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PSA CA Upgrade > System knowledge > Flashcards

System knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

MLG components

A

Nitrogen charged/oil filled shock strut
A folding side stay assembly
Shimmy dampers
Dual wheels and brake assemblies
Hydraulic actuators
Auxiliary actuators

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2
Q

How are the MLG held in the up and locked position?

A

A mechanical lock

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3
Q

How are the MLG unlocked extended and retracted?

A

By hydraulic actuators

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4
Q

How are the MLG locked in the extended position?

A

The side state assembly has an over center lock link mechanism

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5
Q

Type of MLG
Components

A

Double wheel retracting type
1. Nitrogen charged/oil filled shock strut
2. Folding side stay assembly.
3. Shimmy dampers.
4. Dual wheels and brake assemblies.
5. Hydraulic actuators.
6. Auxiliary actuators.

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6
Q

NLG type
Components

A

Double wheel retracting type
1. Nitrogen charged/oil filled shock strut.
2. Drag brace assembly.
3. Springs.
4. lock actuator.
5. Retract actuator.
6. Dual wheel assemblies.
7. Nose wheel steering components.

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7
Q

How does the NLG lock?

A

It locks in both the extended and retracted positions with a spring loaded, over-center type locking mechanism. A lock actuator moves the locking mechanism out of the over-center condition at the beginning of each extend or retract cycle.

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8
Q

The nose gear will not extend with the loss of which hydraulic systems?

A

Hydraulic systems 2 and 3

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9
Q

What does the proximity sensor system (PSS) entail?

A

Sensors are mounted on the landing gear and landing gear doors to supply position and control information to the PSEU (proximity sensor electronics unit). The PSEU provides landing gear position indication to the DCU’s for display on the EICAS primary page.

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10
Q

Proximity sensing system (PSS) 5 basic functions

A
  1. Landing gear positioning control.
  2. Landing gear position indication
  3. Weight on wheels indication.
  4. Fuselage door indication.
  5. Thrust reverser indication.
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11
Q

How long is the landing gear position indication shown?

A

It is removed 30 seconds after the landing gear is in the up and locked position with the flaps at 0

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12
Q

How does the downlock release switch work?

A

It is spring loaded to the off position. Move down and hold in the down position to manually override the landing gear control lever solenoid lock.

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13
Q

Which hydraulic system retracts or extends the landing gear?

A

Hydraulic system 3 pressure

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14
Q

Gear extension
Extended
Retraction speeds

A

220
220
200

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15
Q

What is the landing gear manual release for?

A

Used to manually lower the landing gear. Pull and hold handle in the fully extended position until EICAS indicates the nose and main landing gear are down and locked. (Considerable force is required to operate the landing gear manual release system)

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16
Q

What does the configuration warning system monitor?

A

Airspeed, position of thrust levers, flaps and landing gear positions, vertical speed, and radio altimeter inputs

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17
Q

When does the “TOO LOW GEAR” oral warning sound?

A

If any landing gear is not down and locked with the radio altitude less than 500 feet AGL and the indicated airspeed at less than 190 KIAS

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18
Q

How many fusible plugs are on the main wheel assembly and what do they do?

A

4
They are heat sensitive, fusible plugs that release excessive air pressure caused by heat buildup. The fusible plugs protect the main wheel against tire burst that could occur under heavy braking conditions.

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19
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the inboard brakes?
Which hydraulic system powers the outboard brakes ?

A

Inboard- hydraulic system 3
Outboard - hydraulic system 2

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20
Q

How is braking initiated?

A

By pressing the upper portion of the rudder pedals which are mechanically linked to the associated brake control valves. The brake control valves meter hydraulic pressure, proportional to the pedal pressure, to the 4 main wheel brake units through 4 independent anti-skid control valves and 4 hydraulic fuses.

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21
Q

What happens if a leak occurs in a brake line?

A

The associated hydraulic fuse will close off the hydraulic line, preventing loss of the entire system fluid.

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22
Q

If you lose hydraulic systems 2 or 3, what will that do to the braking?

A

The airplane has 50% symmetric braking capability with full anti-skid control to the working brakes. In the event of a failure, both hydraulic systems 2 and 3 accumulators in each hydraulic system will provide reserve pressure for braking.

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23
Q

How do the main wheels/NLG stop spinning during retraction?

A

Main wheels: hydraulic pressure is applied to the main wheel brake control valves to stop main wheel spin.
NLG: a rubber spin-down pad assembly in the NLG wheel well provides resistance to stop the nose wheel from spinning after gear retraction.

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24
Q

When must the brake wear indicator pins be checked?

A

With the brakes applied and hydraulic systems 2 and 3 pressurized

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25
Q

The antiskid system performs what 3 functions?

A
  1. Individual wheel anti-skid control: prevents skids from developing
  2. Touchdown protection: prevents landing with locked wheels in the event that the pilots are depressing the brake pedals during touchdown
  3. Locked wheel protection: allows a wheel to recover from a deep skid
26
Q

How do you restore manual braking during a braking loss failure?

A

By selecting the antiskid system OFF

27
Q

When is pressure removed/restored to the antiskid system?

A

In the air, with no weight-on-wheels signal, the antiskid control valves dump pressure to prevent wheel lock-up on touchdown.

The system becomes operational once a 35 knots wheel spin-up signal is present or a weight-on-wheels signal is present after a 5 second delay.

28
Q

How does the parking brake work?

A

Inboard brake control valves and the parking shut off valve are used to provide braking when the airplane is parked.
When the hydraulic systems are shut down, hydraulic pressure slowly leaks away via the anti-skid return lines.
The parking brake shut off valve closes when the parking brake is applied, ensuring that hydraulic system 3 accumulator pressure is maintained on the inboard brakes for a prolonged period of time.

29
Q

What happens if there is a brake unit overheat?

A

An aural warning sounds and a BRAKE OVHT warning message is displayed on the EICAS primary page if any of the brake units overheat.
If any of the sensors fail, the respective readout will turn to amber dashes.

30
Q

How many degrees is each unit of BTMS equivalent to?

A

Approximately 35°C or 95°F
0-6 GREEN
7-14 WHITE
15 or greater RED

31
Q

Inboard brake system is supplied by?
Outboard brake system supplied by?

A

3
2

32
Q

What fire detection is in the MLG bay?

A

A single loop overhead detection wire

33
Q

The ECU (electronic control unit) does what to the NLG after takeoff?

A

Generates a straight ahead command before retraction

34
Q

Steering ECU failure detected or hydraulic 3 failure reverse the NLG to what?

A

Shimmy-damping mode which allows free-castering of the nose wheel

35
Q

Steering ECU failure detected or hydraulic 3 failure reverse the NLG to what?

A

Shimmy-damping mode which allows free-castering of the nose wheel

36
Q

During flight if the tiller is moved what happens?

A

If the nosewheel steering tiller is moved more than 2 degrees, the STEERING INOP caution message may come on

37
Q

Where does the bleed air come from for aircraft pressurization?

A

Normally the engines but it can come from the APU

38
Q

Which valve regulates pressurization in flight?

A

Outflow valve
Regulates the amount of air allowed to escape from the pressurized areas

39
Q

Which valve controls pressurization on the ground?

A

Ground valve

40
Q

What do the safety valves protect from?
How are they operated?

A

Overpressure and negative pressure
They are pneumatically operated and spring loaded closed

41
Q

How soon after landing do the cabin pressure controllers swap?

A

3 minutes

42
Q

If cabin pressure controller auto switch over fails, how do you enable the standby controller?

A

By pressing the PRESS CONT switchlight twice

43
Q

What happens if both cabin pressure controllers fail?

A

The outflow valve goes into an isobaric hold mode.
AUTO PRESS caution message comes on indicating it is inoperative.
The PRESS CONT FAULT switchlight illuminates

44
Q

When does the CABIN ALT WARN HI status message display?

A

When the landing elevation is set above 8000’

45
Q

What is CPAM actually called?

A

Temperature-corrected altitude sensor and microprocessor

46
Q

What is the pressure control panel microprocessor solely responsible for?

A

-Controlling the automatic drop down of the pax oxygen masks at a cabin altitude of 14,000’.
-Illuminating the NO PED and SEAT BLTS signs when the cabin altitude reaches 10,000’ (if pax signs are set to AUTO).
-Providing the instruction to limit cabin altitude to 14,500 +/-500’.
-Opening and closing the ground valve during ground sequences.

47
Q

Selectable rate of change during climb and descent?

A

Climb: 150 to 3000 fpm
Descent: -100 to -2500 fpm

48
Q

What is the maximum positive differential pressure? What happens if exceeded?

A

8.6 +/- .1 PSID

DIFF PRESS warning/aural warning “cabin pressure” when outside of 8.6

49
Q

What is the negative differential pressure limited to?

A

-0.5 PSID

50
Q

When does the ground valve close?
What happens if it fails?

A

Automatically when the doors are closed and locked or the pre-pressurization sequence is initiated.
OVBD COOL caution message displays if it doesn’t close after door close.
OVBD COOL status message displays if it doesn’t open on ground.

51
Q

What happens when the EMER DEPRESS guarded switchlight is pressed?

A

It commands the outflow valve to open. LIMITATION!! 15,000’
The altitude limiter will prevent the cabin from exceeding 14,500’ +/- 500’. If limiter is inop the ALT LIMITER caution message displays.

52
Q

When is the CABIN ALT caution displayed?
When is the CABIN ALT warning displayed?

A

Caution: 8,500’-10,000’
Warning: over 10,000’ with “cabin pressure” aural warning

53
Q

At what altitude does the microprocessor send a signal for the oxygen masks to drop?

A

14,000’

54
Q

What are the 8 pressurization modes?

A
  1. Ground
  2. Pre-pressurization
  3. Takeoff Abort
  4. Climb
  5. Flight Abort
  6. Descent
  7. Landing
  8. Touch and go
55
Q

When does the system enter pre pressurization mode?

A

When the thrust levers are moved to the takeoff position.
The outflow valve begins to close and the aircraft pre pressurizes to avoid any pressure surges at rotation.
Scheduled for 300 fpm

56
Q

What happens during the takeoff abort pressurization mode?

A

When the thrust levers are retarded, the cabin climbs at 500 fpm for 20 seconds then the outflow valves are driven fully open.

57
Q

What is the general pressure climb rate?

A

300-500 fpm, depending on the aircraft’s actual climb rate

58
Q

What happens in flight abort pressurization mode?

A

If aircraft maintained 6,000’ or less above takeoff altitude for at 10 minutes and has initiated a descent of 1000 fpm, the system assumes the elevation for the departing airport regardless of preselected landing elevation.

59
Q

What is the general pressurization rate of descent?

A

300-750 fpm

60
Q

What happens in pressurization landing mode?

A

When cabin altitude is below field elevation, it is pressurized at about 600 fpm for 30 seconds, then the outflow and ground valves are commanded fully open.

PSA CA Upgrade (6 decks)

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