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Systems 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct?
A

a) APU may not be started at an altitude exceeding 30,000 ft

b) Flaps may not be extended at an altitude exceeding 20,000 ft.

c) The maximum allowable crosswind for an autolanding is 2Okts.

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2
Q
  1. What is the maximum EGT timing engine start
A

a) 570 deg C

b) 750degC

c) 650 degC

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3
Q
  1. What is the source of the filtered air for recirculation fans?
A

a) Air discharged from the passenger cabin.

b) Air discharged from the aft cargo compartment.
c) Outside air.

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4
Q
  1. During automatic compartment temperature control, which zone controls the output
    of air conditioning packs ?
A

a) Zone requiring the coolest air.

b) Zone requiring the warmest air.
c) Zone requiring the moderate air.

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5
Q
  1. The airplane is climbing at 14,000 ft, and cabin pressurization is automatically
    controlled. What is the cabin rate of climb based on?
A

a) Rate based on the cabin altitude AUTO RATE control.

b) Bate based on the indicated airspeed.
c) Rate based on the transition altitude.

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6
Q
  1. What altitude should be set on the LDG ALT indicator during cockpit preparation?
A

a) 200 ft above the departure airport elevation.

b) Destination airport elevation.

c) Cabin altitude determined from a chart.

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7
Q
  1. What condition illuminates the equipment cooling VALVE light ?
A

a) No airflow in the equipment cooling system.

b) Equipment cooling valves incorrectly positioned.

a) Overhaul in the equipment cooling system.

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8
Q
  1. During automatic pack operation, the pack INOP light comes on because of high pack outlet
    temperature. What happens in the pack control system ?
A

a) The pack is shutdown.
* *b) The pack continues to operate in a maximum cooling mode.**
c) The pack continues to operate in a maximum warming mode

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9
Q
  1. In order to arm the T0 mode with all AFDS modes off during preflight,
A

a) The takeoff mode switch for ADFS must be pressed.
* *b) At least one flight director switch must be turned on.**
c) At least one autopilot must be engaged.

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10
Q
  1. What occurs when the autothrottle arm switch is turned off ?
A
  • *a) Power is removed from the autothrottle servo system.**
    b) Autothrottle can be engaged in a certain mode.
    a) Autothrottle can be engaged in any mode.
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11
Q
  1. Which mode(s) will be affected by the bank limit selector?
A

a) All roll modes.
* *b) Only HDG SEL mode.**
c) Only LOC and APP modes.

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12
Q
  1. When are the localizer and glideslope deviation scales displayed ?
A
  • *a) When an ILS frequency is tuned.**
    b) When dashes (—) are selected on the ILS frequency indicator.
    c) When the ILS circuit breaker is reset.
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13
Q
  1. For which of the following are the flare and rollout modes available ?
A

a) Single autopilot operation.
* *b) Multiple autopilot operation.**
c) Flight director only operation.

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14
Q
  1. During an ILS approach under a cross-wind condition, at what radio altitude do the
    autopilots enter the runway alignment mode ?
A

a) Approx. 50 ft.
b) Approx. 1,000 ft.
* *c) Approx. 500 ft.**

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15
Q
  1. At which of the following is the go-around (GA) mode armed for AFDS and autothrottle
    system ?
A
  • *a) At glideslope capture.**
    b) At localizer capture.
    c) At 50 a radio altitude.
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16
Q
  1. Up to what altitude is the APU bleed air available ?
A

a) Ground use only.
b) Approx. 10,000 ft.

c) Approx. 17,000 ft.

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17
Q
  1. A PA microphone selector switch has to be pushed for a PA announcement while using
    a handset.
A

a) True

b) False

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18
Q
  1. What causes the standby power bus off light to come on?
A

a) Battery charger failure.
b) Loss of left main power to standby buses.

c) Loss of standby AC or DC power.

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19
Q
  1. While the external power is powering the right main AC bus, the APU generator can power
    the left main AC bus.
A

a) True
* *b) False**

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20
Q
  1. The left engine is shutdown in flight. What systems or components will be lost ?
A

a) Left utility bus.
b) Both utility buses.

c) Both utility buses, a center tank fuel pump and some cabin ceiling lights.

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21
Q
  1. What kind of fire detector is used for cargo compartment fire?
A

a) Single loop fire/overheat detector.
b) Dual-loop fire/overheat detector.

c) Dual smoke detector.

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22
Q
  1. How can you silence an engine fire bell?
A

a) It cannot be silenced.

b) By pushing either master warning/caution reset switch.

a) By positioning the affected fuel control switch to CUT OFF

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23
Q
  1. When will the fwd or aft cargo fire warning light go out?
A

a) When the affected cargo fire arm switch is pushed.

b) When the fire condition is cleared.

c) When the fire bottles are discharged.

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24
Q
  1. When are the outboard ailerons locked out ?
A

a) At low airspeeds.

b) At high airspeeds.

c) When flaps are extended

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25
Q
  1. What is indicated by the stabilizer trim light during electric trim operation ?
A

a) Stabilizer trim rate is 1/4 the normal electric trim rate.

b) Stabilizer trim rate is 1/2 the normal electric trim rate.

c). Stabilizer trim is operating normally

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26
Q
  1. What is the function of the rudder ratio system?
A

a) It reduces the travel of rudder pedals as airspeed inceases.

b) It reduces the rudder surface deflection as airspeed increases.

c) It increases the rudder surface deflection as airspeed increases.

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27
Q
  1. What is the function of the flap load relief system ?
A

a) It retracts flaps from 25 or 30 to 20 if the corresponding flap placard airspeed is exceeded.

b) It prevents flap extension above the maximum flap extension airspeed.
c) It retracts the slats and flaps from 25 or 30 to 20 if the corresponding flap placard airspeed is exceeded.

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28
Q
  1. What will occur during landing if the speedbrake lever is not in ARMED position?
A

a) Spoilers will not be automatically extended under any conditions.
b) Spoilers will be automatically extended when thrust levers are retarded to idle.

c) Spoilers will be autoatically extended when either reverse thrust is used.

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29
Q
  1. When the left AIR DATA switch is pushed, which of the following is correct?
A

a) The center ADC is the source for left air data instruments.

b) The right ADC is the source for left air data instruments.

c) The left ADC is the source for right air data instruments.

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30
Q
  1. Which of the following indicates a power loss of an ADI?
A

a) An “ADI failure” flag,
b) An “EFIS FAULT” message.

c) An ADI being blank.

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31
Q
  1. How does the primary altimeter operate ?
A

a) Pneumatically from the pitot static system.
b) Mechanically by receiving an altitude signal from the ADC.

c) Electrically by receiving an altitude signal from the ADC

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32
Q
  1. What light will illuminate when the IRS mode selector is moved from OFF to NAV?
A

a) ON DC momentarily, then ALIGN.

b) DC FAIL momentarily; then ALIGN.
c) FAULT momentarily, then ALIGN.

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33
Q
  1. Which alternate source switch should be pushed if both ADI and HSI displays become blank?
A

a) FMC switch.

b) EFI switch

c) IRS switch

34
Q
  1. What is indicated in the total fuel quantity indicator ?
A

a) Sum of the values shown on each tank fuel quantity indicator.
b) Sum of the quantity data measured by probes in each tank.

c) Total quantity calculated by the fuel quantity processor

35
Q
  1. The fuel configuration light illuminates when center tank fuel pump switches are off with
    more than 1,200lbs off fuel in the center-tank.
A

a) True.

b) False.

36
Q
  1. What type of demand pumps are equipped in the left and right hydraulic systems?
A

a) Engine-driven pumps.
b) Air-driven pumps.

c) Electric motor-driven pumps

37
Q
  1. Which of the following will be affected by an inoperative air-driven demand pump?
A

a) Thrust reverser operation

b) Landing gear retraction.

c) Parking braked operation

38
Q
  1. Which reservoir maintains reserve hydraulic fluid for the reserve brakes and steering system?
A

a) Left reservoir

b) Center reservoir

c) Right reservoir

39
Q
  1. To what system can the RAT provide hydraulic power ?
A

a) landing gear.
b) Flaps and slate.

c) Ailerons, elevators, rudder, stabilizer and spoilers.

40
Q
  1. What is the condition of the engine anti-ice valve when the engine anti-ice switch is off
    with its VALVE light illuminating ?
A

a) The valve is commanded open but not open.

b) The valve is commanded to close but not closed.

c) The valve is commanded to open but in transit.

41
Q

41 .When does the probe heat system operate?

A

a) Automatically afier airborne.

b) Automatically anytime an engine is running.

c) When its switch is turned on with an engine running.

42
Q
  1. After takeoff, to what position does the auto brakes selector move from RTO?
A

a) Automatically to DISARM
b) It remains in RTO.

c) Automatically to OFF.

43
Q
  1. During a takeoff roll, when is the auto brake RTO mode activated?
A

a) When either reverse thrust is used above 85kts ground speed.

b) When both thrust levers are retarded to idle above 85kts ground speed.

c) When both the thrust levers are retarted to idle below 85kts ground speed.

44
Q
  1. Which of the following causes the landing configuration warnings in flight ?
A

a) Any landing gear is not down and locked, and any thrust lever is at idle with radio
altimeter below 800ft.

b) Flaps are not in the landing position, and any thrust lever is at idle with radio altitude below 800ft.
c) Any landing gear is not down and locked, and speed brakes are not armed.

45
Q
  1. What is the maximum airspeed for the alternate landing gear extension ?
A

a) 270kts /.82 M

b) 250 kts / .75 M

c) 320 kts / .82 M

46
Q

46 .Which of the following is correct concerning ILS?

A

a) The ILS frequency can be changed after localizer capture with three autopilots armed.

b) When an ILS mode is selected by the HSI mode selector and valid ILS/DME is available,
“L” shown on the DME indicator means the left ILS receiver.

c) If the lLS frequency selector is in the standby position, dashes (—-) are displayed on
the ILS frequency indicator.

47
Q
  1. Which of the following occurs when the IRS enters the NAV mode 2
A

a) The SET IRS POS line becomes blank on the CDU POS INIT page.

b) The LAST POS line becomes blank on the CDU POS INIT page.
c) The REF AIRPORT line becomes blank on the CDU POS INIT page.

48
Q
  1. What additional information is displayed on the HSI when the WPT switch (one of map
    switches) vis pushed ?
A

a) All waypoints when HSI range is 40 nm or less.

b) All VHF navigation aids when HSI range is 40nm or less.
e) ETA for each way point

49
Q
  1. What information is provided when the present heading will not intercept the active leg
    with LNAV selected?
A

a) The heading pointer on HSI flashes.
b) Some flag is displayed on the HSI.

c) Some message is displayed on the CDU scratchpad.

50
Q
  1. On what CDU page can the route be modified?
A

a) CLB, CR2 or DES page depending on the flight phase.
b) PROGRESS or RTE page.

c) RTE LEGS or RTE page.

51
Q
  1. To what speed does the ECON cruise speed (no wind) correspond when the cost index is set to 0 (zero)?
A

a) LRC (Long Range Cruise) speed.

b) MRO (Maximum Range Cruise) speed.

c) Minimum drag speed.

52
Q
  1. On what CDU page is the flight route displayed in air traffic control (ATC) format ?
A

a) RTE page.

b) PROGRESS page.
c) RTE LEGS page.

53
Q
  1. Where do the steering commands originate when LNAV is engaged ?
A

a) MCP
b) TMC

c) FMC

54
Q
  1. Why are the left and right isolation valves normally closed after engines are started ?
A

a) TO prevent a backflow of the engine bleed air to the APU.
b) To prevent a duct leak in the crossover duct.

c) To prevent a crossflow of the bleed air between the engines.

55
Q
  1. Which of the following valves isolate the left and right pneumatic system?
A

a) Left and right isolation valves.

b) Left and right isolation valves, and the associated check valves.

c) Left , center and right isolation valves, and the associated check valves.

56
Q
  1. What will occur if the EGT exceeds the red line limit?
A

a) The pointer will change to amber.
b) The pointer will flash.

c) The highest value attained will be displayed digitally.

57
Q
  1. An engine can be started when its ENG VALVE light is not illuminated with the SPAR
    VALVE light illuminated.
A

a) True

b) False

58
Q
  1. What does the STARTER CUTOUT message mean when the N2 RPM is exceeding 50%?
A

a) The start valve is open.

b) The start valve is not open.
c) The starter is cut out.

59
Q
  1. When an engine start selector is positioned to GND, the engine start VALVE light
    illuminates momentarily. What does this mean ?
A

a) The start valve is closed, and the ignition is armed.

b) The start valve is open, and the ignition is armed.

c) The start valve is open and the ignition is activated

60
Q
  1. If the engine surge occurs, what is your first action ?
A

a) Reducing the thrust.

b) Shutting down the engine.
c) Increasing the thrust.

61
Q
  1. During aborted engine start, what is the maximum recommended N2 for the starter
    re-engagement?
A

a) 20 % N2.

b) 30 % N2.
c) 40 % N2

62
Q
  1. The L ENG OIL PRESS light is illuminating, the L ENG OIL PRESS message appears,
    but its oil pressure indication on the lower EICAS display is within the normal range.
    What malfunction has occurred?
A

a) Low oil pressure.

b) A fault of the oil pressure switch.

c) High oil pressure.

63
Q
  1. Which of the following is wrong concerning the function of the FADEC normal mode ?
A

a) It sets thrust by controlling N1 based on the thrust lever position.
b) It continuously computes the maximum limit N1.

c) It continuously computes a reference N1 based on the ambient conditions.

64
Q
  1. Which of the following activates the standby engine indicator with its selector in AUTO ?
A

a) Exceeding a red line limit.
b) An EICAS display failure.

c) Loss of AC power to the EICAS displays.

65
Q
  1. In which condition must the engine start be aborted immediately ?
A

a) No oil pressure rise upon reaching 20% N2.
b) No EGT rise within 20 seconds after the fuel control switch is positioned to RUN.

c) No N1 indication within 30 seconds after N2 is stabilized at idle.

66
Q
  1. What action is required to display the next page of EICAS messages?
A

a) Pushing the NEXT PAGE switch.
b) Pushing the RECALL switch.

c) Pushing the CANCEL switch

67
Q
  1. What is indicated by the EICAS status cue?
A

a) A new status message exists.

b) The STATUS display switch is pushed.
c) Status messages are cancelled.

68
Q
  1. When are the takeoff inhibits for the master WARNING and CAUTION lights terminated ?
A

a) Upon reaching 1,000ft AGL.

b) 20 seconds after rotation.

c) When flaps are fully retracted.

69
Q
  1. What occurs if the left EICAS computer fails with the COMPUTER selector in AUTO ?
A

a) The left engine indications become blank.

b) The right computer controls both EICAS displays.

c) The upper EICAS display becomes blank.

70
Q

70: What does the GPWS “Sink Rate” aural alert mean ?

A

a) An altitude loss after takeoff.
b) An excessive terrain closure rate.

c) An excessive descent rate.

71
Q
  1. At what angle does the “Bank angle, Bank Angle” callout occur above 150 ft RA?
A

a) 40 degrees.

b) 30 degrees

.c) 45 degrees

72
Q
  1. The takeoff configuration warning will be activated when the thrust is advanced to the takeoff
    range with flaps 1 on the ground.
A

a) True

b) False

73
Q
  1. What will be reset when either master CAUTION reset switch is pushed?
A

a) Both master caution lights.

b) EICAS caution messages.
c) Both master CAUTION lights and EICAS caution messages.

74
Q
  1. When will a TCAS TA (Traffic advisory) be provided ?-
A

a) When the time to the closest point of approach is between 15 and 35 seconds.

b) When the time to the closest point of approach is between 20 and 48 seconds.

c) When the distance to the closest point of approach is between 1.5 and 3.5 nm.

75
Q
  1. When a RA ( resolution Advisory) is predicted, what does the TCAS issue?
A

a) A voice alert, vertical guidance and a RA message.
b) A voice alert, vertical guidance with an autopilot engaged, and a RA traffic symbol.

c) A voice alert, vertical guidance and a RA traffic symbol.

76
Q
  1. Pilots should promptly initiate an avoidance maneuver whenever a TA is issued.
A

a) True

b) False.

77
Q
  1. What action should be taken if a RA issued is contrary to the ATC instruction ?
A

a) Pilots should respond to the RA.

b) Pilots should respond to theATC instruction.
c) Pilots should try to achieve visual acquisition.

78
Q
  1. Above what cabin altitude will passenger oxygen masks automatically drop ?
A

a) 9,500 ft.
b) 10 000 ft

c) 14 000 ft

79
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct concerning portable fire extinguishers?
A

a) A H2O fire extinguisher can be used for any fires.

b) A halon fire extinguisher can be used for any fires.

c) A halon fire extinguisher cannot be used for oil or electric fires.

80
Q
  1. During an emergency evacuation, what equipment should the captain carry out of the
    airplane ?
A

a) A flash light, megaphone and crash axe.

b) A flash light, signal kit and megaphone.
c) A flash light, signal kit and crash axe.

81
Q
A

Systems 2 (11 decks)

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