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PSA CA Upgrade > FOM Chapter 4 > Flashcards

FOM Chapter 4 Flashcards

1
Q

The CA is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT:
a. All matters pertaining to out-station mx being performed properly
b. Brief crewmembers regarding their duties relating to emergency procedures
c. Ensuring the aircraft visual inspection is completed prior to and following each flight
d. Ensure flight attendant security inspection is properly performed
e. Ensure aircraft has all equipment required to comply with FARs
FOM ___.___.___

A
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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding Drugs and Alcohol at PSA?
a. You may be terminated if you allow another pilot to perform his/her flight duty while under the influence
b. You may be terminated if you possess any illegal drug in your carry-on
c. You may not have over-the-counter drugs in your system while performing flight duties
d. You may not refuse a required drug or alcohol test
FOM ___.___.___

A
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3
Q

The use of smokeless or chewing tobacco and electronic cigarettes is not permitted onboard aircraft by crewmembers or pax
a. True
b. False
FOM ___.___.___

A
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4
Q

With the autopilot engaged, the PF should make all FCP and FMS inputs regardless of workload.
a. True
b. False
FOM ___.___.___

A
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5
Q

Prior to daily flight operations the iPad battery must be charged to:
a. 100%
b. 10% per scheduled flight hour rounded up w/ a one hour buffer
c. 85%-90%
d. Above 75%
FOM ___.___.___

A
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6
Q

The Safety & Power On and Securing Checklists:
a. Are Read & Do items
b. Are accomplished silently
c. Verbalizing “Securing Checklist Complete” is not required if the other pilot is not present
d. all of the above
FOM __.__.__

A
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7
Q

Which of the following conditions does NOT authorize a flight to continue to a special qual airport?
a. The PIC has flown into that airport within the preceding 12 months
b. The SIC has flown into that airport within the preceding 12 months
c. Weather at that airport is greater than 1000’ ceiling and 3 miles visibility
d. The PIC has viewed the pictorial presentation within the preceding 12 months
FOM __.__.__

A
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8
Q

Which of the following qualifications is NOT required to act as PIC?
a. Three TOL within 90 days
b. Three landings at night within 90 days
c. Proficiency Check within last 12 months
d. Recurrent ground school within the last 12 months
FOM __.__.__

A
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9
Q

Sending ACARS messages that are not of critical operational necessity nor safety related are prohibited when:
a. The aircraft is above 10,000’ on departure
b. The aircraft is in cruise flight
c. The aircraft is above FL180 on arrival
d. The aircraft is in motion on the ground
FOM __.__.__

A
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10
Q
  1. You are required to use ARINC in flight and you are on the border of two different frequencies, you choose a frequency and transmit. You hear an automated message, “Flight calling San Francisco; please stand by.” You hear nothing for three minutes. What should be your next course of action?
    a. Remain on the frequency and continue to wait for an answer
    b. Switch to the adjacent frequency (you may have chosen the wrong one)
    c. Try to reach them via 121.5
    d. Contact Flight Watch on 122.0 to request a phone patch
    FOM __.__.__
A
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11
Q
  1. When you hear: “radar contact lost,” or “radar contact terminated” when are position reports required?
    a. Over compulsory points
    b. Leaving the FAF inbound on a non-precision approach
    c. Crossing the outer marker (or named FAF) on glide slope of an ILS approach
    d. All of the above
    FOM __.__.__
A
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12
Q
  1. A report to your dispatcher should be made when:
    a. Your ETA at your destination will be delayed longer than 10 minutes
    b. Proceeding to your alternate airport
    c. Moderate icing conditions are present in flight
    d. The outstation airport doesn’t have a Starbucks
    FOM __.__.__
A
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13
Q
  1. When is a report to ATC or FSS facility NOT required?
    a. Upon entering an assigned holding pattern
    b. When you are unable to maintain a climb/descent rate of at least 500 fpm
    c. When one VOR receiver is deferred by MEL
    d. When executing a missed approach
    FOM __.__.__
A
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14
Q
  1. In the event of communications loss in VMC conditions at FL 280, what action should be taken by the crew?
    a. Remain in VMC conditions and land as soon as practical
    b. Remain in VMC as long as possible while still proceeding to your intended destination
    c. Continue at your last assigned altitude on your filed route to the clearance limit, then descend and proceed to an IAF on the expected approach, and land as close as possible to the files ETA
    d. Squawk 7700 on your transponder and deviate as you see fit
    FOM __.__.__
A
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15
Q
  1. While flying your route you experience an FMS failure. After ensuring aircraft is in positive control, your next action is to:
    a. Consult the QRH for FMS failure
    b. Identify the nearest VOR facility appropriate to your altitude and navigate to it
    c. Proceed direct to the next VOR facility on your filed route
    d. Report to ATC the failure including aircraft ID, equipment that failed, nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC.
    FOM __.__.__
A
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16
Q
  1. The fasten seatbelt sign should be turned AUTO during cruise flight unless moderate or greater turbulence is expected.
    a. True
    b. False
    FOM __.__.__
A
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17
Q
  1. During an extended ground delay you have permitted FA’s to perform customer related services. When it is time to taxi the rest of the way to the runway you must coordinate with the cabin crew. You may continue your taxi provided:
    a. The PED sign is turned on
    b. There is sufficient time remaining to the runway to permit everyone to power down PEDs
    c. You receive a call from the FA stating, “secure for takeoff (or taxi)”
    d. You are on a non-movement area
    FOM __.__.__
A
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18
Q
  1. An announcement will be made by the captain or FO when turning the fasten seatbelt sign ON or OFF in-flight.
    a. True
    b. False
    FOM __.__.__
A
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19
Q
  1. When operating at an airport without ATC services or on-field FSS pilots should:
    a. Contact station operations for advisory services
    b. Broadcast your position and intentions on CTAF
    c. Contact dispatch, FSS (via RCO), or another ATC facility upon landing to close out your IFR flight plan
    d. All of the above
    FOM __.__.__
A
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20
Q
  1. When operating to an uncontrolled airport in VMC, pilots may cancel their IFR flight plan and proceed under VFR provided:
    a. The runway of intended landing is in sight
    b. You monitor CTAF and remain within 10 NM of the destination airport, or visual reference with the landing surface is established and can be maintained throughout the approach and landing
    c. You are in constant communication with dispatch
    d. You remain within class E airspace
    FOM __.__.__
A
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21
Q
  1. Passenger Carry On Items are NOT permitted on the Flight Deck.
    a. True
    b. False
    FOM __.__.__
A
22
Q
  1. Occasionally TSA performs additional screening at the departure gate, deadheading crew members are subject to this additional screening including pat-down search and being wanded, unless
    a. The crewmember has a SIDA badge for that specific airport
    b. The crewmember shows their ID and copy of their trip sheet showing the deadhead assignment
    c. The gate agent informs the TSA agent that you are deadheading
    d. Deadheading crewmembers are not exempt to this additional screening
    FOM __.__.__
A
23
Q
  1. If the yoke form is not present after the completion of a security search, verbal confirmation from station operations that the search has been completed is acceptable.
    a. True
    b. False
    FOM __.__.__
A
24
Q
  1. Which statement is FALSE regarding securing an unattended aircraft procedure:
    a. If not parked on a jetway then the main cabin door, galley service door and cargo doors must be secure.
    b. If not parked on a jetway then the main cabin door may be left open but, galley service door, and cargo doors must be secured.
    c. If parked on a jetway and the jetway has working locks on the terminal and ramp access doors then the main cabin door may be left open but the galley service and cargo doors must be secure.
    d. If parked on a jetway and the jetway does not have working locks on the terminal or ramp access doors then the main cabin, galley service and cargo doors must be secured.
    FOM __.__.__
A
25
Q
  1. A FAM may occupy the flightdeck jumpseat provided:
    a. There is a specific threat associated with that flight that requires his/her use of the jumpseat
    b. He/she shows credentials
    c. They require its use during flight after a threat level 4 has been contained and they desire to come up to ensure the flightdeck remains secure
    d. Under normal circumstances, they are never allowed to occupy the jumpseat
    FOM __.__.__
A
26
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding FFDOs traveling on your flight?
    a. FFDOs must identify themselves to the gate agent
    b. FFDOs may fly with their weapons internationally
    c. FFDOs must be told that other armed individuals onboard know of their presence
    d. FFDOs may place their non-descript bag, with firearm inside, on the flightdeck with the captain’s concurrence
    FOM __.__.__
A
27
Q
  1. If someone is removed from an international flight prior to pushback the PIC is responsible to ensure that their checked bag is also removed.
    a. True
    b. False
    FOM __.__.__
A
28
Q
  1. A Secret Service agent assigned to protect a person onboard may continuously occupy the jumpseat of a flight from takeoff to landing.
    a. True
    b. False
    FOM __.__.__
A
29
Q
  1. Which of the following people below may NOT occupy the flightdeck jumpseat?
    a. A dispatcher of any air carrier certified under Part 119 whose identity is verified in CASS
    b. PSA pilot not in uniform with company ID
    c. Any base coordinator on company business with their company ID and a letter from the Director of Ops
    d. A pilot from a non wholly owned that can not be verified in CASS
    FOM __.__.__
A
30
Q
  1. Which of the following disqualifies an otherwise qualified individual from occupying the jumpseat?
    a. The person is unfamiliar with how to use the jumpseat
    b. The flight is a repositioning flight
    c. The person works for an airline you are unfamiliar with
    d. The person is wearing denim pants
    FOM __.__.__
A
31
Q
  1. If a dispatcher from another airline is on the flight deck jumpseat and pilot needs to leave the flight deck the flight attendant is required to remain on the flight deck.
    a. True
    b. False
    FOM __.__.__
A
32
Q
  1. Regarding command and control of the aircraft, all of the following are acceptable practices EXCEPT:
    a. Having the PM “monitor the autopilot”
    b. Transferring controls to the PM after a verbal exchange
    c. Overriding the PF control inputs with your own
    d. The pilot flying will visually ensure the transfer
    FOM __.__.__
A
33
Q
  1. Which of the following may operate the aircraft from the right seat?
    a. A type rated line captain
    b. Any Chief Pilot
    c. A check airman
    d. A contracted pilot with SIC rating on the CRJ
    FOM __.__.__
A
34
Q
  1. The Captain is PM and off COM1 dealing with MedLink, FO is flying and using COM1. The Captain may brief the FO to lower the gear and flaps himself provided he verbalizes before moving the levers.
    a. True
    b. False
    FOM __.__.__
A
35
Q
  1. If one of the two iPads onboard fails at a Non-Crew Base which of the following is true with the normal procedure?
    a. Chief Pilots may authorize single iPad use with no paper
    b. Crew must print a paper release, and appropriate trip kit
    c. ACARs must be operable
    d. Crew must have 2 operable iPads
    FOM _ ______
A
36
Q
  1. Either the Captain or FO must remain in their seat during a turn with the APU inop when an engine will remain running during deplaning/boarding.
    a. True
    b. False
    FOM __.__.__
A
37
Q
  1. Cruise flight at 9,000 feet MSL is considered sterile cockpit.
    a. True
    b. False
    FOM __.__.__
A
38
Q
  1. Which of the following activities is NOT permitted during a critical phase of flight?
    a. Calling ops to transmit OUT/OFF times prior to reaching 10,000 MSL
    b. Programming the FMS for a last-minute approach change
    c. Calling ops during taxi-in to ensure the aircraft is catered on a quick turn
    d. Transferring aircraft controls
    FOM __.__.__
A
39
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding aircraft speed?
    a. 200 knot max speed in class D airspace when at or below 2,500 feet AGL with 4 NM of the primary airport
    b. Operating at 250 knots max speed in class C airspace at all times
    c. 200 knot max speed below the lateral limits of class B airspace
    d. Maintain ATC assigned speed ± 10 knots, if unable advise
    FOM __.__.__
A
40
Q
  1. When on a visual approach into BHM runway 6, the aircraft must remain how far from the antenna farm on the base leg?
    a. 1,000 feet above or greater
    b. more than 2,000 feet away laterally
    c. both A & B
    d. either A or B
    FOM __.__.__
A
41
Q
  1. No pilot may fly lower than the published MEA on an airway unless:
    a. The pilot loses radio communication
    b. Within 22 NM of a VOR with a published MOCA on the route
    c. The pilot maintains at least 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of the course flown for the continuous U.S.
    d. The altitude is assigned by ATC
    FOM __.__.__
A
42
Q
  1. The landing lights must remain on for takeoff and all operations below 10,000 feet in flight.
    a. True
    b. False
    FOM __.__.__
A
43
Q
  1. During severe low pressure FL 190 is usable down to what altimeter setting?
    a. 28.92
    b. 28.42
    c. 27.92
    d. 26.92
    FOM __.__.__
A
44
Q
  1. When assigned a crossing restriction with a lower altitude pilots may delay their descent provided:
    a. ATC uses the phrase “descend and maintain”
    b. The controller states “pilot’s discretion”
    c. The PF briefs the PM when the delayed descent will begin
    d. The crossing restriction is published
    FOM __.__.__
A
45
Q
  1. The PF monitors the aircraft while the PM monitors the PF and the aircraft, in addition, all of the following will be monitored EXCEPT:
    a. Flight instruments including crosschecking against the other side
    b. The correct altimeter settings and altitude readouts on both sides
    c. Flight, engine, system instruments, and avionics equipment
    d. Company operations frequency
    FOM __.__.__
A
46
Q
  1. If a runway has all right side edge lights NOTAM’d out of service that runway should be considered unusable at night.
    a. True
    b. False
    c. Maybe
    FOM __.__.__
A
47
Q
  1. The use of Portable Electronic Devices on the flight deck is prohibited:
    a. Only during critical phases of flight
    b. When the PED sign is ON
    c. When the aircraft is parked on the ground
    d. Any time the aircraft is in motion
    FOM __.__.__
A
48
Q
  1. What is the additive required for reduced visibility takeoff for a captain on high minimums?
    a. ½ mile
    b. 1 mile
    c. 50 percent additive to that required on the Jepp chart
    d. No additive required for takeoffs
    FOM __.__.__
A
49
Q
  1. A High Minimums Captain will not commence an ILS approach when the weather conditions are below 4000 RVR (3/4 mi) and the crosswind exceeds 15 kts with a braking action of less than “good”
    a. True
    b. False
    FOM __.__.__
A
50
Q
  1. You have just completed upgrade OE, you may be paired with an FO who has also just completed IOE.
    a. True
    b. False
    FOM __.__.__
A

PSA CA Upgrade (5 decks)

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