fuel, hydraulic, bleed and engine anti-ice shut off valves.

138
Q

The maximum usable quantity for an EMB-145 LR in each tank is;

A

5717 lb.

139
Q

If APU FAIL caution message is presented on the EICAS;

A

Do not try to restart the APU.

140
Q

The 14 stage compressor is connected to;

A

A two-stage high-pressure turbine.

141
Q

The PMA can power the ignition system at speeds above;

A

10% N2.

142
Q

The FADECs will command maximum reverse thrust only when;

A

Both main gear are on the ground and wheel speeds are above 25 kt or all wheels are on the ground.

143
Q

Which is not an example of when the FADEC will select T/O 1 thrust?

A

Either go around button is pressed for 2 seconds or more.

144
Q

The continuous thrust mode is available;

A

When the aircraft is 300 feet above take off altitude and the gear is not locked down.

145
Q

Choose the correct statement concerning the weight on wheels proximity switches;

A

There are a total of 5, 2 on each main gear and 1 on the nose gear.

146
Q

Landing gear position is determined by;

A

2 proximity sensors on each main gear and 1 on the nose gear.

147
Q

Each landing gear is held in the up position by;

A

A mechanical up lock hook.

148
Q

Pulling up the freefall extension lever;

A

Mechanically releases the uplock hooks.

149
Q

The nose wheel steering is automatically disabled;

A

As soon as the aircraft is airborne.

150
Q

Using the nose wheel steering handle allows;

A

71° of nose wheel displacement.

151
Q

With 76° of nose wheel steering, the turning radius is;

A

69 ft 7 in.

152
Q

The engine high stage valve automatically opens during;

A

Low engine thrust operations.

153
Q

The engine bleed valves;

A

Can be closed using buttons on the overhead panel.

154
Q

An amber ADC1 one or ADC2 is displayed in the upper left hand corner of the PFD when;

A

One ADC is providing data for both PFDs.

155
Q

The low altitude raster band is displayed on the altitude tape when;

A

The aircraft is below 550 feet radio altitude.

156
Q

The portable oxygen bottle pressures for dispatch are;

A

1600 psi for the short bottle and 1200 psi for the tall bottle.

157
Q

In the event of a loss of either side of the secondary RSB;

A

You will still be able to tune the RMU normally on the lost side.

158
Q

If you lose all three radio service buses (RSBs);

A

You will be able to tune COM 2 and NAV 2 through the TCBH.

159
Q

A passenger oxygen generator will produce oxygen for approximately;

A

12 minutes.

160
Q

Proper operation of the IRS requires the mode selector;

A

To be set to ALIGN briefly between each flight.

161
Q

The heading hold mode;

A

Is the default mode with no other mode is selected.
Will be displayed on the PFD with an ROL label when selected.

Both 1 and 2 are correct.

162
Q

The pitch attitude can be changed by the pitch control wheel provided;

A

The autopilot is engaged and the flight director is in PIT mode.

163
Q

During a windshield warning;

A

The altitude pre-select mode is cancelled.

164
Q

How many portable oxygen bottles are on board the aircraft?

A

Two, one located in the forward left cabin equipment storage unit and one located on the aft cabin bulkhead right side.

165
Q

How many handheld halon fire extinguishers are on board the aircraft?

A

Three, one in the cockpit and two in the cabin.

166
Q

Which is not a location are PBE is stored in?

A

The forward cabin bulkhead next to the flight attendant’s seat.

167
Q

An aural cabin warning is generated when the cabin altitude exceeds;

A

10 000 ft.

168
Q

What is the total number of static wicks on the aircraft?

A

22.

169
Q

During an in-flight engine start;

A

The FADEC in control will command its ignition on and request the other FADEC to command its ignition on.

170
Q

The maximum ramp wait for the ERJ-145 LR is;

A

48 722 lb.

171
Q

The maximum speed for flaps 9, 22 and 45 are respectively;

A

250, 200 and 145 kt.

172
Q

In the event of a battery over-temperature the correct memory action is;

A

Associated battery - OFF.

173
Q

If a take-off is to be performed from a sea level airfield the pre-pressurisation sequence will cause the cabin altitude to descend towards an altitude equivalent of;

A

-300 ft.

174
Q

If an AHRS fails;

A

A red ATT FAIL and HDG FAIL message will appear on the PFD.

175
Q

If the airspeed comparison monitor detects a difference of more than 5 kt on the PFDs;

A

An amber IAS caption appears on both airspeed tapes.

176
Q

How do you override the weather radar forced standby function?

A

Press the STAB button 4 times within 3 seconds.

177
Q

The minimum turning radius when the steering angle is 76° is;

A

69 ft and 7 in.

178
Q

What are the four modes of the FMS in descending order of accuracy?

A

GPS, DME/DME, VOR/DME, IRS (if installed).

179
Q

How is the AWU status confirmed during power up?

A

And aural message AURAL UNIT OK is generated.

180
Q

If ground power is selected while the engine driven generators are supplying the aircraft electrical system;

A

The generators will go off-line automatically leaving the GPU powering the aircraft.

181
Q

Concerning the data acquisition units which of the following statements is incorrect?

A

Both DAUs supply information to both IC 600s.

182
Q

If the flaps have not been selected to the take-off position;

A

The AWU will generate a TAKE-OFF FLAPS message.

183
Q

The stick pusher;

A

Requires agreement from both SPS computer channels.

184
Q

If ground power is selected while the APU generator is supplying the aircraft electrical systems;

A

The ground power source will have priority over the APU.

185
Q

In normal flight operations;

A

BTC 1 is open and BTC 2 is closed.

186
Q

During an electrical emergency the following are operational;

A

The standby flight instruments and the EICAS.

187
Q

The EMB-145 fire protection system includes;

A

Two fire extinguishing bottles for the engine, two for the baggage compartment, one for the APU and one in the lavatory trash bin.

188
Q

To transfer fuel from tank 1 to tank 2 you must;

A

Fuel cannot be transferred from one tank to another.

189
Q

The ESU automatically shuts down the APU at;

A

108% RPM.

190
Q

Pressing the fire detection test button will;

A

Illuminate the fire handles and the bag smoke light, present three red and two amber flashing EICAS messages and the operating warning bell.

191
Q

During APU starting the APU bleed valve;

A

Must be closed to start.

192
Q

If all the fuel booster pumps failed;

A

The FPMU will suction feed fuel from the fuel tank, the engine will keep running.

193
Q

An amber SPOILER FAIL EICAS message indicates;

A

Any spoiler panel is open without being commanded.

194
Q

The engine high stage valve opens;

A

During low engine thrust, cross bleed starts or anti-ice operations.

195
Q

The ejector pump always requires at least one bleed supply;

A

To ensure correct operation of the outflow valves.

ERJ-145 (16 decks)

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