Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology > systems > Flashcards

systems Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

bugs that cause bloody diarrhea (7)

A
  1. campylobacter (c. jejuni)
  2. EHEC
  3. EIEC
  4. Salmonella
  5. Shigella
  6. yersinia enterocolitica
  7. entaemoeba histolytica (protozoa)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

bugs that cause watery diarrhea (6)

A
  1. c difficile
  2. c perfringens
  3. ETEC - traveler’s diarrhea
  4. vibrio cholera
  5. viruses (rotavirus, norovirus)
  6. protozoa (giardia, cryptosporidium)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

comma- or S-shaped organism
grows at 42 degrees
causes blood diarrhea

A

campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

protozoan
amebig dysentry
liver abscess
bloody diarrhea

A

entaemoeba histolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

can cause HUS
makes shiga-like oxin
bloody diarrhea

A

EHEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

invades colonic mucosa

bloody diarrhea

A

EIEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

lactose negative
flagella
animal reservoir
bloody diarrhea

A

salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

lactose negative
Shiga toxin
bloody diarrhea

A

Shigaella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

day-care outbreaks
pseudoappendicitis
bloody diarrhea

A

yersinia enterocolitica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

pseudomembranous colitis

watery diarrhea, sometimes bloody diarrhea

A

c. diffficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

gas gangrene

watery diarrhea

A

c. perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

traveler’s diarrhea
heat labile and heat stable toxin
watery diarrhea

A

ETEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

comma-shaped
rice-water diarrhea
infected seafood
watery diarrhea

A

vibrio cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PNA bugs in neonates

2

A
  1. GBS

2. E coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PNA in children (4wk - 18yr) (5)

A
  1. RSV
  2. mycoplasma
  3. chlamydia trachomatis
  4. chlamydia pneumoniae
  5. strep pneumoniae

Runts May Cough Chunky Sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PNA in young adults (3)

A
  1. Mycoplasma
  2. Chlamydia pneumoniae
  3. strep pneumo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PNA in older adults (5)

A
  1. strep pneumo
  2. h flu
  3. anaerobes
  4. viruses
  5. mycoplasma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

PNA in elderly (5)

A
  1. strep pnuemo
  2. influenza virus
  3. anaerobes
  4. h flu
  5. GN rods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

PNA in alcoholics and IVDU’s (3)

A
  1. strep pneumo
  2. klebsiella
  3. staph
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PNA in aspiration (1)

A

anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

atypical PNA (3)

A
  1. mycoplasma
  2. legionalla
  3. chlamydia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CF PNA (3)

A

pseudomonas, staph, strep pnemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

PNA in immunocompromised (5)

A
  1. staph
  2. enteric GN rods
  3. fungi
  4. viruses
  5. pneumocystis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

nosocomial PNA (3)

A
  1. staph
  2. pseudomonas
  3. enteric GN rods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

postviral PNA (3)

A
  1. staph
  2. h flu
  3. strep pneumo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Newborn meningitis bugs (3)

A
  1. GBS
  2. E coli
  3. Listeria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

childhood meningitis bugs (4)

A
  1. strep pneumo
  2. meningococcus
  3. h flu B
  4. enterovirus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

adult meningitis bugs (4)

A
  1. strep pnuemo
  2. meningococcus
  3. enterovirus
  4. HSV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

elderly meningitis bugs (3)

A
  1. strep pneumo
  2. GN rods
  3. listeria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

treating meningitis

A

`ctx and vanc + amp if listeria suspected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CSF of fungal meningitis

  • opening pressure
  • cell type
  • protein
  • sugar
A
  • elevated pressure
  • lots of lymphocytes
  • lots of protein
  • less sugar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

CSF of TB meningitis

  • opening pressure
  • cell type
  • protein
  • sugar
A
  • elevated pressure
  • lots of lymphocytes
  • lots of protein
  • less sugar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

CSF of bacterial meningitis

  • opening pressure
  • cell type
  • protein
  • sugar
A
  • elevated pressure
  • lots of PMNs
  • lots of protein
  • less sugar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

CSF of viral meningitis

  • opening pressure
  • cell type
  • protein
  • sugar
A
  • normal to increased pressure
  • lots of lymphocytes
  • normal to elevated protein
  • normal sugar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

most common osteomyelitis

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

osteomyelitis in sexually active

A

septic arthritis

or

neisseria gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

osteomyelitis in DM and IVDU (2)

A
  1. pseudomonas

2. serratia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

osteomyelitis in sickle cell (1)

A

salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

osteomyelitis in prosthetic joint replacement (2)

A
  1. staph aureus

2. staph epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

osteomyelitis w/vertebral involvement (1)

A

Pott disease *( mycobacterium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

osteomyelitis with cat and dog bites (1)

A

pasteurella multicodia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

UTI lab markers: leukocyte esterase indicates what

A

bacterial UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

UTI lab markers: nitrite test + indicates what

A

GN bacterial UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

top three UTI bugs

A
  1. E coli
  2. staph saprophyticus
  3. klebsiella pneumoniae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

which UTI bug causes struvite stones and why

A

Proteus mirabilis b/c it has urease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

which UTI bug causes blug-green pigment and fruity odor

A

pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

three common vaginal infections

A
  1. bacterial vaginosis
  2. trichomoniasis
  3. candida vulvovaginitis
48
Q

signs and symptoms of bacterial vaginosis (3)

A

no inflammation
thin, white discharge
fishy odor

49
Q

signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis (2)

A

inflammation

frothy,green-grey foul-smelling discharge

50
Q

signs and symptoms of candida vulvovaginitis (2)

A

inflammation

thick, white cottage cheese discharge

51
Q

lab findings of bacterial vaginosis

A

clue cells

pH > 4.5

52
Q

lab findings of trichomoniasis

A

motile trichomonads

pH > 4.5

53
Q

lab findings of candida vulvovaginitis

A 
pseudohyphae
pH normal (4.0-4.5)
54
Q

treatment for bacterial vaginosis

A

metronidazole

55
Q

treatment for trichomoniasis

A

metro for both pt and partner

56
Q

treatment for candida vulvovaginitis

A

-azoles

57
Q

TORCHHeS infections

A
  1. toxo
  2. rubella
  3. CMV
  4. HIV
  5. HSV-2
  6. Syphilis
58
Q

what infection can cause hydrops fetalis?

A

parvovirus B19

59
Q

what does neonatal toxo infection look like?

- triad

A
  1. chorioretinitis
  2. hydrocephalus
  3. intracranial calcifications
60
Q

what does neonatal rubella infection look like

  • triad
  • and look
A
  1. PDA
  2. cataracts
  3. deafness

blueberry muffin rash

61
Q

what does neonatal CMV infection look like

- 4)

A
  1. hearing loss
  2. seizures
  3. petechial rash
  4. blueberry muffin rash
62
Q

what does neonatal HIV infection look like? (2)

A
  1. recurrent infections

2. chronic diarrhea

63
Q

what does neonatal HSV-2 look like (2)

A
  1. encephalitis

2. herpectic (vesicular lesions)

64
Q

what does neonatal syphilis look like if baby survives? 5)

A
  1. notched teeth
  2. saddle nose
  3. short maxilla
  4. saber sinus
  5. CN VIII deafness
65
Q

Red rashes of childhood (7)

A
  1. Coxsackie A
  2. HHV-6 (roseola)
  3. Measles virus (paramyxo)
  4. Parvovirus B19
  5. rubella virus (togavirus) - German measles
  6. Strep pyogenes
  7. VZV
66
Q

Hand foot mouth disease by what bug

A

coxsackievirus A

67
Q

Coxsackie A rash presentation

A

palms and soles: vesicular rash

oral mucosa: vesicles ulcers

68
Q

HHV-6

  • what syndrome
  • presentation
A

Roseola

all over body: macular rash after several days of fever

69
Q

Measles virus

  • what kind of virus
  • what is Measles also called
  • presentation
A

Paramyxovirus
Rubeola

First CCCK: cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, koplik …
then
Head –> moves down: rash

70
Q

parvovirus b19

  • what syndrome does it cause
  • presetnation
  • what can it cause if in pregnant woman
A
  • erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)

“slapped cheek” rash on face

hydrops fetalis

71
Q

rubella virus

  • what syndrome
  • presentation
A

rubella

head –> down: rash
trunk: fine rash

postauricular LAD

72
Q

strep pyogenes

  • what syndrome does it cause
  • presentation
A

Scarlet fever

  • sand-paper rash
  • fever and sore throat
73
Q

VZV

  • what syndrome
  • presentation
A

chicken pox

trunk –> face and extremities: vesicular rash

74
Q

rocky mountain spotted fever

  • what bug
  • presentation
A
  • rickettsia rickettsii

- wrists and ankles –> trunk palms and soles

75
Q

typhus

  • what bug
  • presentation
A
  • rickettsia typhi (fleas)

- rash from inside out; spares palms and soles

76
Q

chancroid

  • what is it
  • what causes it
A
  • painful genital ulcer with inguinal adenopathy

- haemophilus ducreyi (do cry b/c it’s painful)

77
Q

condylomata

- what causes it

A

HPV 6 and 11

78
Q

lymphogranuloma venereum

  • what is it
  • what causes it
A

infection of lymphatics
painless genital ulcers
painful LAD called buboes

  • chlamydria trachomatis (L1-L3)
79
Q

chlamydia or gonorrhea more common?

A

chlamydia

80
Q

RF for nosocomial candida albicans (1)

A

hyperalimentation

81
Q

RF for nosocomial CMV or RSV

A

newborn nursey

82
Q

RF for nocosomial proteus or e coli infection

A

urinary cath

83
Q

German measles vs. measles

  • what infection
  • rash progression
  • other presentation
A
  • rubella vs. paramyxo
  • both head down
  • Germans have LAD vs. regular has CCCK
84
Q

Respiratory infections in un-immunized children

A

epiglottis 2/2 h flu

pharyngitis 2/2 corynebacterium diphtheria

85
Q

Asplenic risk for what organisms (3)

A

SHiN

  1. Strep pneumo
  2. h flu
  3. neisseria
86
Q

Branching rods in oral infection with sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces

87
Q

chronic granulomatous disease

A

catalase + organisms

cats go PLACESS

  1. pseudomonas
  2. listeria
  3. aspergiolosis
  4. candida
  5. e coli
  6. staph aureus
  7. salmonella
88
Q

currant jelly sputum

A

klebsiella

89
Q

dog or cat bite

A

pasteurella multocida

90
Q

facial nerve palsy

A

borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme)

91
Q

fungal infection in diabetic or immunocomp

A

Mucor

or

Rhizopus spp

92
Q

neutropenic pts

A

candida albicans or aspergillus

93
Q

organ transplant pt what bug

A

CMV

94
Q

PAS + bug

A

tropheryma whipplei (whipple disease)

95
Q

PNA in burn pts

A

pseudomonas

96
Q

pus, empyema, abscess

A

staph aureus

97
Q

rash on hands and feet

A

coxsackie A, treponema pallidum, rickettsia rickettsii

98
Q

surgical wound infection

A

staph aureus

99
Q

traumatic open wound infection

A

c perfringens `

100
Q

how does c perfringens cause damage

A

Phospholipase toxin that attacks cell MB and causes death -

- extensive tissue damage, necrosis

101
Q

Erythema infectiosum caused by what

A

parvovirus B19

102
Q

presentation of erythema infectiosum (2)

A

malar rash with “slapped cheek”

lacelike rash on trunk and extremities

103
Q

complications of erythema infectiosum (2)

A
  1. aplastic crisis in sickle cell

2. aplastic crisis in immunocompromised

104
Q

what does Rubella virus cause

A

German measles aka Rubella

105
Q

presentation of rubella

A
  1. maculopapular rash: head to trunk and extremities

2. occipital and postauricular LAD

106
Q

imp[ortant complications of rubella

A

congenital rubella syndrome (blueberry muffin)

107
Q

Measles is caused by what

A

Rubeola aka measles virus

108
Q

presentation of measles (2)

A
  1. maculopapular rash: head to trunk and extremities

2. rash preceded by CCCK: cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, Koplik spots

109
Q

complications of measles (2)

A
  1. bronchopneumonia

2. encephalitis

110
Q

roseola is caused by what

A

HHV6

111
Q

presentation of rosela (2)

A
  1. high fever 3-5d THEN rash

2. macules and papules: trunk to extremities

112
Q

which of the pediatric erythemas are self-limited?

A

roseola

113
Q

scarlet fever is caused by what

A

strep pyogenes

114
Q

presentaion of scarlet fever (2)

A
  1. sandpaper-like rash: neck, armpits, groin, then
    generalize
  2. a/w fever and sore throat
115
Q

complications of scarlet fever (2)

A
  1. rheumatic fever

2. glomerulonephritis

116
Q

Hand foot and mouth disease caused by what

A

Coxsackievirus A

117
Q

presentation of hand foot mouth disease (3)

A
  1. fever
  2. ulcers on tongue and oral mucosa
  3. maculopapular rash on palms and soles

Microbiology (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions