Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Envoy E145 Initial > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

1
Q

Aircraft Dimensions

Length
Wheel base
Tail Height
Nose to Main Wheels
Wingspan
A 
98'      - Length
15' 10" - Wheel base
22' 2"  - Tail Height
47' 5"   - Nose to Main Wheels
65' 9"  - Wingspan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which flight controls are:

  • Mechanical
  • Hydraulic
  • Electrical?
A

Mechanical: Elevator
Hydraulic: Aileron, Rudder, Spoilers
Electrical: Flaps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many pax does E145 carry?

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

At what altitude does PAX O2 deploy?

How long will oxygen flow?

A

14000 ft cabin alt

About 12 minutes (can’t be turned off)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The conditioned air to the cockpit is mainly provided by the _______ pack.

A

Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The conditioned air to the cabin is provided mainly by the ______ pack.

A

Right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does pneumatic system provides high temp compress air for?

A
  1. Ice protection
  2. Air conditioning
  3. Pressurization
  4. Engine Starting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What may power the pneumatic system?

A
  1. Engine bleed air
  2. APU bleed air
  3. External pneumatic source
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What pneumatic system does APU use?

What is APU normally used for?

A

Left pneumatic system

Air conditioning and engine starting on the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Flight Controls

What does the Yaw Damper do?

A
  1. Protects against Dutch Roll

2. Helps turn coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Electrical

What supplies power to the DC Bus?

A
  1. 4 engine generators
  2. 1 APU starter/generator
  3. 2 NiCads
  4. 1 lead acid backup
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Electrical / APU

How long after APU start is APU Generator power available?

A

95% plus 7 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Electrical

When are Shed DC Buses load shed with SHED BUSES - AUTO?

A

When < 3 generators are on

AOM 2 p.191

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Electrical

With SHED BUSES - OVRD, when will the shed bus contactors manually close to power the SHED DC BUS 1/2?

A

On the ground with at least one generator operating

AOM 2 p.190

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Electrical

On the ground, when are all the DC buses energized?

A

When at least one of the following conditions occurs:

  1. At least 3 gens on
  2. GPU is on and connected to airplane
  3. At least 1 gen on and SHED BUSES knob - OVRD
    (AOM 2 p.190)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Electrical

What do the AVIONICS MASTER buttons do?

A

They connect (when pressed) or disconnect (when released) the navigation and communication equipment supplied by the avionics switched buses.

Normally pressed in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Electrical

What does the BACKUP button do?

A

Connects (pressed) or disconnects (released) the backup battery from the electrical system.

Backup battery powers - BACKUP ESS BUS 1, BACKUP BUS 1, BACKUP BUS 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Electrical

What does BUS TIES knob do in:
OVRD
AUTO
OFF

A

OVRD - Bus tie contactors (BTCs) are kept closed regardless of EDL (Elect. Distr. Logic), as long as no overcurrent detected by one of the 5 GCUs

AUTO - Controls the operation of the BTCs according to EDL (normally BTC2 closed - connects CENTRAL DC BUS to DC BUS 2)

OFF - Openes the BTCs regardless of the command from EDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Electrical

What does AC PWR button do?

A

Connects/disconnects inverter to/from the system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Powerplant

Where is the bleed air from the compressor tapped?

Which is higher pressure?

A

9th and 14th stages

14 stage is the higher pressure supply, and is automatically delivered when the 9th stage pressure or temperature are not sufficient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Powerplant

What is the AGB mechanically connected to?

Provides mechanical power to drive which accessories?

A

The high pressure N2 spool

Airplane Accessories:

  • 1 Hydraulic Pump
  • 2 Electric Generators
  • 1 Air Turbine Starter (Pneumatic Starter)

Engine Accessories:

  • 1 Fuel Pump and Metering Unit (FPMU),
  • 1 Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA),
  • 1 Oil Pump
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Powerplant

How many FADEC does each engine have?

How many operate at a time?

What happens if active FADEC fails?

Is a FADEC required for the engine to operate?

A

2

1 FADEC is active at a time

if a failure is detected, automatic switching to the other FADEC will occur.

Yes, a FADEC is required for the engine to operate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Powerplant

What can provide pneumatic air for engine starting?

A
  1. APU
  2. ground air supply
  3. cross bleed from the opposite engine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do the engine EXTG handles do when pulled?

When rotated?

A

When pulled, closes the following shutoff valves:

  • fuel
  • hydraulic
  • bleed air
  • engine air inlet ice protection

Rotating handle counterclockwise or clockwise will discharge bottle A or B into associated engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Successful Fire Detection System Test Button

What happens if you press for more than 10 seconds?

A

Hold button for at least 2 seconds and observe the following:

  1. EICAS msgs
    - APU FIRE
    - ENG 1-2 FIRE
    - BAGG SMOKE
    - APU FIREDET FAIL
    - E1-2 FIREDET FAIL
  2. Fire handles illuminate
  3. Baggage Fire exting. bttn
  4. Warning and Caution lights
  5. Aural warnings and bells

If press for more than 10 seconds, APU shuts down on the ground. Should wait at least 6 seconds between presses of the bttn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hydraulics / Flight Controls

What happens to flight controls during a dual hydraulic failure?

What precaution should you take?

A

Rudder and Ailerons revert to mechanical backup

Slow aircraft to below 250 KIAS to lessen control forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Flight Controls

If you disconnect ailerons or elevators in flight, can they be reset in flight?

A

No, they can only be reset on the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Flight Instruments

What does Pitot/Static 3 supply total air pressure to?

A
  1. Standby instruments (IAS, ALT)

2. CPAM (Cabin Pressure Aquisition Module)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Flight Instruments

How many ADC are there? What sensors does each use?

A

Two sensors

ADC1:

  • Pitot tube 1
  • Static 1 and 4

ADC2:

  • Pitot tube 2
  • Static 2 and 3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Flight Instruments

What are the 9 sensors for the air data system?

A
  1. 2 pitot tubes
  2. 1 pitot static tube
  3. 4 static ports
  4. 2 TAT probes
31
Q

Hydraulics

How many hydraulic systems are there?
How many pumps does each system have?

How much pressure does each type of pump supply?

A

2 Independent hydraulic systems

Each system has:

  • one engine driven pump (output ~3000 psi)
  • electric motor driven pump (for backup pressure, ~2900 psi)
32
Q

Hydraulics

What does the hydraulic system provide power for?

A
  1. Nose landing gear and steering
  2. Main landing gear and brakes
  3. Thrust reversers
  4. Rudder
  5. Ailerons
  6. Spoilers
33
Q

Hydraulics

Which flight controls are powered by both systems?

A
  1. Rudder

2. Left and Right Aileron

34
Q

Hydraulics

In AUTO position, when does ELEC PUMP come on?

A

When:
1. engine driven pump pressure drops below 1600 psi
OR
2. N2 < 56.4%

provides ~2900 psi

35
Q

Hydraulics

What do the accumulators do?

A

Accumulators:

  1. Protects system from pressure surges
  2. Maintains 3000psi of pressure for operation of:
    - landing gear (Sys 1)
    - emergency parking brake (Sys 2)
36
Q

Hydraulics

What does the priority valve do?

A

On system 1 which provides a system 1 enhancement if the system is pressurized solely by electric pump pressure during landing gear retraction.

This would be the case if engine 1 failure occurs during takeoff or go-around.

In this situation, the priority valve provides minimum flow to the landing gear system and priority to the flight control surfaces. The system 1 accumulator provides pressure for landing gear retraction.

37
Q

Ice and Rain

What Bus is Capt windshield heat on?
What Bus is FO windshield heat on?

A

Capt - DC Bus 1

FO - Shed DC Bus 2

38
Q

Ice and Rain

How does the ice detector operate in Auto mode?

A

Through a vibrating sensor on the fuselage

when it stops vibrating, assumes it has been iced and activates anti-ice

when sensor starts vibrating, assumes ice is gone and turns off system

39
Q

Landing Gear

Under what conditions will you get landing gear aural warning?

A 
Condition 1:
1. Flaps < 22
2. RA < 1200ft
3. TLA < 45 degrees (59 if SE)
(can be silenced with LG WRN cutout switch)
Condition 2:
1. Flaps between 22 and 45
2. RA < 1200ft
3. TLA < 45 degrees (59 if SE)
(cannot be silenced)

Condition 3:
1. Flaps = 45
(cannot be cut out)

40
Q

Landing Gear

How much room do you need for 180 degree turnaround?

A

102’6”

41
Q

Landing Gear

What are the 3 ways to extend the landing gear?

A
  1. Gear lever (normal)
  2. Free fall lever
    allow the gear to be depressurized and freefall by gravity to the down and locked position.
  3. Electrical override
    bypasses the LGEU and commands the landing gear electrovalve and nose gear doors solenoid valve through a switch in the free fall compartment.
42
Q

How many proximity switches are installed to determine WOW?

What does nosewheel proximity switch control?

What does main landing gear switch control?

A

5
4 on mains, 1 on nosewheel

nosewheel controls:

  1. nosewheel steering
  2. thrust reversers

mains control:
1. gear retraction

43
Q

What does the touchdown protection in the normal brake system do?

A

Touchdown protection inhibits brake operation until the wheel speed is at 50 knots or until 3 seconds after touchdown.

protects against a tire blow out during landing that could occur if the brake pedals are applied prior to touchdown.

44
Q

What bus powers the CVR?

How long does it record?

A

ESSEN BUS 2

records 2 hour loop

5g impact cuts off power to CVR

45
Q

How many hours of data does FDR store?

When does it start recording?

A

25 hours of data

  1. When red beacon turns on
    OR
  2. Airplane is airborne
46
Q

EICAS

When is Takeoff Warning activated?

What does the Takeoff Warning NOT indicate?

A

Activated when:

  • Airplane on the ground, thrust is applied and at least one of the following:
    1. Flaps are not in takeoff position.
    2. Parking brakes are applied.
    3. Pitch trim is out of the green range.
    4. Any spoiler panel is deployed.

Does NOT ensure that both engines are running

47
Q

What determines the Max Takeoff Weight?

A

Max Takeoff Weight is the most restrictive of the following:

  1. Max structural takeoff weight
  2. Rwy length limit
  3. Climb limit
  4. Enroute driftdown limit
  5. Max. landing weight at destination
48
Q

What is the Climb Limit, in reference to max takeoff weight?

A

Max weight to meet a climb gradient for a specific:

  • runway
  • altitude
  • temperature

The net takeoff flight path must clear terrain and obstacles from 35’ to 1500’ by a minimum of 35’

49
Q

What determines Max Landing Weight

A

Max Landing Weight is the most restrictive of the following:

  1. Max landing weight for aircraft in AFM
  2. Runway length and condition
  3. Approach climb and landing climb limits
50
Q

Electrical

  1. In a cold, dark cockpit with Batteries OFF, which electrical buses are powered
  2. When to turn the Batteries ON
  3. Start APU and APU GEN ON
  4. Eng 1 started and ENG 1 GEN ON
A
  1. Hot Buses 1 & 2, Backup Hot Bus
    • Central DC Bus, Backup ESS Bus
  3. Everything except DC Shed Buses
    • Shed Buses
51
Q

Air System

What is Ram Air used for?

A
  1. To cool ECUs (packs) in flight
  2. Automatically flows through cabin if both ECUs fail or in flight depressurization
  3. Can ventilate airplane in case of smoke when airplane depressurized and ECUs off

(AOM 2 p.71)

52
Q

Air System

What do the recirc fans do?

A
  • mix fresh air with recirculated cabin air, increasing airflow with less bleed air extraction
53
Q

Air System

With XBLEED - AUTO, what happen to CBV?

A
  1. commands CBV open or closed during engine start in order to select on the available pneumatic sources: APU, Ground Connection, or opposite engine
  2. In some airplanes, if horiz. stab anti-ice on
54
Q

What is the primary component of the AFCS (Auto. Flight Control System)?

A

The 2 IC-600 computers

Control symbol generator, autopilot monitors, flight directors and autopilot

55
Q

What provides pitch, roll and acceleration info to the AFCS (Auto. Flight Control System)?

A

AHRS or IRS (depending on which is installed in aircraft)

56
Q

Which IC-600 provides the signals for the Autopilot operations?

A

1

57
Q

AFCS

When Nav mode is armed on FGC, what mode will immediately engage?

A

HDG

58
Q

AFCS

Climb schedule for FLC mode

Descent schedule for FLC mode

A 
Climb (CLB displays on FMA):
< 10000: 240 kts
10000-12000: 240 to 270 kts  (linearly increasing)
12000-17377: 270 kts
17,377-37000: .56 Mach

Descent (DES displays on FMA):
37000-12000: -2000 ft/min
12000-10000: -2000 ft/min to -1000 ft/min
<10000: -1000 ft/min

59
Q

AFCS

If you press TOGA buttons in the go around, what vertical mode is activated?

A

If at or above 1.23 Vso ((top of the white arc on the speed tape):

  • FD pitches up to 10 degree for up to 20 sec
  • If 170 KIAS achieved w/in 20 sec, IAS mode activated to maintain 170 KIAS
  • If 170 KIAS not achieved, reverts to IAS bugged speed (as long as > 1.23 and < 170 KIAS)

If below 1.23:
IAS mode is activated

60
Q

Air Conditioning System and Pressurization

When do the pack valves close?

A
  1. loss of DC Power
  2. Engine starts
  3. PACK 1/2 OVLD
  4. PACK 1/2 OVHT
  5. < FL246 in icing, PACK 1 close (if PACK 2 operational)
  6. FADEC logic (check AFM)
61
Q

Air Conditioning System and Pressurization

How many duct lines supply conditioned air to the cabin?

A
  1. Lower duct supplies air at the foot level on the sidewall of both sides
  2. Upper ducts supplies are on both sides
  3. Third line dedicated to gasper system, also directed to upper ducts
62
Q

Air Conditioning System and Pressurization

When does GASPER button control the gasper fan?

A

In flight only. On the ground, fan operates whenever DC Bus 2 energized.

63
Q

Air Conditioning System and Pressurization

What does the Cabin Pressure Control System (CPCS) do?

A

Controls the cabin pressure by regulating the exhaust of cabin air that is supplied by the ECUs through the outflow valves

64
Q

Air Conditioning System and Pressurization

How many modes does CPCS have? What are they?

A

2
Automatic - Electro-pneumatic outflow valve
Manual - Pneumatic outflow valve

65
Q

Air Conditioning System and Pressurization

How many outflow valves are there?

Which operate in the automatic mode? Manual mode?

A

2

Automatic mode: Electro-pneumatic and pneumatic outflow valves both operate (pneumatic slaved to operate with electro-pneumatic)

Manual mode: only pneumatic operates

66
Q

Air Conditioning System and Pressurization

What does the CPAM (Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module) do?

A
  1. Provides pressurization info that displays on EICAS

2. Provides aural warning if cabin altitude is above 9900 +/- 100 feet.

67
Q

Air Conditioning System and Pressurization

What is the cabin altitude limitation while in AUTO?

A

15000

68
Q

Air Conditioning System and Pressurization

In what mode does the DUMP button work?

What is the max cabin altitude if DUMP button pressed?

A

Only works in Automatic mode (DUMP button doesn’t do anything in Manual mode)

14,500

69
Q

Air Conditioning System and Pressurization

What position must the Manual Controller Knob be in for Automatic pressurization system to work?

A

DN position

70
Q

Air Conditioning System and Pressurization

When does depressurization occur in the Automatic mode Landing Sequence

A

When airplane is on the ground and thrust lever IDLE position

71
Q

Air Conditioning System and Pressurization

How can you release all cabin pressure?

A

In Manual mode, turning manual controller to full UP position will cause rapid depressurization

72
Q

Air Conditioning System and Pressurization

When does the 14th stage valve (HSV) open?

A
  1. Low thrust settings

2. Anti-ice operations

73
Q

Digital Audio Panel

Which audio systems are powered by the Essential power?

A
  1. ADF 1
  2. NAV 1
  3. INPH
  4. COM 1

Envoy E145 Initial (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions