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NBEO Part 1 > Systemic Health/Disease > Flashcards

Systemic Health/Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is scabies?

A

A skin condition caused by parasitic mites that burrow under the skin and cause itching, rashes, and blisters.

Scabies is spread via close contact with infected people or infected linens or towels.

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2
Q

How is scabies typically treated?

A

Via the application of prescribed topical cream or lotion or via oral medication.

Although scabies will self-resolve, immediate treatment is recommended to minimize spreading.

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3
Q

What symptom do patients with scabies commonly report worsening at night?

A

Itching.

This symptom is a significant indicator of the condition.

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4
Q

What is molluscum contagiosum?

A

A cutaneous viral infection that results in small red or skin-colored bumps.

The condition can self-resolve if left untreated.

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5
Q

How can molluscum contagiosum be treated?

A

Lesions can be removed, or a topical ointment can be prescribed to decrease healing time.

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6
Q

What type of infection is impetigo?

A

Bacterial in nature, caused by staphylococcus.

Impetigo results in cutaneous blisters of various sizes.

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7
Q

Where are lesions from impetigo frequently located?

A

On the arms, legs, and face.

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8
Q

What is tinea commonly known as?

A

Ringworm.

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9
Q

What type of infection is tinea?

A

A fungal infection of the skin.

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10
Q

Describe the appearance of lesions associated with tinea.

A

Circular with clear centers.

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11
Q

What are the characteristic features of neurofibromatosis type I?

A

Iris Lisch nodules, patchy hyperpigmentation of the skin (cafe au-lait spots), small bump-like tumors under the skin (neurofibromas)

Neurofibromatosis type I is also known as Von Recklinghausen disease.

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12
Q

What causes neurofibromatosis type I?

A

Mutations in neurofibromin

Neurofibromin is a protein that regulates cell growth.

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13
Q

Which systems can be variably involved in neurofibromatosis type I?

A

Brain, bones, adrenal glands, vasculature

NF-1 can also cause disturbances in puberty and growth.

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14
Q

How does neurofibromatosis type II differ from type I?

A

NF-2 presents with neurofibromas but not cafe au-lait spots or Lisch nodules

The main manifestation of NF-2 is the development of tumors in the brain.

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15
Q

What is the main manifestation of neurofibromatosis type II?

A

Development of non-malignant tumors of the brain in the area of cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve)

This can lead to visual symptoms related to posterior subcapsular cataracts.

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16
Q

True or False: Cafe au-lait spots are associated with neurofibromatosis type II.

A

False

Cafe au-lait spots are characteristic of neurofibromatosis type I.

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17
Q

Fill in the blank: The appearance of _______ is generally not associated with neurofibromatosis type II.

A

cafe au-lait spots

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18
Q

What visual symptoms can occur in neurofibromatosis type II?

A

Development of posterior subcapsular cataracts

These cataracts can affect vision.

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19
Q

What are the main roles of blood?

A

Transporting nutrients, carrying waste products, maintaining homeostasis, serving as a conduit for phagocytes

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20
Q

What percentage of body weight does blood typically comprise?

A

6-8%

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21
Q

How much blood does the average adult have?

A

Roughly 4-5 liters

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22
Q

What is the composition of blood?

A

Plasma and cellular portion

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23
Q

What percentage of blood volume does plasma make up?

A

50-60%

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24
Q

What is the primary component of plasma?

A

Water

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25
Q

What percentage of plasma volume is water?

A

Roughly 91%

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26
Q

What are the key proteins found in plasma?

A

Albumin, globulins, high density lipoproteins, low density lipoproteins, fibrinogen

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27
Q

What roles do proteins in plasma perform?

A

Lipid transport, blood clotting, host defense

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28
Q

What other components are dissolved in plasma?

A

Gases, ions, hormones, sugars, vitamins, amino acids, lipids

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29
Q

What percentage of plasma volume is made up of other dissolved components?

A

Typically 1%

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30
Q

What is the cellular component of blood composed of?

A

White blood cells, platelets, red blood cells

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31
Q

What is the role of white blood cells?

A

Host defense

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32
Q

What is the largest constituent of the cellular portion of blood?

A

Red blood cells

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33
Q

What is the primary function of red blood cells?

A

Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide

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34
Q

What is the second largest constituent of the cellular portion of blood?

A

Platelets

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35
Q

What is the paramount role of platelets?

A

Clotting

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36
Q

What governs blood type?

A

Genetics

Blood type is determined by surface proteins on red blood cells.

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37
Q

What are the three variants of surface markers that result in blood types?

A

A, B, and O

These markers lead to four possible blood types.

38
Q

What is the characteristic of Type A blood?

A

Possess A markers, no antibodies against A markers, antibodies against B markers

Individuals with type A blood can receive type A and type O blood.

39
Q

What blood types can individuals with Type A blood receive?

A

Type A and Type O

Type O red blood cells do not display any markers.

40
Q

What is the characteristic of Type B blood?

A

Possess B markers, antibodies against A markers

Individuals with type B blood can receive type B and type O blood.

41
Q

What blood types can individuals with Type B blood receive?

A

Type B and Type O

Individuals with type B blood cannot receive type A blood.

42
Q

What is the characteristic of Type AB blood?

A

Possess A and B markers, no antibodies against A or B markers

Considered the universal recipient.

43
Q

What blood types can individuals with Type AB blood receive?

A

Type A, Type B, Type AB, and Type O

They will not produce an immune reaction to any type of blood.

44
Q

What is the characteristic of Type O blood?

A

No A or B markers, antibodies against both A and B markers

Considered the universal donor.

45
Q

What blood type is considered the universal donor?

A

Type O

Individuals with type O blood can only receive type O blood.

46
Q

What can occur if incompatible blood types are mixed?

A

Agglutination

Agglutination can lead to blockage of blood vessels causing tissue damage and/or death.

47
Q

True or False: Type AB blood has antibodies against A and B markers.

A

False

Individuals with type AB blood do not produce antibodies against A or B markers.

48
Q

Where else are A, B, and O markers found besides red blood cells?

A

Saliva and semen

These markers can also be present in other bodily fluids.

49
Q

What is the Rhesus (Rh) factor?

A

A marker that may be present on the surface of red blood cells

50
Q

What does it mean if a person is Rh-?

A

They do not possess Rh markers on their red blood cells

51
Q

Why is the Rh factor important in pregnancy?

A

An Rh- pregnant woman may develop antibodies against an Rh+ fetus

52
Q

What occurs when an Rh- pregnant woman has an Rh+ fetus?

A

She will develop antibodies only after the blood types mix

53
Q

What can cause the mixing of blood types between an Rh- mother and an Rh+ fetus?

A

Mixing can occur across the placenta or during delivery

54
Q

What happens if an Rh- woman becomes pregnant again with an Rh+ fetus?

A

Maternal antibodies enter the fetus’s bloodstream, causing lysis of blood cells

55
Q

What are the potential consequences of Rh incompatibility during pregnancy?

A

It can lead to the loss of the fetus

56
Q

How can Rh incompatibility be treated?

A

By injecting the mother with Rhogam (anti-Rh gamma globulin)

57
Q

What is the role of Rhogam in pregnancy?

A

It inactivates Rh+ antibodies to prevent fetal complications

58
Q

A positive result in which 3 lab tests would help confirm Reiter’s syndrome?

A

+ CRP
+ ESR
+ HLA- B27

  • Reiter’s syndrome = reactive arthritis due to an infectious process
59
Q

P wave on EKG

A

Atrial depolarization (contraction of the atria)
* first wave, lasts for 80ms

60
Q

QRS complex on EKG

A

from depolarization of the left and right ventricles
*displays larger amplitude than P wave because ventricles contain more muscles thus creating more powerful contraction

61
Q

T wave on EKG

A

Results from recovery of the ventricles

62
Q

What are patients with bronchitis commonly referred to as?

A

Blue bloaters

63
Q

What are patients with emphysema commonly called?

A

Pink puffers

64
Q

How does body mass typically differ between patients with bronchitis and emphysema?

A

Increased in bronchitis, decreased in emphysema

65
Q

What is the predominant symptom in bronchitis?

A

Coughing

66
Q

How does coughing present in emphysema compared to bronchitis?

A

Intermittently in emphysema, predominant in bronchitis

67
Q

What is the sputum production like in bronchitis versus emphysema?

A

Large quantity in bronchitis, rare in emphysema

68
Q

What is the predominant symptom in emphysema?

A

Dyspnea (shortness of breath)

69
Q

When do patients with bronchitis usually experience dyspnea?

A

Primarily during exercise

70
Q

How do respiratory infections compare between bronchitis and emphysema?

A

More frequent in bronchitis

71
Q

What is the correct order in which inhaled air reaches the lungs?

A

Nasal cavity
Pharynx (throat)
Larynx (voice box)
Trachea
Bronchi
Lungs

72
Q

What hormone is secreted by the heart and helps to regulate blood pressure?

A

Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH)
* secreted by atria in response to increased fluid volume that is signaled by atrial stretch
*ANH causes kidney to excrete greater quantities of sodium
* also results in vasodilation of blood vessels, leading to decrease in blood pressure

73
Q

Calcitonin is released by what gland?

A

Thyroid gland
* this hormone inhibits osteoclast activity in bones and absorption of calcium by the intestines, leading to diminished blood calcium levels

74
Q

Melatonin is released by what gland?

A

Pineal gland
* in response to diminished light levels and causes the hypothalamus to ready the body for sleep

75
Q

What hormone is released by the kidneys and stimulates the production of RBC by bone marrow?

A

Erythropoietin

76
Q

Cushing disease is an excess of?

A

Cortisone

77
Q

Exophthalmos is most often associated with what systemic condition?

A

Graves’ disease —> hyperthyroidism
* inflammatory cells proliferate in back of eye, filling orbit and forcing globe forward
* can also infiltrate EOMs causing muscle thickening and redirection of movement leading to diplopia

78
Q

What is Hodgkin’s disease?

A

Type of Lymphoma
* 40% of lymphomas
*Reed-Sternberg cells (“owl eyes” nucleus
*commonly presents with enlarged lymph nodes, fever, night sweats and itching
Good prognosis if diagnosed early

79
Q

What is Osteogenesis Imperfecta (Ol)?

A

A congenital, autosomal dominant condition characterized by brittle bones.

80
Q

What causes Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

The production of abnormal type I collagen.

81
Q

How many subtypes of Osteogenesis Imperfecta are there?

A

Four subtypes, each with different severities and prognoses.

82
Q

What are common symptoms of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Multiple bone fractures, potential hearing loss at an early age, and a blue hue to the sclera.

83
Q

Does a cure exist for Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

No, a cure does not exist.

84
Q

What types of drugs have shown promising results in treating Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Bisphosphonates and calcium supplements.

85
Q

What are recommended therapies for Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Caution with high-impact activities and exercises to build strong muscles and bones.

86
Q

What surgical interventions may be necessary for Osteogenesis Imperfecta patients?

A

Leg bones may need to be reinforced with metal rods or braces.

87
Q

True or False: Patients with Osteogenesis Imperfecta are at higher risk for retinal detachment.

A

True.

88
Q

What complications may Osteogenesis Imperfecta patients face due to poor scleral rigidity?

A

Subdural hematomas and retinal hemorrhages.

89
Q

Fill in the blank: Osteogenesis Imperfecta is characterized by _______.

A

[brittle bones]

90
Q

A blood pressure cuff too small relative to patient’s upper arm will cause blood pressure to be falsely _____

A

Elevated
* opposite is true, cuff too big will cause falsely low blood pressure reading

NBEO Part 1 (15 decks)

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