FOM Chapter 5

Question 1

A crewmember is expected to report for duty in full uniform with current manuals unless:
a. He/she is ill
b. He/she is fatigued (to the point that performance will be affected)
c. He/she is under serious stress
d. All of the above
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Question 2

Regarding check-in and reporting for duty, which of the following are true?
a. Captain should notify crew scheduling of a missing crewmember no less than 10 minutes after scheduled show time
b. If the Captain is absent, the First officer will notify Crew Scheduling
c. Crewmembers MUST call scheduling to check in verbally if unable to check in via Crew Mobile App.
d. If you show to the airport early due to a REQUIRED hotel van time you must contact crew scheduling to advise them of the actual report time
e. All of the above
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Question 3

The captain is responsible for accounting for all crewmembers on every leg of a trip.
a. True
b. False
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Question 4

Which of the following is NOT true regarding arriving at and boarding the airplane?
a. The FO may authorize boarding the airplane in the absence of the captain
b. The flight may not depart the gate until the captain has confirmed the proper crew is onboard
c. Pilots must report to the airplane 35 minutes prior to departure time and remain on the flight deck until departure time
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Question 5

The crew briefing should contain which of the following.
a. Emergency procedures
b. Door entry procedures
c. Pertinent aircraft MELs
d. All of the above
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Question 6

When a discrepancy is noted in the logbook, the corrective action and the mechanic’s signature will reconstitute the airworthiness release.
a. True
b. False
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Question 7

How can you verify that scheduled / undocumented maintenance has just been completed?
a. There will be many write ups documenting the completion of each item of maintenance performed with an airworthiness release at the end
b. The airworthiness release will be completed on a clean page
c. There is no way to know that scheduled / undocumented maintenance has been performed
d. You must call maintenance control to verify the completion of this type of maintenance
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Question 8

How will you know that a category B or C deferral has been extended?
a. You must call maintenance control to verify the extension has been filed
b. The completed MEL extension form will be in the can
c. There will be an additional write-up made specifically to extend the MEL
d. If extended the deferral will appear on the dispatch release
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Question 9

It is the responsibility of the Flight Attendant to inform the Captain that the preflight emergency equipment check is complete.
1. True
2. False
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Question 10

Both the captain and the dispatcher must agree that the flight can be made safely or it must be cancelled, re-routed, or delayed.
a. True
b. False
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Question 11

The captain should perform all the following actions in preparation for flight EXCEPT:
a. Obtain two copies of the flight release (if a paper release is required) and verify pertinent information contained thereon
b. Sign it and include the time (if a paper release is required). Ensure your FO signs it and includes his/her employee number
c. Obtain a weather briefing from a dispatcher or from the weather package including NOTAMS pertaining to the flight
d. Inventory all required documents and equipment.
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Question 12

If the Captain is missing, The First Officer will contact OCC and wait for the Captain to review the EFB STAR.
a. True
b. False
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Question 13

A PSA pilot is considered briefed on the jumpseat and does not require a briefing by the crew.
a. True
b. False
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Question 14

Which of the following would be required if it is apparent the fueler is unfamiliar with refueling operations on the airplane?
a. Maintenance control must be contacted
b. The captain will perform an inspection on the fuel truck and check the fuel
c. Maintenance control will direct the fueler how to properly perform the procedure
d. The captain will monitor the fueling process to ensure the fueler knows how to use the refuel/defuel panel
e. All of the above
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Question 15

If the potable water system is INOP the plane is required to be catered with drinks.
a. True
b. False
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Question 16

With regard to extended onboard delays, ground time starts at door closure and ends:
a. When the plane returns back to the gate, or a remote parking area under the airline’s control with the passenger door open AND transportation to the terminal available AND a PA informing passengers is made
b. The plane takes off
c. The door is at a remote parking area and is cleared by ground control to a gate for purposes of deplaning
d. All of the above
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Question 17

At what delay time is/ are cookies and a limited passenger beverage service required?
a. 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 90 minutes
d. No later than 2 hours
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Question 18

The minimum ground crew for pushback will consist of (1) operator/guide person, and (1) wing walker.
a. True
b. False
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Question 19

Ground personnel will ensure that customer boarding is terminated on an adjacent aircraft using the same gate door before commencing the pushback.
a. True
b. False
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Question 20

When is a flight officially released by dispatch?
a. When the captain signs the release
b. After the release is sent via Sabre
c. When the flight first moves for the purpose of flight
d. As soon as the crew receives the paperwork
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Question 21

All of the following are required when taxiing across a runway EXCEPT:
a. Coordinate any instructions to hold short of or cross an intersecting runway
b. Scan the full length of the runway for potential conflicts
c. Illuminate both the taxi and landing lights during low visibility and night operations
d. Captain should verbalize “clear left” and FO should verbalize “clear right”
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Question 22

22. At what point is visibility considered too low to use the FMS or ACARS during taxi?
    a. ¾ SM or 4000 RVR
    b. ½ SM or 2400 RVR
    c. <1200 RVR
    d. < 1000 RVR
    FOM _

Question 23

The weather is ¼ SM and calm winds on the METAR. The airport of departure has one runway, 4/22. Runway 4 has RVR reporting 1700, 2000, 1800; runway 22 has no RVR. The First Officer:
a. May not takeoff until conditions improve
b. May takeoff on runway 4
c. May takeoff on runway 22
d. May takeoff on either runway
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Question 24

Intersection takeoffs are approved without ACARS.
a. True
b. False
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Question 25

The first officer may not takeoff on a runway that is 5,000’ or less.
a. True
b. False
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Question 26

What is the recommended holding speed?
a. ACARS calculated holding speed, not below Vref Clean+ 10
b. ACARS calculated holding speed, not below Vref Clean+ 20
c. ACARS calculated holding speed, not below Vref Clean+ 30
d. ACARS calculated holding speed, not below Vref Clean+ 40
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Question 27

A descent rate of 1500’ per minute or less should be used:
a. When the aircraft is within 3,000’ of the altitude it is descending to
b. When the aircraft is within 5,000’ of the ground
c. During all descents
d. The last 1,000 feet descending to assigned altitude
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Question 28

When flying an OPD Arrival and issued a “descend via” clearance
a. Enter the Each Altitude of the STAR in the Altitude Select Window
b. Enter the First Hard Altitude of the STAR in the Altitude Select Window
c. Read back the Descent Via Clearance Verbatim
d. Both B and C
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Question 29

You may conduct a CAT I ILS approach to minimums below RVR 4000 feet or ¾ mile visibility without any operative flight director if the crew has been trained to do so.
a. True
b. False
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Question 30

When advised that simultaneous parallel ILS approaches are in progress, the crew must advise ATC:
a. Of any inoperative receivers
b. If they have penetrated the NTZ
c. They have briefed the “attention all users page”
d. They are willing to accept a simultaneous parallel ILS approach
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Question 31

The minimum required ceiling and visibility is 1,000’ and 3 SM for all circling approaches unless published minimums are higher.
a. True
b. False
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Question 32

All of the following are criteria for a stabilized approach EXCEPT:
a. On the proper flightpath
b. At a speed between Vref and Vref+10 knots, engines spooled up
c. Gear down, Flaps 45° (or 20° single engine)
d. Landing clearance
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Question 33

Under what condition is a missed approach required to be executed?
a. On a VOR approach you get a CDI deviation of 4 degrees
b. On a CAT I ILS you get a ½ scale deflection of the glideslope indicator between the final approach fix and the appropriate minimums
c. On a CAT I ILS you get a ¾ scale deflection of the CDI between the final approach fix and the appropriate minimums
d. On a LDA approach you get a ½ scale deflection of the CDI between the final approach fix and the appropriate minimums
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Question 34

Upon reaching the DA the aircraft may not continue to descend unless which of the following visual references is distinctly visible?
a. Runway Lights
b. VASI
c. ALSF-2 red side row lights
d. Any of the above
e. All of the above
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Question 35

Transition from using the electronic glideslope to the VASI on an ILS should occur at what point on the approach?
a. At 500 feet above TDZE
b. As soon as the runway environment is in sight
c. Upon crossing the middle marker
d. Upon reaching the DA
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Question 36

If you are flying into BTV and the OAT is -20°C and you are using the ILS to runway 33 which has a DA of 1073’ (250’), you would set your MDA to what?
a. 1080
b. 1100
c. 1130
d. 1200
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Question 37

The weather minimums required in order to accept a LAHSO clearance (ILS but no VASI or PAPI) are:
a. 3 SM /1,000 ft
b. 3 SM / 2,000 ft
c. 5 SM / 1,500 ft
d. 5 SM / 2,000 ft
FOM _

Question 38

In order to fly the LDA-A approach (final approach course 234°) into LGA (no straight-in minimums) which of the following restrictions apply?
a. Pilots may use the published circling minimums provided they land on runway 22
b. The ceiling and visibility required to perform the approach are 1,000 ft and 3 SM for a circling maneuver
c. Use of this approach is not permitted because there are no straight-in minimums
d. The approach may only be used if you will be doing the visual approach, but TRACON is just using the approach for arrival sequencing
e. Both A and B
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Question 39

If external power is available the APU should only be started on taxi-in if:
a. External air is not available and passenger comfort necessitates
b. Taxi time to the gate is expected to be excessive
c. External power will take a few minutes to hook up upon parking
d. All of the above
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Question 40

When using remote parking, a pilot must remain onboard until all passengers and flight attendant(s) have deplaned.
a. True
b. False
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Question 41

Crewmembers must stay at the company-provided lodging when on an overnight layover.
a. True
b. False
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Question 42

Anytime a pilot is on reserve, the flight duty period begins at the start of the reserve availability period
a. True
b. False
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Question 43

Which of the following actions must be performed each flight prior to flight into RVSM airspace?
a. Ensure that the logbook contains no write-ups/MELs affecting required RVSM equipment
b. Ensure that the external skin is smooth in the vicinity of all three static sources
c. Aircraft altimeters should display the airport elevation, within 75 feet, with the current local altimeter setting
d. All of the above
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Question 44

If an altimetry system error occurred in RVSM airspace, at what threshold would a report to ATC be required?
a. The captain and first officer altimeters are both 100 feet low
b. The captain’s altimeter is 100 feet high and the first officer’s is 100 feet low
c. The captain’s altimeter is 200 feet high and the first officer’s is 100 feet low
d. The standby altimeter is 400 feet high
e. All of the above
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Question 45

If on an international flight enroute to Canada, if after leaving US airspace the flight diverts back to the US, the Captain Shall allow the passengers to deplane if informed by Dispatch the passengers may be released.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

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Question 46

In Canada converting RVR values (in feet) into visibility values (in SM) can be done using the same table we use to convert them in the U.S.
a. True
b. False
FOM

Question 47

Ferry flights are permitted within Canadian airspace?
a. True
b. False
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Question 48

Aircraft fly at airspeeds greater than 250 KIAS below 10,000 feet over international waters, but must slow to 250 KIAS by what point?
a. Within 30 NM of the intended landing airport
b. Must be 250 KIAS at all times below 10,000 feet
c. Within 15 NM of Freeport International Airport
d. 10 NM prior to crossing onto land in The Bahamas
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Question 49

Prior to a departure from Freeport, Bahamas the crew must ensure that the flight attendant has which documents?
a. The I-94 for non-US customers
b. A U.S. crewmember declaration
c. The General Declaration
d. A & C
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Question 50

During the preflight announcement on an international flight operating back into the U.S., in addition to the standard announcement, the captain should include:
a. A reminder to use the lavatory closest to their seat
b. A request that passengers not congregate in any area in the cabin, especially near the lavatory
c. That the seatbelt sign will remain on and that passengers are expected to remain in their seat
d. A reminder to complete all customs paperwork in order to ensure a smooth transition through U.S. customs
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