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PSA CA Upgrade > Random Knowledge > Flashcards

Random Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

SMOKE FUMES IN THE COCKPIT

A
  1. Oxygen mask (if required)- Don & 100%
  2. Crew Communication- Establish
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2
Q

CABIN ALT MESSAGE

A
  1. Oxygen Mask- Don & 100%
  2. Crew Communications- Establish
  3. Captain assumes PF duties
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3
Q

STAB TRIM RUNAWAY

A
  1. Control Wheel- Assume manual control and override runaway
  2. Stab Trim Disconnect- Push, hold, and release
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4
Q

BRAKING LOSS/ASYMMETRY

A
  1. Wheel Brakes- Release momentarily
  2. PM will select Antiskid to off
  3. Wheel Brakes- Reapply as required
  4. Reverse Thrust- Apply maximum until stopping assured
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5
Q

Crew coordination steps

A

1) PF- maintain aircraft control
2) Identify non-normal (cancel warning)
3) Accomplish immediate action items (if applicable-memorized or QRC)
4) CA assigns PF
5) Complete QRH procedures
6) Analyze and develop plan

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6
Q

Minimum alternate fuel

A

1500 lbs

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7
Q

Minimum fuel for go around

A

600 lbs/wing

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8
Q

Max AC load on engine

A

40 kva

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9
Q

ADG min speed needed

A

135 kts to power

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10
Q

What does ADG power?

A

Essential bus
-slats/flaps 1/2 each motor
-hydraulic pump 3B (primary flight controls)
-Stab ch 2

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11
Q

CA does takeoff if vis is?

A

Less than 1600 RVR or 1/4sm

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12
Q

Steady state idle engine oil pressure

A

25 psi minimum

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13
Q

Tire limit ground speed (700/900)

A

700- 182 kts
900- 195 kts

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14
Q

On flight less than 1 hour, which wx do you use?

A

METAR or TAF- whichever is worse

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15
Q

Pax O2 time

A

13 minutes

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16
Q

Max DC load on each TRU

A

120 amps

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17
Q

What does TRU stand for and what do they do?

A

Transformer rectifier units
Transforms 120 volt AC power into 28 volt DC power

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18
Q

Cargo carry limitation
Why?

A

Flight must be within 60 minutes of a suitable airport if cargo is carried in either cargo compartment.
Slow release cargo fire extinguisher only lasts 60 minutes.

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19
Q

Aircraft required forms/manuals

A

1) airworthiness cert
2) registration
3) FCC license
4) EFB
5) normal checklist (2 avail, 1 req)
6) QRC (2 avail, 1 req next to PM)
7) QRH

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20
Q

EFB required documents

A

EFB STAR, POH, FOM, MEL, CDL, GNG, NEF, system resets (manual), HOT tables, RCAM/OLD tables, speed book, air carrier insurance document, international ferry auth letters (if needed)

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21
Q

Air start ITT

A

<90

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22
Q

Minimum ambient temperature approved for takeoff

A

-40*C

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23
Q

Maximum ambient temperature for TOL

A

ISA + 35*C

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24
Q

RVSM required equipment

A

1)Autopilot- must be operational
2)Altitude alerting system- must be operational
3)Altitude reporting transponder (2)- 1 must be operational
4)ADC (2)- both must be operational

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25
Q

APU max start and operating altitude

A

37,000’
41,000’

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26
Q

FLEX takeoff limitations

A
  1. Anti skid must be operative
  2. Prohibited on contaminated runways
  3. Prohibited if airplane has been deiced
  4. Prohibited if wing or cowl anti ice bleeds in use
  5. Prohibited if windshear or downdraft warnings in forecast
  6. Prohibited with engine that can’t achieve full rated thrust
  7. Prohibited when a special departure procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff
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27
Q

Ground start ITT

A

<120*C

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28
Q

Max cruise Mach in RVSM airspace

A

.82 M

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29
Q

Maximum landing weight (7/9)

A

700- 67,000 lbs
900- 75,100 lbs

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30
Q

Maximum pressure altitude for TOL

A

8000 ft

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31
Q

Maximum continuous thrust & APR

A

12,670
APR- 13,790

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32
Q

NLG turning limit with & without torque link

A

80% with
8% without

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33
Q

Engine starter cranking limits
Dry motoring cycle

A
  1. 90 secs. 5 mins OFF
    2&sub. 30 secs. 5 mins OFF
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34
Q

Oil pressures (5)

A

1) Steady state idle: 25 psi min
2) Takeoff power: 45 psi min
3) Maximum continuous: 95 psi max
4) Maximum transient: 156 psi when oil temp is <60*C
5) Maximum transient after cold start (10 minutes max): 182 psi or amber dashes

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35
Q

Cold start oil pressure must remain

A

At idle until oil pressure returns to normal range

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36
Q

Max time at 2 engine TOGA

A

5 minutes

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37
Q

When must you do a RAIM check?

A

If dispatched to a destination with no ground based approaches

38
Q

EGPWS landing gear

A

Below 500’
Below 190 KIAS

39
Q

When is tactile check required?

A

1) <10C
2) Bulk fuel <0C
3) Conditions favorable to frost formation
4) Ice & frost may adhere to the wings >10*C

40
Q

PYLD

A

Actual pax x seasonal weight
Pax x 1.5 x 34 (bag weight)
+ cargo

41
Q

How much dry ice is allowed on board?

A

275 lbs
5.5 lbs each package
Up to 50 lbs for medical shipments

42
Q

Manual cabin pressure limits

A

8.6 +/-.1
-.5

43
Q

Airspeed green line

A

Minimum steady flight speed

44
Q

BARC

A

Takeoff fuel
Burn Alternate Reserve Contingency

45
Q

BARM

A

Hold fuel
Burn Alternate Reserve Missed

46
Q

Maneuvering limit load factors
Flaps retracted
Flaps extended

A

Retracted -1.0 to +2.5 G
Extended 0.0 to +2.0 G

47
Q

DC service switch connects what?

A

DC SERV bus to APU battery direct bus

48
Q

AC bus 2 power priority

A

Gen 2, APU gen, Gen 1, external AC power

49
Q

What happens when CPAM fails

A

Ground valve (OVBD cool fail)
Auto oxygen mask drops at 14,000’
Seatbelt sign auto at 10,000’

50
Q

Stall indicators

A

Stick shaker
Stick pusher
Audio warning
Visual warning
AP disconnect
Continuous ignition
Opens bleeds to prevent compression stall

51
Q

Emergency review

A

Type of emergency
Estimated time available
Signal & evac
Take special instructions

52
Q

Explain dual vs single fire loops

A

Dual- both must detect fire
If one fails it reverts to single
1 failed + 1 sensing fire

53
Q

What is on the DC service bus?
What is on the DC utility bus?

A

Navs/Lavs/Domes
Reading light

54
Q

Minimum contingency fuel (7/9)

A

700- 937 lbs
900- 1082 lbs
Shit hits the fan fuel
HFR- based on historical data

55
Q

Trim order of importance

A

Manual
Autopilot
Auto
Mach

56
Q

What type of engine do we have?

A

CF34-8C5B1

57
Q

Threat levels

A

Level 1- disruptive
Level 2- physically abusive behavior
Level 3- life threatening behavior
Level 4- attempt breach of cockpit

58
Q

Reserve fuel (7/9)

A

700- 2100 lbs
900- 2200 lbs

59
Q

When are you allowed to turn on departure?

A

No turns until 50’

50’-400’ turns require crew briefing before departure

60
Q

How is the NLG down and locked?
Up and locked?

A

D&L: mechanically & hydraulically with over center lock
U&L: mechanically with up lock

61
Q

TO config OK message requires what?

A

1) both engines running
2) reverses not deployed
3) autopilot not engaged
4) flaps in TO position (8/20)
5) parking brake off
6) aileron/rudder trim <1* stab trim between 3.6-11.6
7) flight spoilers not deployed

62
Q

What does the source select panel do/control?

A

Regains lost display info during AHRS or ADC failure

63
Q

Maximum runway slope approved for TOL

A

+/- 2.0

64
Q

Engine starter cranking limits in flight

A
  1. 2 mins. 10 secs OFF
    2&sub. 1 min. 5 mins OFF
65
Q

N2 RPM start limit

A

The starter must not be engaged if indicated N2 RPM exceeds 45% (inflight or on ground)

66
Q

GCU monitors for what?

A

Generator Control Unit

1) over current
2) out of phase
3) over/under voltage
4) over/under frequency

Gives “Generator Overload” message

67
Q

Stall test required items

A

Hydraulics
Flaps/slats up
Stick pusher (both on)
Pitch trim 6.0 +/- .2

68
Q

CRJ 700 dimensions

A

24’10” ground to top of tail
106’8” length
76’3” width
Pavement 180* turn: 75’

69
Q

CRJ 900 dimensions

A

24’10” ground to top of tail
118’11” length
81’6” width

Pavement 180* turn 80’

70
Q

EICAS components

A

ED 1&2 (CRTs)
2 DCUs (data control units)
Audio panel
LDU (lamp driver unit)

71
Q

What panel do you move the PFD to the MFD in case of failure?

A

Display reversionary panel

72
Q

When the EICAS panel fails, which buttons are mechanical and still functioning?

A

PRI
CAS
STAT
STEP

73
Q

Tanker fuel

A

Minimum 330 lbs
Taxi- 7 minutes
APU- .7 (42 minutes)
Also for fuel cost savings

74
Q

IDG components

A

Constant speed drive
Generator
GCU (generator control unit)

75
Q

What powers the “fire fighting” items after pushing the engine fire emergency button?

A

DC power

76
Q

Rudder travel in degrees

A

33-4 movement

77
Q

IDG switchlight turns on for?

A

High oil temp
Low oil pressure
Over torque

More??

78
Q

Missed appch fuel (in contingency)

A

700- 170 lbs
900- 222 lbs

79
Q

How to restore AC ESS BUS to AC bus 1 and the APU Gen after ADG deploys?

A

Stow ADG deploy handle
Press PWR XFR OVERRIDE button

80
Q

Bleed valves are ___ controlled & ___ operated.

ISOLATION valve & wing A/ICE xbleed valves are ___ & ___?

A

Electrically; Pneumatically

Electric; electric

81
Q

CAS messages inhibited when?

A

TO power- 400’

82
Q

CPAM uses which static source?

A

S3

83
Q

Can the APU be started with external ground power?

A

No.
Power has to come from the batteries.
There is no DC plug

84
Q

What are NACA vents?

A

Look it up :)

85
Q

MEL categories

Which can be deferred?

A

A- specified time
B- w/in 3 days
C- w/in 10 days
D- w/in 120 days

B&C can be deferred

86
Q

When can’t low time FO land?

A
  1. RVR < 4000
  2. Vis < 3/4 sm
  3. Windshear
  4. Braking cond < good
  5. Contaminated runway
  6. CA says so
  7. Special qual airport
  8. Xwind > 15kts
87
Q

RVSM airspace altitudes

A

29,000-41,000 ft

88
Q

What happens at FL316

A

1/2 bank on
IAS changes to Mach

89
Q

TO config ok

A
  1. Flaps 8 or 20
  2. Autopilot off
  3. Parking brake off
  4. Trim in green (stab)
  5. Trim in green (aileron)
  6. Trim in green (rudder)
  7. Spoilers stowed
90
Q

What does CPAM mean?
What does it control?

A

Cabin pressure acquisition module:
We don’t actually have one, but it’s like it
-Turns the seatbelt sign on at 10,000 feet
-drops pax oxygen masks at 14,500 feet cabin pressure altitude
-Controls the ground valve (if it doesn’t close, the plane won’t pressurize)

PSA CA Upgrade (5 decks)

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