Ocular Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Art’s line

A

Scarring on upper cornea
* in trachoma

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2
Q

Signs of trachoma

A
  1. Art’s line (scarring on upper cornea)
  2. Herbert’s pits (follicles on/around limbus)
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3
Q

Testing for preseptal cellulitis

A
  1. Optic nerve (no involvement)
  2. EOMS (no restrictions, if there is pain/restrictions=orbital cellulitis)
  3. Proptosis exophthalometer
  4. Fever and headaches
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4
Q

Tx for EKC

A

Cold compress
Good hygiene + pt education
* epidemic keratoconjunctivitis self resolving 2-3 weeks
* caused by adenovirus, transmitted via secretions (respiratory, ocular)

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5
Q

Which disease causes s-shaped ptosis?

A

Acute Dacryocystitis
* infection and/or inflammation of the lacrimal gland and can result in acute swelling and discomfort in upper lateral eyelid

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6
Q

Infectious agent of canaliculitis

A

Actinomyces Israeli

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7
Q

What is the estimated percentage of chemical ocular burns that occur in industrial settings?

A

66%

This statistic highlights the prevalence of chemical burns in occupational environments.

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8
Q

Name three symptoms of chemical burns.

A
  • Normal or decreased vision
  • Pain
  • Foreign body sensation

Additional symptoms may include photophobia, tearing, and blepharospasm.

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9
Q

What are some signs of corneal damage in chemical burns?

A
  • Mild superficial punctate keratitis (SPK)
  • Sloughing off of the entire epithelium
  • Conjunctival injection
  • Chemosis
  • Ciliary injection
  • Anterior chamber reaction
  • Conjunctival hemorrhages
  • Scleral and limbal blanching

Severe burns may also increase intraocular pressure (IOP).

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10
Q

True or False: Alkali burns have a better prognosis than acidic burns.

A

False

Alkali burns raise tissue pH, leading to more severe damage.

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11
Q

Fill in the blank: Alkali burns are ______ compared to acidic burns because they raise tissue pH.

A

worse

This is due to the breakdown of fatty acids in cell membranes.

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12
Q

What are common alkali agents that can cause chemical burns?

A
  • Ammonia
  • Lye
  • Magnesium hydroxide
  • Lime
  • Airbag residue

These substances are often found in household or industrial products.

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13
Q

List two common acidic agents that can cause chemical burns.

A
  • Hydrofluoric acid
  • Sulfuric acid

Other examples include nitric acid, chromic acid, and PAVA spray.

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14
Q

What is a notable characteristic of alkali burns regarding penetration?

A

Faster penetration (often less than 1 minute)

This rapid penetration contributes to the severity of the injury.

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15
Q

What symptom may indicate severe chemical burns?

A

Increased intraocular pressure (IOP)

Severe burns can lead to complications affecting eye pressure.

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16
Q

Limbal blanching is a sign of _____ and is most common in alkali burns

A

Ischemia
* alkali injuries are more dangerous than acidic injuries

17
Q

Symptoms of corneal abrasion

A
  • Sharp pain (esp. after blinking)
  • FBS
  • photophobia
  • tearing
  • blurred vision
  • mild anterior chamber reaction
  • miotic pupil
18
Q

Epidemiology of corneal abrasion

A

History of trauma (fingernail, tree branch)

19
Q

What is retinoblastoma?

A

The most common primary intraocular malignancy in children

It represents about 3-4% of all childhood cancers.

20
Q

What percentage of childhood cancers does retinoblastoma represent?

A

About 3-4%

This indicates its relative frequency among childhood cancers.

21
Q

What is the incidence rate of retinoblastoma?

A

Occurs in about 1 in 17,000 live births

This statistic highlights its rarity.

22
Q

At what age do most children present with retinoblastoma?

A

Before the age of 3

About 80% of diagnosed cases occur before this age.

23
Q

Is an initial diagnosis of retinoblastoma over the age of 6 common?

A

Extremely rare

This underscores the typical age range for diagnosis.

24
Q

What is the most common intraocular malignancy in adults?

A

Melanoma

This contrasts with retinoblastoma, which is primarily seen in children.

25
Q

What is phacomorphic glaucoma?

A

An acute secondary angle-closure type of glaucoma caused by antero-posterior growth and anterior movement of the crystalline lens

This leads to increased iridolenticular contact, pupillary block, and iris bombe.

26
Q

What are the consequences of untreated phacomorphic glaucoma?

A

Significantly elevated intraocular pressure and severe damage to the optic nerve

Immediate treatment is crucial to prevent optic nerve damage.

27
Q

What triggers phacolytic glaucoma?

A

High molecular weight proteins leaking into the anterior chamber from a hypermature cataractous crystalline lens

These proteins obstruct the trabecular meshwork.

28
Q

What is the result of obstruction in phacolytic glaucoma?

A

Significant elevation in intraocular pressure and eventual optic nerve damage

Efficient and effective treatment is necessary.

29
Q

What characterizes Posner-Schlossman syndrome?

A

Recurrent acute attacks of anterior uveitis with elevated intraocular pressure

Presumed to be due to acute trabeculitis.

30
Q

What is phacoanaphylactic uveitis?

A

An autoimmune reaction secondary to proteins leaking from a lens with a ruptured capsule

This condition can lead to inflammation and other complications.

31
Q

Fill in the blank: Phacomorphic glaucoma is considered an acute secondary _______ type of glaucoma.

A

angle-closure

32
Q

True or False: Phacolytic glaucoma can occur due to the leakage of low molecular weight proteins from the lens.

A

False

33
Q

What morphological changes contribute to phacomorphic glaucoma?

A

Antero-posterior growth and anterior movement of the crystalline lens

These changes increase iridolenticular contact.

34
Q

Fill in the blank: In Posner-Schlossman syndrome, elevated intraocular pressure is presumed to be due to _______.

A

acute trabeculitis

35
Q

What can happen if phacolytic glaucoma is not treated efficiently?

A

Optic nerve damage