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Biosciences 1 > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

1
Q

3 layers of skin

A

epidermis, dermis and hypodermis

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2
Q

Corpuscles

A

Cutaneous sensory receptors. Receive stimuli when you are touched

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3
Q

What percentage of blood volume is retained in your skin

A

5%

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4
Q

Two types of perspiration

A

Insensible (unnoticeable) and sensible (noticeable)

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5
Q

Cyanosis

A

Blue skin (heart failure, poor circulation, severe respiratory issues)

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6
Q

Jaundice

A

Yellow skin (liver disorder)

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7
Q

Erythema

A

Red skin (fever, inflammation, allergy)

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8
Q

5 types of sweat glands

A

Eccrine (palms, forehead and feet soles), Apocrine (armpits and groin), Mammary (secret milk), Ceruminous (earwax) and sebaceous (oil glands)

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9
Q

6 stages of digestion

A

Ingestion, Propulsion, Mechanical Breakdown, Chemical Digestion, Absorption and Defection

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10
Q

Macromolecules

A

lipids, carbs, proteins and nucleic acids

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11
Q

Alimentary canal

A

gastrointestinal tract

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12
Q

Why do the mouth, esophagus and anus all contain simple squamous tissue?

A

to prevent abrasive action of chewing certain foods

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13
Q

Why do the stomach and organs below contain columnar cells?

A

They secrete mucus which protects your cells from being digestive

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14
Q

Peristalsis

A

Muscles take turns relaxing and contracting to move food down

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15
Q

Gastric phase

A

as stomach is distended from food, activates stretch receptors which stimulate medulla and turn pH of stomach up

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16
Q

Intestinal phase

A

sows rate at which food is emptied from stomach

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17
Q

Mastication

A

to chew

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18
Q

Names of jawbones

A

Maxilla and mandible

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19
Q

Names of muscles attached to jawbones

A

Buccinator and masseter

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20
Q

Which enzyme do salivary glands produce and what does it do

A

Salivary amylase - starts digestion of starch

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21
Q

3 portions of teeth

A

Crown, root and neck

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22
Q

Names of two sets of teeth

A

deciduous and permanent

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23
Q

What is the pharynx

A

back of mouth

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24
Q

Esophagus

A

connects mouth to stomach. Upper sphincter contains skeletal muscles and lower sphincter contains smooth muscle

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25
Q

4 main regions of stomach

A

cardia, fundus, body and pylorus

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26
Q

What is between the pylorus and duodenum?

A

pyloric sphincter

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27
Q

What happens when the stomach is empty?

A

Mucosa lies in large folds called rugae

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28
Q

What does lingual lipase do?

A

digests triglycerides into fatty acids and diglycerides in the acids environment of stomach

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29
Q

How many layers of smooth muscle does the stomach wall consist of?

A

3

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30
Q

3 muscle groups

A

circular, longitudinal, oblique

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31
Q

3 parts of small intestine

A

Duodenum, jejunum and ileum

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32
Q

What does the small intestine do?

A

Its glands produce enzymes and mucus

the microvilli, villi and circular folds of its walls provide a large surface area for digestion and absorption

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33
Q

Main function of colon

A

absorption of water

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34
Q

Parts of the colon

A

Ascending, transverse, descending and sigmoid

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35
Q

Parts of the large intestine

A

Caecum, colon, rectum and anal canal

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36
Q

What does the large intestine do?

A

Absorbs water, ions and some vitamins

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37
Q

What stimulates the release of cholecystokinin?

A

Arrival of lipids in the duodenum

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38
Q

How are substances carried from the small intestine to the liver?

A

By the hepatic portal vein

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39
Q

What are parietal cells responsible for?

A

The production of the intrinsic factor (a glycoprotein)

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40
Q

What is the synthesis and storage of fat called?

A

lipogenesis

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41
Q

What does cholecystokinin do?

A

Stimulates the release of bile

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42
Q

Where is the pancreas?

A

lies behind the stomach

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43
Q

What does pancreatic juice contain?

A

enzymes and fluid

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44
Q

What is the pancreas made up of?

A

small clusters of glandular epithelial cells called acini which constitute the exocrine portion of the organ

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45
Q

Types of bile that emulsify fat

A

sodium taurocholate and sodium glycocholate

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46
Q

Cholecystectomy

A

removal of the gallbladder

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47
Q

Process of bile

A

made by liver, travels down hipatic duct, stored in gallbladder, travels down cystic duct, behind pancreas and then through duodenum

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48
Q

Components of bile

A

Hepatocytes, bile canaliculi, hepatic sinusoids, central vein and hipatic veins

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49
Q

What do hepatocytes do?

A

release bile

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50
Q

What do hepatic sinusoids contain?

A

stellate reticuloendothelial cells

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51
Q

Functions of the liver

A

secrets bile, phagocytosis of bacteria, processing of drugs and hormones, carbohydrate, lipid and protein metabolism, excretion of bilirubin, storage of vits and minerals, activation of vitamin d

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52
Q

organs of the respiratory system

A

nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs

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53
Q

Otorhinolaryngology

A

diagnosis and treatment of ears, nose and throat

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54
Q

3 types of respiration

A

pulmonary ventilation, external respiration and internal respiration

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55
Q

Conducting zone

A

consists of a series of interconnecting cavities and tubes both outside and within the lungs

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56
Q

Respiratory zone

A

consists of tissues within lungs where exchange occurs between air and blood

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57
Q

Average atmospheric pressure

A

760 mmHg

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58
Q

Sternocleidomastoid

A

muscles in neck

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59
Q

What do carotid arteries do?

A

feed blood to brain

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60
Q

Nose

A

contains nares which prevent how much dirt you breathe in. Green snot indicates infection

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61
Q

Pharynx

A

throat. passageway for air and food. wall is composed of skeletal muscle and lined with mucous membrane

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62
Q

Larynx

A

voice box. Contains thyroid cartilage, epiglottis, cricoid cartilage, arytenoid cartilage, false vocal cords and true vocal cords

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63
Q

How is pitch of voice controlled?

A

By tension of vocal cords. Swollen when you have a cold which is why voice is deeper.

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64
Q

Trachea into bronchi

A

Divides into left and right primary bronchus, which then divide to form the lobal, secondary bronchi, one for each lung lobe. Lobar bronchi branch to form segmental, tertiary bronchi which divide several times, forming bronchioles. These branch to form terminal bronchioles which then give alveoli.

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65
Q

How many lobes does each lung have?

A

Left has 2 and right has 3

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66
Q

Lungs

A

paired organs in thoracic cavity enclosed by pleural membrane.

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67
Q

Layers of pleural membrane

A

Parietal (outer) and visceral (inner)

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68
Q

What do lobules contain?

A

lymphatic vessels, arterioles, venules, terminla bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs and alveoli

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69
Q

What is the structure of alveoli?

A

racemose structure

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70
Q

When do we inhale and exhale?

A

Inhale when pressure in lungs is lower than atmospheric pressure and exhale when pressure in lungs is higher

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71
Q

Diaphragm

A

contracts when it receives nerve impulses from phrenic nerves

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72
Q

Minute ventilation

A

total volume of air inhaled and exhaled each minute

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73
Q

Lung volumes

A

tidal, inspiratory reserve, expiratory reserve, residual

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74
Q

What does surfactant do?

A

prevents friction

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75
Q

Elastic recoil

A

our ability to automatically breathe out

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76
Q

Ventral repiratory group

A

controls voluntary forced exhalation, increases force of inspiration

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77
Q

Dorsal respiratory group

A

controls mostly inspiratory movements and their timings

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78
Q

Ventilatory rate

A

tightly controlled and determined by blood levels of CO2

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79
Q

What do chemoreceptors do?

A

detect changes in blood pH that require changes in involuntary respiration

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80
Q

Which centres of pons work together to control breathing?

A

Apresutic (stimulating) and pneumotaxic (limiting)

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81
Q

How does the medulla help with breathing?

A

sends signals to initiate inspiration and expiration

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82
Q

Lacteal

A

absorbs fats and fat soluble vitamins

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83
Q

Type l alveolar cell

A

branched cell with multiple cytoplasmic plate which represent gas exchange surface

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84
Q

Type ll alveolar cells

A

responds to damage of type l cells by dividing and differentiating into both type l and type ll cells. also synthesise, store and release surfactant into alveolar hypophase to optimise conditions for gas exchange

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85
Q

Effect of damage to type l alveolar cells

A

increase entry of fluid to alveoli and decreased clearance of fluid from alveolarspace

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86
Q

Effect of damage to type ll alveolar cells

A

decreased production of surfactant which can lead to alveolar collapse. Can lead to fibrosis.
Breathing problems as delivery of oxygen is impaired. Babies would have extreme difficulty breathing and would struggle to survive.

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87
Q

Partial pressure

A

Pressure of a specific gas in a mixture

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88
Q

External respiration (pulmonary gas exchange)

A

exchange of gases between alveolar air and pulmonary blood capillaries

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89
Q

Internal respiration (systemic gas exchange)

A

exchange of gases between systemic tissue capillaries and systemic tissue cells

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90
Q

How is oxygen transported round body?

A

98.5% of blood O2 is bound to haemoglobin in red blood cells. Association of O2 and haemoglobin is affected by PO2, pH, temperature and PCO2.

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91
Q

How is CO2 transported round body?

A

3 ways: 7% dissolved in plasma, 23% binds with globin of haemoglobin and 70% is converted to bicarbonate ions (HCO3-)

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92
Q

2 areas of respiratory centre

A

Medulla oblongata and pons varolii

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93
Q

What does the inspiratory area do?

A

sets basic rhythm of respiration

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94
Q

DRG

A

Dorsal Respiratory Group

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95
Q

How does active DRG work?

A

diaphragm contracts and external intercostal muscles contract during their most active phase which leads to normal quiet inhalation

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96
Q

How does inactive DRG work?

A

diaphragm relaxes and external intercostal muscles become less active and relax, followed by elastic recoil of lungs which leads to normal quiet exhalation

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97
Q

VRG

A

Ventral respiratory group

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98
Q

How do VRG cause forceful inhalation?

A

accessory muscles of inhalation (sternocleidomastoid, scalene and pactoralis minor muscles) contract

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99
Q

How do VRG cause forceful exhalation?

A

accessory muscles of exhalation (internal intercostal, external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis and rectus abdominis muslces) contract

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100
Q

Pons

A

top of brain stem

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101
Q

Medulla

A

just below pons

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102
Q

What does a dissociation curve show?

A

plots proportion of haemoglobin in its oxygen saturated form, against the partial pressure of oxygen

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103
Q

What does a shift to left on dissociation curve show?

A

increase in pH, decrease in CO2, decreased temperature

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104
Q

What does a shift to right on dissociation curve show?

A

decrease O2 affinity of haemoglobin, increase in CO2, increased temperature

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105
Q

What will a lack of haemoglobin cause?

A

shortness of breath, ireegular heartbeat, chest pain

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106
Q

What will too much haemoglobin cause?

A

causes body to make too many red blood cells, causing blood to thicken, leading to clots, heart attacks and strokes

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107
Q

Cephalic phase

A

the smell, sight, sound or thought of food activates neural centres in the brain

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108
Q

Gastric phase

A

promotes gastric juice secretion and gastric motility. The pyloric sphincter relaxes, which promotes gastric emptying. Gastric motility and gastric secretion decrease in order to slow the exit of chyme from the stomach, which prevents the small intestine from being overloaded with more chyme than it can handle

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109
Q

Gastric motility

A

Contractions of gastric smooth muscle serves two basic functions: ingested food is crushed, ground and mixed, liquefying it to form what is called chyme. chyme is forced through the pyloric canal into the small intestine, a process called gastric emptying.

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110
Q

Intestinal phase

A

the activities that occur during the various phases of digestion are coordinated by hormones, secretion and cholecystokinin

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111
Q

What does cholecystokinin do in the intestinal phase?

A

opens the oddi sphincter to allow bile and digestive juices to flow between the pancreas and small intestine

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112
Q

Gastrin

A

stomach mucosa (pyloric region). The secretion of gastric juice increases motility and relaxes the pyloric sphincter

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113
Q

Secretin

A

intestinal mucosa. secretions from pancreas, stimulates secretion of digestive enzymes and gives the feeling of satiety

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114
Q

Satiety

A

feeling full

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115
Q

What happens immediately after a meal in the small intestine?

A

Segmenting contractions and pacemaker cells

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116
Q

Post absorptive state in small intestine

A

peristaltic contractions and successive waves are more distal

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117
Q

Protein digestion in duodenum

A

Trypsin and Chymotrypsin in pancreas, carboxypeptidase and aminopeptidases

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118
Q

Lipid digestion

A

emulsification by bile salts to form small droplets, then pancreatic lipase changes the lipids to monoglycerides or fatty acids, then go on to form micelles and simple diffusion through the plasma membrane

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119
Q

Lipid digestion inside epithelial cells

A

resynthesised to triglycerides, then coated by proteins to form chylomicrons. They leave the epithelial cells and enter the lymphatic capillaries, which are called lacteals. The lacteals merge to form larger lymphatic vessels that transport the chyle to the thoracic duct where it is emptied into the bloodstream at the subclavian vein.

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120
Q

Heart structure

A

located between lungs in thoracic cavity. The apex (pointed end) is formed by the tip of the left ventricle and rests of the diaphragm. The ease of the heart is opposite the apex and is formed by the atria, mostly the left atrium.

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121
Q

Pericardium

A

membrane that surrounds the heart and holds it in place. It consists of two parts: fibrous and serous.

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122
Q

Outer fibrous pericardium

A

a tough, irregular connective tissue layer. It prevents overstretching of the heart, provides protection and anchors the heart in place.

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123
Q

Potential problem with outer fibrous pericardium

A

doesnt stretch so if any inflammation or excess fluid, the excess pressure could constrict the heart and impair pumping.

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124
Q

Inner serous pericardium

A

a thinner membrane that forms a double layer around the heart

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125
Q

Outer parietal layer of serous pericardium

A

fused to the fibrous pericardium

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126
Q

Inner visceral layer of serous pericardium

A

adheres tightly to the surface of the heart

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127
Q

Pericarditis

A

inflammation of the pericardium, causing a sudden onset of chest pain. Could be due to a viral infection or TB

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128
Q

3 layers of heart wall

A

epicardium, myocardium and endocardium

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129
Q

Epicardium

A

external layer - thin, transparent outer layer of wall. Composed of mesothelium and connective tissue

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130
Q

Myocardium

A

middle layer - consists of cardiac muscle tissue, which constitutes the bulk of the heart

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131
Q

Cardiac muscle fibres

A

involuntary, striated and branched cells. Form 2 separate networks - one ventricular and one atrial

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132
Q

Cardiac muscle fibre connections with other fibres

A

each fibre connects with other fibres by thickenings of the sarcolemma called intercalated discs. Within the discs are gap junctions that allow action potentials to conduct from one cardiac muscle fibre to the next

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133
Q

Endocardium

A

thin layer of simple squamous epithelium that lines the inside of the myocardium and covers the valves of the heart and the tendons attached to the valves

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134
Q

Atria

A

two upper chambers of heart

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135
Q

Ventricles

A

two lower chambers of heart

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136
Q

Which ventricle is thicker and why?

A

left due to pressure - left ventricles delivers blood to more areas of the body

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137
Q

What separates the two atriums?

A

a thin partition called the interatrial septum, which has an oval depression called the fossa ovalis

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138
Q

What separates the two ventricles?

A

an interventricular septum

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139
Q

Superior vena cava

A

brings deoxygenated blood to the right atrium from parts of the body above the heart

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140
Q

Inferior vena cava

A

brings deoxygenated blood to the right atrium from parts of the body below the heart

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141
Q

Coronary sinus

A

drains deoxygenated blood from most of the vessels supplying the wall of the heart

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142
Q

Which ventricle contracts first?

A

they contract simultaneously

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143
Q

How does deoxygenated blood travel around the heart?

A

Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from 3 veins and then delivers the blood to the right ventricles, which pumps it into the pulmonary trunk. The pulmonary trunk then divides into a right and left pulmonary artery, to the corresponding lung.

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144
Q

How does oxygenated blood travel around the heart?

A

Oxygenated blood enters the left atrium via four pulmonary veins. The blood then passes into the left ventricle, which pumps the blood into the ascending aorta. From here the oxygenated blood is carried to all parts of the body.

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145
Q

Ligamentum arteriosum

A

a small ligament that is the remnant of the ductus arteriosus formed within three weeks after birth. At the superior end, the ligamentum attaches to the aorta—at the final part of the aortic arch

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146
Q

Septal defects (holes in the heart)

A

heart starts as 1, breaks down into 4 parts soon after birth. A gap can form between the right and left atria.

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147
Q

How many valves does the heart have? Describe them

A

4 - made up of dense connective tissue covered by endothelium. They open and close in response to pressure changes as the heart contracts and relaxes

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148
Q

Atrioventricular (AV) valve

A

lies between the atria and ventricles. Tricuspid and bicuspid (mitral)

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149
Q

Tricuspid valve

A

AV valve between right atrium and right ventricle. Consists of three cusps

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150
Q

Bicuspid (mitral) valve

A

AV valve between left ventricle and left atrium. Has two cusps.

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151
Q

What must happen for blood to pass from an atrium to a ventricle?

A

an atrioventricular valve must open

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152
Q

Pulmonary valve

A

lies in the opening where the pulmonary trunk leaves the right ventricle

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153
Q

Aortic valve

A

at the opening between the left ventricle and aorta

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154
Q

What do valves prevent?

A

prevent blood flowing back to the heart

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155
Q

How do valves prevent blood from flowing backwards?

A

They consist of semilunar cusps which attach to the artery wall and permit blood to flow in one direction only

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156
Q

In which direction does blood flow through the heart?

A

From high to low pressure

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157
Q

How is movement of the blood through the heart controlled?

A

by the opening and closing of valves and the contraction and relaxation of the myocardium

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158
Q

Coronary circulation

A

the flow of blood through numerous vessels in the myocardium

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159
Q

Principal coronary vessels

A

the left and right coronary arteries, which originate as branches of ascending aorta. Each artery branches several times to deliver O2 and nutrients throughout the heart muscles

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160
Q

Coronary sinus

A

vein on posterior surface of heart and collects most deoxygenated blood and empties into the right atrium

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161
Q

SA

A

sinoatrial

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162
Q

AV

A

atrioventricular

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163
Q

SA node

A

located in the right atrial wall, begins cardiac excitation. natural pacemaker of heart

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164
Q

AV node

A

located in interatrial septum, just anterior to the opening of the coronary sinus. Action potential slows considerably, providing time for atria to empty blood into ventricles

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165
Q

Process of action potential

A

From AV node, action potential enters the AV bundle in the interventricular system. AV bundle is the only site where action potentials can conduct from atria to the ventricles. After conducting through AV bundle, the action potential enters both right and left bundle branches that course through the interventricular septum towards apex of heart. Finally, Purkinje fibers rapidly conduct the action potential, first to apex of ventricles and then upwards to the rest of the ventricular myocardium.

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166
Q

Action potential

A

brief change in voltage across cell membrane of heart cells. Caused by the movement of charged atoms between inside and outside of cell, through proteins called ion channels.

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167
Q

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

A

conduction of action potentials through heart generates electrical currents that can be picked up by electrodes placed on skin

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168
Q

P wave

A

small upward deflection on ECG. Represents atrial depolarisation, which causes contraction so the atria contracts after the P wave begins

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169
Q

QRS complex

A

begins as a downward deflection, then continues as a large, upright, triangular wave and ends as a downward wave. Represents the onset of ventricular depolarisation so ventricles contract.

170
Q

T wave

A

dome shaped upward deflection that indicates ventricular repolarisation and occurs just before ventricles start to relax

171
Q

Normal cardiac cycle

A

two atria contract while two ventricles relax and two ventricles contract while two atria relax

172
Q

Systole

A

phase of contraction (top BP number)

173
Q

Diastole

A

phase of relaxation (bottom BP number)

174
Q

3 phases of cardiac cyle

A

relaxation period, atrial systole, ventricular systole

175
Q

Relaxation period of cardiac cycle

A

begins at end of cardiac cycle when ventricles start to relax and all 4 chambers are in diastole

176
Q

Heart sounds

A

First sound, lubb, comes from AV valves closing after ventricular systole begins. Second sound, dupp, is from semilunar valves closing at end of ventricular systole.

177
Q

Functions of blood

A

transportation, regulation and protection

178
Q

What does the blood transport?

A

O2, CO2, nutrients, hormones, heat and waves

179
Q

What does the blood regulate?

A

pH, body temperature, water content of cells

180
Q

What does the blood protect?

A

against blood loss through clotting, against disease through phagocytic white blood cells and proteins such as antibodies, interferons and complement

181
Q

Blood plasma

A

liquid extracellular matrix that contains dissolved substances

182
Q

Formed elements

A

cells and cell fragments

183
Q

Hemopoiesis

A

formation of blood cells from pluripotent stem cells, occurs in red bone marrow

184
Q

Red blood cells

A

biconcave discs without nuclei that contain haemoglobin. lifecycle of 120 days. Haemoglobin is recycled after phagocytosis of aged red blood cells.

185
Q

Erythropoiesis

A

RBC formation and occurs in adult red bone marrow. Stimulated by hypoxia, which stimulates release of erythropoietin by kidneys.

186
Q

Reticulocyte count

A

diagnostic test that indicates the rate of erythropoiesis.

187
Q

Pluripotent

A

can turn into any cell

188
Q

White blood cells

A

nucleated cells. classified as either granular leukocytes or agranular leukocytes. function is to combat inflammation and infection.

189
Q

Granular leukocytes

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

190
Q

Agranular leukocytes

A

lymphocytes, monocytes

191
Q

Neutrophils

A

respond first to bacterial invasion and then macrophages do so through phagocytosis

192
Q

Eosinophils

A

combat inflammation in allergic reactions and are effective against parasitic worms

193
Q

Basophils

A

involved in inflammatory and allergic reactions and can liberate heparin, histamine and serotonin

194
Q

Three types of lymphocytes

A

B cells, T cells and natural killer cells

195
Q

B cells

A

develop into plasma cells and produce antibodies that help destroy bacteria and other toxins

196
Q

T cells

A

attack viruses, fungi and cancer cells

197
Q

NK cells

A

attack a wide variety of infectious microbes and tumor cells

198
Q

How many WBC does normal blood contain?

A

5000-10000 per mL.

199
Q

Platelets

A

disc shaped fragments without nuclei that are formed from megakaryocytes and take part in hemostasis.

200
Q

How many platelets does normal blood contain?

A

150000-400000 per mL

201
Q

ABO blood group

A

based on A and B antigens

202
Q

Rh blood group

A

named because Rhantigen was first found in bloodof Rhesus monkey. People whose antigens contain Rh antigens are classified as Rh+. Those who lack it are Rh-.

203
Q

Haemostasis

A

Sequence of responses that stops bleeding when blood vessels are injured

204
Q

Three mechanisms that can reduce loss of blood from blood vessels

A

Vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, blood clotting (coagulation)

205
Q

Coagulation

A

Blood clotting

206
Q

3 stages of blood clotting

A

formation of prothrombinase, conversion of prothrombin into thrombin, and then thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrinogen

207
Q

How does blood clotting work?

A

Once a blood clot is formed, it plugs the ruptured area of the blood vessel and stops blood loss. Clot retraction is the consolidation or tightening of the fibrin clot. As blood clot retracts, it pulls the edges of the damaged vessel closer together, decreasing risk of further damage.

208
Q

What is thrombosis?

A

Clotting in an unbroken blood vessel.

209
Q

What is an embolus?

A

A thrombus that moves from its site of origin

210
Q

Five types of blood vessels

A

arteries, arterioles, capillaries, veins and venules

211
Q

Arteries

A

carry blood away from heart to body tissues. Their walls consist of three layers - endothelium, smooth muscle and an outer layer. Structure of middle layer gives arteries their two major properties, elasticity and contractility.

212
Q

Vasoconstriction

A

decrease in diameter of blood vessel lumen

213
Q

Vasodilation

A

increase in diameter of blood vessel lumen

214
Q

Lumen

A

inside space of tubular structure

215
Q

Arterioles

A

small arteries that deliver blood to capillaries. Through constriction and dilation, arterioles play a key role in regulating blood flow from arteries to capillaries.

216
Q

Capillaries

A

microscopic blood vessels that connect arterioles to venules. They are known as exchange vessels because they permit the exchange of nutrients and wastes between body cells and blood.

217
Q

Precapillary sphincters

A

regulate blood flow through capillaries

218
Q

Capillary blood pressure

A

pushes fluid out of capillaries into interstitial fluid

219
Q

Blood colloid osmotic pressure

A

pulls fluid into capillaries from interstitial fluid

220
Q

Autoregulation

A

ability of a tissue to automatically adjust its blood flow to match its metabolic demands

221
Q

Venules

A

similar in structures to arterioles - their walls are thinner near capillaries and thicker towards heart

222
Q

Veins

A

similar structure to arteries but middle and inner veins are thinner. Outer layer is thickest. In some veins, inner layer folds inwards to form valves that prevent backflow of blood. Weak venous valves can lead to varicose veins.

223
Q

Venous return

A

refers to movement of blood from capillaries to venules to veins, back to atria of heart. This is aided by skeletal muscle pump and breathing

224
Q

Cardiac output

A

volume of blood ejected per minute from left ventricle into aorta. Determined by stroke volume, the amount of blood ejected by left ventricle during each beat

225
Q

Average stroke volume

A

70ml

226
Q

Formula for cardiac output

A

stroke volume x heart rate

227
Q

3 factors that regulate stroke volume

A

degree of stretch in heart before in contracts, forcefulness of contraction of individual ventricular muscle fibers and pressure required to eject blood from ventricles

228
Q

Where does autonomic regulation of heart rate originate?

A

in CV centre in medulla oblongata

229
Q

Other regulators of heart rate

A

cardiac accelerator nerves, vagus nerves, baroreceptors and chemoreceptors

230
Q

BP

A

pressure exerted by blood on walls of a blood vessel. mmHg. depends on total volume of blood

231
Q

Vascular resistance

A

opposition of blood flow due to friction between blood and walls of blood vessels. It depends on size of blood vessel lumen, blood viscosity and total blood vessel length

232
Q

What does the CV centre in the medulla oblongata do?

A

helps regulate heart rate and stroke volume. Controls neural and hormonal negative feedback systems that regulate BP and blood flow to specific tissues. Also receives input from 3 types of sensory receptors - proprioreceptors, baroreceptors and chemoreceptors

233
Q

Proprioreceptors

A

monitor movement of joints and muscles, provide input to CV centre during physical activity to cause rapid increase in heart rate.

234
Q

Baroreceptors

A

pressure receptors. Located in aorta, internal carotid arteries and other large arteries in neck and chest. Send impulses to CV centre to regulate BP

235
Q

Chemoreceptors

A

monitor blood levels of O2, CO2, and H+. Located in two carotid bodies in carotid arteries and its aortic body. The CV centre responds by increasing sympathetic stimulation of arterioles and veins, producing vasoconstriction and an increase in BP

236
Q

RAA hormone

A

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone kidneys secrete enzyme renin to increase BP

237
Q

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

sympathetic stimulation increases cardiac output

238
Q

ADH (hormone)

A

Andidiuretic hormone - hypothalamus and post pituitary causes vasoconstriction and increased BP

239
Q

ANP (hormone)

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide - atria of heart causes vasodilation and lowers BP

240
Q

Venipuncture

A

taking blood from veins

241
Q

Types of bones

A

long, short, flatg and irregular

242
Q

Long bones

A 
greater length than width.
consist of a shaft and a variable number of ends.
not solid as this would be too heavy
cavity contains bone marrow
curved for strength
243
Q

Examples of long bones

A

thigh (femur), leg (tibia and fibula), arm (humerus), forearm (ulna and radius), and fingers and toes (phalanges)

244
Q

Short bones

A

cube shaped and nearly equal in length and width.

245
Q

Examples

A

most wrist and ankle bones

246
Q

Flat bones

A

generally thin, afford considerable protection and provide extensive surfaces for muscle attachment

247
Q

Examples of flat bones

A

cranial bone (protect brain), sternum (breast bone), and ribs, which protect organs in the thorax and the scapulae (shoulder blades)

248
Q

Irregular bones

A

have complex shapes and cannot be grouped into any other categories. often develop in foetus as two or more bones which then fuse together

249
Q

Examples of irregular bones

A

vertebrae and some facial bones.

250
Q

Partial fracture

A

an incomplete break across the bone, such as a crack

251
Q

Complete fracture

A

a complete break across the bone - broken into 2 or more pieces

252
Q

Closed (simple) fracture

A

fractured bone doesn’t break through skin

253
Q

Open (compound) fracture

A

broken ends of bone protrude through skin

254
Q

Epiphysis

A

growth plate - allows bone to elongate. They close off to prevent further elongation

255
Q

Repair of fracture

A

1) phagocytes begin to remove any dead bone tissue
2) chondroblasts form fibrocartilage at the fractures site the bridges the broken ends of the bone
3) fibrocartilage is converted to spongy bone tissue by osteoblasts
4) bone remodeling occurs, in which dead portions of bone are absorbed by osteoclasts and spongy bone is converted to compact bone

256
Q

Exercise and bone tissue

A

When placed under stress, bone tissue becomes stronger through increased deposition of mineral salts and production of collagen fibers. Without mechanical stress, bone doesn’t remodel normally because resorption outpaces bone formation. Absence of mechanical stress weakens bone through decreased numbers of collagen fibers and demineralisation, loss of bone minerals

257
Q

Histology of bone

A

osteoprogenitor cell develops into osteoblast, osteoblast forms bone extracellular matrix, osteocyte maintains bone tissue

258
Q

Intramembraneous ossification

A

Flat bones

1) Mesenchymal cells in embryonic connective tissue develop into osteoblasts.
2) development of ossification centres: osteoblasts secrets organic extracellular matrix
3) calcification: calcium and other mineral salts are deposited and extracellular matrix calcifies
4) formation of trabeculae: extracellular matrix develops into trabeculae that fuse to form spongy bone
5) development of periosteum: mesenchyme at periphery of bone develops into periosteum

259
Q

Endochondral ossification

A

1) development of cartilage model: mesenchymal cells develop into chondroblasts which form cartilage model
2) growth of cartilage model: growth occurs by cell division of chondrocytes
3) development of primary ossification center: in this region of diaphysis, bone tissue has replaced most cartilage
4) development of medullary cavity: bone breakdown by osteoclasts forms medullary cavity
5) development of secondary ossification centres: these occur in epiphyses of bone
6) formation of articular cartilage and epiphyseal plate: both structures consist of hyaline cartilage

260
Q

What is stability related to?

A

shape of articular surfaces, ligaments and tone of surrounding muscles

261
Q

Joint

A

point of contact between bones, between cartilage and bones, or between teeth and bone

262
Q

Another name for joint

A

articulation

263
Q

Arthrology

A

scientific study of joints

264
Q

Kinesiology

A

study of motion of the human body

265
Q

Criteria for structural classification of joints

A

1) Presence of absence of synovial cavity

2) Type of connective tissue that holds bones together

266
Q

Classification of fibrous joints

A

no synovial cavity and bones are held together by dense irregular connective tissue

267
Q

Classification of cartilaginous joints

A

no synovial cavity and held together by cartilage

268
Q

Classification of synovial joints

A

synovial cavity and united by dense irregular tissue of an articular capsule, and often by ligaments

269
Q

Synarthrosis

A

immovable joint

270
Q

Amphiarthrosis

A

slightly movable joint

271
Q

Diarthrosis

A

freely movable joint

272
Q

Fibrous joints

A

permit little or no movement
Three types:
1) syndesmoses - permits limited movement (distal tibia and fibula) and gomphosis (dentoalveolar joint)
2) suture - slightly movable or immovable (found between skull bones)
3) interosseous membrane - permit slight movement (between radius and ulna and tibia and fibula)

273
Q

Cartilaginous joints

A

allows little or no movement
Two types:
1) synchondrosis - immovable joint (epiphyseal plate)
2) symphysis - slightly movable joint (pubic symphysisand intervertebral joints)

274
Q

Synovial joints

A

allows free movement of joint
synovial membrane secretes synovial fluid, which forms a thin, viscous film over the surfaces within the articicular capsule

275
Q

Bursae

A

sac like structures, similar in structure to joint capsules, that reduce friction in joints such as the shoulder and knee joints

276
Q

Synovial cavity

A

space between articulating bones

277
Q

Gliding

A

movement at synovial joints

nearly flat surfaces of bones move back and forth and side to side

278
Q

Angular movement

A

at joints

increase or decrease in angles between bones

279
Q

Rotation movement

A

at joints

bone moves around its own longitudinal axis

280
Q

Special movements

A

only at certain points in body

281
Q

6 types of synovial joints

A

plane, hinge, pivot, condyloid, saddle, and ball and socket

282
Q

Plane synovial joint

A

articulating surfaces are flat
bones glide
may also permit rotation
e.g. between carpals and between tarsals

283
Q

Hinge synovial joint

A

convex surface of one bone fits into concave surface of another
motion is angular around one axis
e.g. elbow, knee and ankle joints

284
Q

Pivot synovial joint

A

round or pointed surface of one bone fits into a ring formed by another bone and a ligament
movement is rotational (uniaxial)
e.g. atlantoaxial and radioulnar joints

285
Q

Condyloid synovial joint

A

oval projection of one bone fitsinto oval cavity of another
motion is angular biaxial
e.g. wrist joint

286
Q

Saddle synovial joint

A

articular surface of one bone is shaped like a saddle and the other bone fits into the saddle
motion is angular biaxial

287
Q

Ball and socket synovial joint

A

ball shaped surface of one bone fits into cuplike depression of another
motion is triaxial
e.g. shoulder and hip joints

288
Q

Knee joint

A

largest, most complex joint in body

contains articular capsule, several ligaments within and around outside of joint, menisci and bursae

289
Q

Arthroplasty

A

surgical replacement of damaged natural joints with superficial ones

290
Q

Myology

A

scientific study of muscles

291
Q

Three types of muscular tissue

A

skeletal, smooth and cardiac

292
Q

Skeletal muscle basic info

A

mostly attached to bones, striated and voluntary

293
Q

Cardiac muscle basic info

A

forms most of heart wall - striated and involuntary

294
Q

Smooth muscle basic info

A

located in viscera - non striated and involuntary

295
Q

Striated

A

ability of light to get through - creates lines

296
Q

Tendons

A

extensions of connective tissue beyond muscle fibers that attach the muscle to the bone

297
Q

Histology of skeletal muscle tissue

A

muscle fibers covered by plasma membrane called sarcolemma.

transverse tubules tunnel in from surface towards centre of each muscle fiber.

298
Q

What do skeletal muscle fibers contain?

A

sarcoplasm, multiple nuclei, many mitochondria, myoglobin, and sarcoplasm reticulum
also contain myofibrils that contain thick and thin filaments

299
Q

How are thick and thin filaments arranged?

A

arranged in functional units called sarcomeres.

300
Q

What do thick filaments consist of?

A

myosin

301
Q

What are thin filaments composed of?

A

actin, tropomyosin and troponin

302
Q

How are sarcomeres separated from each other?

A

by zigzagging zones of dense protein material called Z discs

303
Q

Within sarcomeres

A

a darker area called the A band extends the entire length of thick filaments. At centre of A band is a narrow H zone which contains only the thick filaments. At both ends, thin and thick filaments overlap. A lighter coloured area on either side of A band is the I band which only contains the rest of the thin filaments

304
Q

Sliding

A

filament mechanism - sliding of filaments and shortening of sarcomeres that cause the shortening of muscle fibers

305
Q

Contraction cycle

A

1) splitting ATP - myosin ATPase splits ATP and becomes energised
2) forming cross bridges - myosin head attaches to actin, forming a cross bridge
3) Power stroke - cross bridg generates force as it swivels or rotates towards centre of sarcomere
4) binding ATP and detachment - myosin detaches from actin. Cycle repeats

306
Q

Summary of contraction and relaxation

A

1) nerve impulse arrives at axon terminal of motor neuron, triggers release of ACh
2) ACh diffuses across synaptic cleft, binds to its receptors in motor end plate and triggers muscle action potential
3) Acetyl Cholesterase in synaptic cleft destroys ACh so another action potential does not arise unless more ACh release
4) Muscle AP opens Ca2+ release channels in SR membrane, which allows calcium ions into sarcoplasm
5) Ca2+ binds to troponin, exposing binding sites for myosin
6) Contraction cycle
7) Ca2+ release channels close and Ca2+ active transport pumps use ATP to restore low level of Ca2+ in sarcoplasm
8) Troponin-tropomyosin complex slides back into position where it blocks the myosin binding sites on actin
9) Muscle relaxes

307
Q

Exercise and skeletal muscle tissue

A

Relative ratio of FG and SO fibers in each muscle is genetically determined and helps account for individual differences in physical performances.

308
Q

What are people with a higher proportion of FG fibers good at?

A

intense activities e.g. strength training

309
Q

What are people with a higher proportion of SO fibers good at?

A

activities which require endurance

310
Q

What produces an increase in size and strength of FG fibers?

A

Exercises that require great strength for short periods due to increased synthesis of thick and thin filaments

311
Q

Cardiac muscle tissue

A

each cardiac muscle fiber contains a single centrally located nucleus and exhibits branching.
muscle fibers connected by intercalated discs which hold muscle fibers together and allow muscle action potentials to quickly spread from one MF to another

312
Q

How does Cardiac muscle tissue contract?

A

contracts when stimulated by its own autorhythmic fibers. Due to its autorhythmicity, cardiac muscle depends greatly on aerobic cellular respirate to generate ATP

313
Q

What does smooth muscle tissue contain?

A

contain thick and thin filaments, intermediate filaments and dense bodies

314
Q

Visceral smooth muscle tissue

A

found in walls of hollow viscera and of small blood vessels. Many visceral fibers form a network that contracts in unison

315
Q

Multiunit smooth muscle tissue

A

found in large blood vessels, large airways to the lungs, arrector pili muscles and the eye. The fibers contract independently

316
Q

Smooth muscle tone

A

state of continuous partial contraction of smooth muscle tissue

317
Q

Stretching of smooth muscle fibers

A

can be stretched considerably and still retain the ability to contract. they contract in response to nerve impulses, stretching, hormones and local factors

318
Q

How do skeletal muscles produce movement?

A

skeletal muscles pull on tendons, which pull on the bones.
attachment to stationary bone is the origin
attachment to movable bone is insertion
agonist produces desired movement - antagonist produces opposite movement. synergist assists prime mover by reducing unnecessary movement. fixator stabilises origin of prime mover so it can act more efficiently

319
Q

What attaches muscle to bone?

A

Tendons

320
Q

Calcium homeostasis is controlled by…

A

parathyroid hormone

321
Q

Coxal joint

A

ball and socket joint between bones of pelvis and femur

322
Q

Disease associated with lack of Vitamin D?

A

Rickets

323
Q

Deltoid

A

muscle in upper arm

324
Q

Larnellar granules

A

release lipids which inhibit evaporation of water from skin surface

325
Q

Components of epidermis

A

composed of keratinized, stratified squamous epithelium which contains 4 types of cells:
keratinocytes - 90% of epidermal cells, produce keratin
melanocytes - 8% of cells, produce melanin
Intraepidermal macrophages - participate in immune responses
Tactile epithelial cells - detect touch sensations

326
Q

Keratinization

A

newly formed cells in stratum basale are slowly pushed to surface. As cells move from one layer to the next, they accumulate more and more keratin. Eventually the keratinized cells slough off and are replaced by underlying cells

327
Q

4 layers of epidermis

A

stratum basale - deepest layer
stratum spinosum - provides strength and flexibility
stratum granulosum - keratinocytes undergo apoptosis here
stratum corneum - most superficial layer

328
Q

5th layer of epidermis

A

only in palms and soles

stratum licidium - below corneum when present

329
Q

Dermis components

A

superficial part consists of areolar connective tissue containing fine elastic fibers. Its surface area is greatly increased by small fingerlike projections called dermal papillae, touch receptors and free nerve endings

330
Q

Hair

A

thread of fused, dead, keratinized epidermal cells that consist of a shaft, a root and a follicle.

331
Q

Associated with hairs

A

bundles of smooth muscle called arrector pili and sebaceous glands, which are usually connected to hair follicles.

332
Q

Sebaceous glands produce..

A

sebum which moistens hair and waterproofs the skin

333
Q

Grey hair

A

due to a decline in melanin

334
Q

White hair

A

due to an accumulation of air bubbles in hair shaft

335
Q

Sudoriferous glands

A

sweat glands (apocrine and eccrine)

336
Q

Nail components

A

nail body, free edge, nail root, lunula, cuticle and nail matrix

337
Q

role of secretin

A

a hormone that regulates water homeostasis throughout the body and influences the environment of the duodenum by regulating secretions in the stomach, pancreas, and liver.

338
Q

Respiratory acidosis

A

a medical emergency in which decreased ventilation increases the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood and decreases the blood’s pH

339
Q

Respiratory alkalosis

A

a medical condition in which increased respiration elevates the blood pH beyond the normal range (7.35–7.45) with a reduction in arterial levels of carbon dioxide.

340
Q

Hypoventilation

A

decreased ventilation

341
Q

Hyperventilation

A

increased ventilation

342
Q

Tachycardia

A

an abnormally rapid heart rate.

343
Q

Bradycardia

A

abnormally slow heart action.

344
Q

Sinus rhythm

A

a normal heart beat, both with respect to the heart rate and rhythm.

345
Q

Thrombus

A

a clot of blood formed within a blood vessel and remaining attached to its place of origin.

346
Q

Peripheral resistance

A

the resistance of the arteries to blood flow. As the arteries constrict, the resistance increases and as they dilate, resistance decreases.

347
Q

Effect of ageing of skeletal system

A

From about age 30, the density of bones begins to diminish in men and women. This loss of bone density accelerates in women after menopause. As a result, bones become more fragile and are more likely to break (see Osteoporosis), especially in old age.

348
Q

Reasons for muscle fatigue

A

impaired blood flow, ion imbalance within the muscle, nervous fatigue, loss of desire to continue, and most importantly, the accumulation of lactic acid in the muscle.

349
Q

Effect of sunlight on skin

A

exposure to sunlight causes the skin to produce more melanin and to darken. The tan fades as these cells move toward the surface and are sloughed off.

350
Q

Epidermal growth factor (EGF)

A

stimulates cell growth, proliferation, and survival.

351
Q

How does the endocrine system transport hormones around the body?

A

Releases hormones into interstitial fluid and then into bloodstream

352
Q

How do exocrine glands transport secretions?

A

Secrete products into ducts that carry them into body cavities, lumen or organs or the outer surface of the body.

353
Q

Functions of hormones

A

Regulation, control growth and development, regulate operation of reproductive system and help establish circadian rhythms

354
Q

Proper name for anterior pituitary

A

Adenohypophysis

355
Q

Proper name for posterior pituitary

A

Neurohypophysis

356
Q

Name for middle section of pituitary

A

Pars intermedia

357
Q

Hormone action

A

affects only specific target cells that have specific protein receptors to bind to a given hormone

358
Q

Which hormones are lipid soluble?

A

steroids, thyroid, nitric oxide

359
Q

Which hormones are water soluble?

A

modified amino acids, peptides and proteins

360
Q

How do lipid soluble hormones alter cell function?

A
  1. Hormone diffuses into cell
  2. Hormone attaches to receptor to form receptor-hormone complex which alters gene expression
  3. Newly formed mRNA directs synthesis of specific proteins or ribosomes
  4. New protein alters cell activity
361
Q

How do water soluble hormones alter cell function?

A
  1. Hormone binds to receptor
  2. ATP converted to cAMP
  3. cAMP serves as second messenger to activate certain proteins
  4. activated proteins cause reactions that produce physiological responses
  5. cAMP is inactivated
362
Q

Stress response flow chart

A

Stimulus - Hypothalamus in limbic region - Sympathetic tracts - Adrenal Medulla - Adrenalin - Bloodstream - All tissues (Adenoceptors) - Activity (Increased heart and respiratory rate, diaphoresis)

363
Q

Term for sweating

A

Diaphoresis

364
Q

Term for adrenaline

A

Epinephrine

365
Q

Exhaustion after stress response

A

results from depletion of body resources during resistance phase.

366
Q

Effect of prolonged exposure to cortisol in resistance reaction

A

causes wasting of muscles and suppression of immune system

367
Q

Hormones produced by anterior pituitary

A

hGH, PRL, ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, MSH

368
Q

Hormones produced by posterior pituitary

A

Oxytocin and ADH

369
Q

hGH

A

Human Growth Hormone - stimulates body growth

370
Q

PRL

A

Prolactin - initiates and maintains milk production by mammary glands

371
Q

ACTH

A

Adrenicorticotropic hormone - regulates activities of adrenal cortex

372
Q

TSH

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone - regulates thyroid gland activities

373
Q

FSH and LH

A

Follicle stimulating hormone and Luteinizing hormone - regulates activities of gonads

374
Q

MSH

A

Melanocyte stimulating hormone - causes darkening of skin

375
Q

Oxytocin

A

stimulates contraction of uterus and ejection of milk from breasts - stimulated by uterine stretching and suckling during nursing

376
Q

ADH

A

Antidiuretic hormone - stimulates water reabsorption by kidneys and constriction of arterioles - controlled by osmotic pressure of blood and blood volume

377
Q

Thyroid structure

A

butterfly shaped, located just below larynx. Composed of right and left lobes, one on each side of trachea.

378
Q

What do thyroid lobes release?

A

thyroid hormones T3 and T4, and parafollicular cells

379
Q

T3

A

triiodothyronine

380
Q

T4

A

thyroxine or tetraiodothyronine

381
Q

What do parafollicular cells do?

A

secrete calcitonin which can lower levels of calcium in blood

382
Q

What do thyroid hormones do?

A

regulate oxygen use, metabolic rate and cellular metabolism

383
Q

Flow diagram for regulation of secretion of thyroid hormones

A

Hypothalamus secrets releasing factor - Anterior pituitary releases TSH - Thyroid releases T3 and T4

384
Q

Parathyroid glands

A

located of posterior surface of thyroid.

385
Q

Parathyroid hormone

A

regulates homeostasis of electrolytes

386
Q

Flow diagram for blood levels of calcium

A

Stimulus increases blood Ca2+ levels - Thyroid stimulates parafollicular cells - release more calcitonin to inhibit osteoclasts - decreased blood Ca2+ levels

387
Q

cAMP

A

Cyclic Adenosine Monophosphate

Second messenger which helps to transfer hormones into the plasma membrane by intracellular signal transduction

388
Q

Adrenaline

A

produced in medulla of adrenal glands. Prepares body for fight or flight response. Controlled by activation of nerves connected to adrenal glands. When stress is over, nerve impulses are lowered to stop production of adrenaline

389
Q

Normal level of calcium

A

8.6-10.2 mg/dL

390
Q

Normal levels of Potassium

A

3.5-5.0 mEq/L

391
Q

Normal level of ammonia

A

15-50 umol/L

392
Q

Normal level of Chloride

A

95-105 mmol/L

393
Q

Normal level of glucose

A

65-110 mg/dL

394
Q

Normal level of Sodium

A

135-145 mmol/L

395
Q

Negative feedback system of ACTH

A

Hypothalamus releases CRH - Anterior PItuitary releases ACTH - Adrenal Cortex releases cortisol - affects blood levels of cortisol

396
Q

5 functions of skin

A 
Body temp. regulation
Protection
Cutaneous sensations
Excretion + absorption
Synthesis of Vitamin D
397
Q

3 layers of skin

A

Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous

398
Q

Epidermis composition

A

Superficial, thinner portion, composed of keritinized, stratified, squamous epithelial tissue

399
Q

Dermis composition

A

made of dense, irregular, connective tissue

400
Q

4 types of cells in epidermis

A

Keratinocytes
Melanocytes
Intraepidermal macrophages - help in immune responses
Tactile epithelial cells - detect touch

401
Q

Keratinization

A

newly formed cells in stratum basale are slowly pushed to surface. As cells move up epidermal layers, they accumulate more and more keratin. Eventually the keratinized cells slough off and are replaced by underlying cells

402
Q

4 layers of epidermis (bottom to top)

A

stratum basale
stratum spinosum
stratum granulosum
stratum corneum

403
Q

Role of stratum granulosum

A

where keratinocytes undergo apoptosis

404
Q

Role of stratum spinosum

A

provide strength

405
Q

Layer of epidermis in palms and soles

A

stratum lucidum - below corneum when present

406
Q

How is surface area of dermis increased?

A

by small fingerlike projections called dermal papillae, touch receptors and nerve endings

407
Q

Accessory structures of integumentary system

A

Hair, sweat glands, nails

408
Q

Hair

A

thread of fused, dead, keratinized epidermal cells that consist of a shaft, root and follicle

409
Q

Associated with hairs

A

bundles of smooth muscles called arrector pili and sebaceous glands.

410
Q

What do sebaceous glands produce?

A

cebum which moistens hair and waterproofs the skin

411
Q

Reason for grey hair

A

decline in melanin

412
Q

Reason for white hair

A

accumulation of air bubbles in the hair shaft

413
Q

Nail components

A

nail body, free edge, nail root, lumula, cuticle and nail matrix

414
Q

Nociceptors

A

pain receptors. Naked nerve endings so top can be sliced off.

415
Q

Two stages macrophages take part in

A

Chemotaxis and Phagocytosis

416
Q

Chemotaxis

A

recognising chemicals

417
Q

3 pigments in skin colour

A

melanin, carotene and hemoglobin

418
Q

Insensitive manor

A

cannot calculate (e.g loss of water through sweat)

419
Q

Role of Vitamin D

A

regulates calcium and phosphate in body, which keep teeth and bones healthy

420
Q

Manufacture of Vitamin D

A

Produced in skin when exposed to sunlight, which breaks the B ring to form pre D3 which then isomerises to form D3. The liver and other tissues metabolise this to 250HD, which is then synthesised to 1,25(OH)2D in the kidney.

421
Q

250HD

A

principal circulating hormonal form of Vitamin D

422
Q

1,25(OH)2D

A

main form of Vitamin D which performs functions

Biosciences 1 (10 decks)

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