Systemic Anti-Cancer Treatment Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the difference between purine and pyridamine bases?

A

Purines have a double ring structure and pyridamines only have one ring.

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2
Q

Describe base pairings?

A

Guanine and cytosine pair together and adenine and thymine pair together.

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3
Q

Which enzyme causes hydrogen bonds between bases to break and seperate the two polynucleotide strands?

A

DNA helicase

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4
Q

Name 3 examples of microtubule inhibitors

A

Docetaxel, paclitaxel and eribulin (plus ‘emtansine’ portion of TDM1

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5
Q

What is the mechanism of microtubule inhibitors?

A

Bind to beta tubulin subunits within the microtubule (stabilises them) and as a result the spindle apparatus cannot properly segregate the chromosome during mitosis. The spindle assembly checkpoint detects abnormalities and results in cell cycle arrest in G2 phase.

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6
Q

Name 2 examples of topoisomerase I inhibitors

A

Irinotecan and Topotecan

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7
Q

Name 3 examples of Topoismoerase 2 inhibitors

A

Etoposide, doxorubicin, epirubicin

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8
Q

How do topoisomerase inhibitors work?

A

Topoisomerase is an enzyme which relaxes supercoils within the DNA. Inhibition prevents DNA repair.

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9
Q

Name an mTOR inhibitor

A

Evorolimus

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10
Q

What is the mechanism of an mTOR inhibitor?

A

Leads to blockage in progression from G1 to S phase, also expresses hypoxia inducible factor which decreases expression of VEGF.

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11
Q

Name 3 examples of alkylating agents

A

Platinums, nitrogen mustards (ifosfamide), non nitrogen mustard methylating agents (temozolamide)

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12
Q

What is the mechanism of alkylating agents?

A

Forms cross links between purine bases

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13
Q

Name 2 examples of pyridamine analogues

A

Gemcitabine and capecitabine/5FU

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14
Q

What is the mechanism of pyridamine analogues?

A

Become phosphorylated within the cell and its metabolites because incorporated into DNA as ‘false base pairs’

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15
Q

Name 2 examples of antibiotic chemotherapies?

A

Bleomycin and Mitomycin

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16
Q

How do antibiotic chemotherapies work?

A

Bind to iron creating free radicals and causing single and double stranded DNA breaks.

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17
Q

Name 2 examples of VEGFi

A

Tizotinib and Bevacizumab

18
Q

Name 4 examples of multi targeted TKI

A

Sunitinib, pazopanib, caboxantanib, sorafenib, lenvatinib and axitinib

19
Q

Name two examples of anti-folate drugs?

A

Methotrexate and pemetrexed

20
Q

What is the mechanism of antifolate drugs?

A

Reduced folate synthesis which is essential in the synthesis of DNA

21
Q

Name an example of CYP17A1 inhibitor?

A

Abiaterone

22
Q

How do CDK46i work?

A

Stop CDK46 forming a complex within cyclin D1 therefore inhibiting phophorylation of tumour suppressor gener Rb. Halting cell cycle progression from G1 to S phase.

23
Q

Name example of non steroidal competitive androgen receptor inhibitors?

A

Enzalumatamide and darolutamide

24
Q

What is the difference between TPS and CPS in PDL1 expression?

A

TPS- expression of receptor in tumour cells vs total number of cells
CPS- expression of receptor on tumour and stromal cells (lymphocytes and macrophages) vs total number of cells.

25
Q

Common chemotherapy causes of PPE

A

5FU/capecitabine, doxorubicin and docetaxel

26
Q

Does vinorelbine fatigue respond to dose reduction

A

Often not

27
Q

What is the mechanism by with anthracyclines cause cardiomyopathy?

A

Dose dependent as a result of oxidative stress and apoptotic loss of cardiomyocites.

28
Q

When should bevacizumab be held in the prescence of proteinuria?

A

If >2g protein/24hrs or 4+ protein on dipstick

29
Q

Which prostate cancer drugs can interfere with anti-epileptics?

A

Enzalutamide is a potent induce and can affect concentration of antiepileptics such as carbamazepine, clonazepam, phenytoin and valproate.

30
Q

Which prostate cancer drug should be avoided with high fat meals?

A

Abiaterone, increases exposure

31
Q

Do C450 inducers increase or reduce exposure to other drugs?

A

Reduce

32
Q

Do CP450 inhibitors increase or reduce exposure to other drugs?

A

Increase

33
Q

Name 3 common CP450 inducers

A

Rifampicin, phenytoin and carbamazepine

34
Q

Name 3 common CP450 inhibitors?

A

Clarithyromycin, ciprofloxacin, grapefruit juice, amiodarone

35
Q

Name three chemotherapy drugs to avoid if eGFR <30ml/min

A

Capecitabine, pemetrexed and cisplatin

36
Q

In liver dysfunction which two drugs should always have a dose reduction?

A

Taxane and epirubicin

37
Q

Define Cmax in pharmacokinetics

A

Max concentration achieved following administration of drug, depends on route

38
Q

Define Tmax in context of pharmacokinetics

A

Time at which the maximum concentration of a drug is reach

39
Q

Define clearance in the context of pharmacokinetics

A

Measure of the elimination of a drug expressed by volume/time.

40
Q

Which drug can cause bluish discolouration of sclera, fingernails and urine?

A

Mitoxantrone (leukaemia, lymphoma, breast and prostate) appaz…