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Diseases > Surgery C - Oral & Maxillofacial > Flashcards

Surgery C - Oral & Maxillofacial Flashcards

1
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2
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3
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Head and neck cancer is ther ____th most common cancer

A

Head and neck cancer is ther 8th most common cancer

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4
Q
  • The major risk factors for head and neck cancer in the UK
    are:
A

Smoking (tobacco)
Alcohol consumption

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5
Q

Human Papilloma Virus has also gained increased
recognition in terms of ____________ cancer

A

Human Papilloma Virus has also gained increased
recognition in terms of oropharyngeal cancer

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6
Q

Which type of cancer is associated with epstrin barr virus?

A
  • Nasophayngeal
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7
Q

What are some Premalignant Lesions that can cause head and neck cancer?

A

Leukoplakia
Erythroplakia
Oral epithelial dysplasia
Oral Lichenoid lesions
Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia
Chronic Hyperplastic Candidiasis

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8
Q

What are some Premalignant conditions that can cause head and neck cancer?

A

Fanconi anaemia
Ataxia telangiectasia
Blooms syndrome
Li-Fraumeni syndrome

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9
Q

What type of Immunosuppression can cause head and neck cancer?

A

AIDS (Kaposi, non-Hodgkins)
Immunosuppressive therapy

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10
Q

What type of Premalignant lesion is this?

A

Leukoplakia

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11
Q

What type of Premalignant lesion is this?

A

Erythoplakia

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12
Q

What type of Premalignant lesion is this?

A

Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia

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13
Q

Clinical presentation of head and neck cancer in oral cavity

A
  • Leukoplakia/Erythroplakia
    *Persistent ulcer
    *Pain
    *Pain radiating to ear
    *Submucosal swelling
    *Speech/Swallow disturbance
    *Enlarged lymph nodes
  • Cranial nerve involvement V, XII
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14
Q

Head and Neck Cancer Clinical presentation: Nasopharynx

A
  • Obstruction
  • Nasal discharge
    *Blood stained discharge
  • Unilateral hearing loss
  • Cervical lymphadenopathy
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15
Q

Head and Neck Cancer
Clinical presentation:
Oropharyngeal/Hypopharynx

A
  • Sore throat
  • Sensation of a foreign body in the throat
  • Dysphonia
  • Dysphagia
  • Odynophagia
  • Pain referred to ear
  • Cervical lymphadenopathy
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16
Q

What is the head and neck clinical presentation?

A

Cervical lymphadenopathy

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17
Q

Head and Neck Cancers
Clinical presentation: Larynx

A
  • Hoarseness
    *Swallowing difficulties
    *Pain
  • Cervical lymphadenopathy
    *Airway compromise
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18
Q

Head and Neck Cancers
Clinical presentation: Salivary glands

A
  • Lump in gland
    *Pain (less common)
  • Facial nerve weakness
  • Hypoglossal/lingual nerve impairment
  • Lump in mouth
  • Oropharyngeal mass
  • Cervical lymphadenopathy
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19
Q

What is the head and neck clinical presentation?

A

Parotid mass

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20
Q

Diagnostics for head and neck cancer ?

A
  • Clinical examination
  • Thorough oral cavity exam- (good lighting)
    *Exam of cervical lymph nodes (clinical skill)
    *Examine scalp.
  • Cranial nerve exam
  • Flexible naso endoscopy (FNE)
    *Examination under Anaesthesia- Panendoscopy
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21
Q

Majority of head and
neck cancers are

A

Majority of head and
neck cancers are Squamous cell carcinoma

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22
Q

Head and neck cancers
What type of biopsies can you take for histology?

A

Incisional biopsy
Fine needle aspirate (fna)
Core biopsy

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23
Q

Imaging for head and neck cancer?

A
  • Oral Cavity- MRI for soft tissue, CT if bony
  • Oropharynx- MRI
  • Nasopharynx- MRI
  • Hypopharynx- MRI
  • Larynx- MRI
    *Salivary- MRI
  • To rule out metastasis- CT Chest
  • Orthopantogram- for dental assessment
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24
Q

What type of cancer ultrasound is useful for

A

lymphadenopathy as can use US to characterize the neck
lump and attain an FNA

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25
Q

What type of cancer CT is useful for

A

CT scan useful for certain situations- i.e bony involvement,
parotid disease with query extension to stylomastoid
foramen, for surgical planning for bony extension

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26
Q

What type of cancer PET CT is useful for

A

Unknown primary, recurrence

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27
Q

WHat is in the MDT for head and neck cancer?

A
  • Head and Neck surgeon (Maxillofacial/ENT)
  • Radiologist
  • Clinical Oncologist
  • Histopathologist
  • Clinical nurse specialist
    *SALT
  • Dietician
  • Restorative dentists
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28
Q

What are the treatment options for head and neck cancers?

A

Surgery
Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy

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29
Q

What treatment can be considered a first line treatment for early cancers in
some subsites

A

radiotherapy

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30
Q

For oral cavity- ________ remains gold standard curative option

A

For oral cavity- surgery remains gold standard curative option

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31
Q

Radiotherapy is Delivered over a _ week period

A

Delivered over a 6 week period

32
Q

Radiotherapy
*Side effect profile – Acute

A

Mucositis
Skin erythema or ulceration
Loss of taste
Impaired nutrition
Bleeding
Infection
Lymphoedema

33
Q

Radiotherapy
Side effect profile – Late:

A

Impaired healing
Osteoradionecrosis
Impaired swallow/speech/taste
Xerostomia
Dental caries
Loss of hair
Radiation induced tumours
Cataracts

34
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Chemotherapy alone cannot cure head and neck cancer

A

TRUE

35
Q

What is the predominant use of chemotherapy in head and neck cancers?

A

Predominant use is as an adjuvant treatment for locally
advanced, recurrent and metastatic disease

36
Q

Important points to know about the chemotherapy in the head and neck cancers?

A

*Predominantly cisplatin based
* Targeted biological agents such as cetuximab has a role in
locally advanced and metastatic disease
* Neoadjuvant or induction chemo at present has not shown to
have a role

37
Q

What is the follow up like for head and neck cancer?

A
  • Treatment has a significant impact on patients quality of life
    *Patients undergo regular follow up over 5 years
  • First 2 years seen as high risk time for recurrence
  • Regular support needed- Head and neck nurse specialist
38
Q

Is head and neck cancer more common in men or women?

A

men

39
Q

Contusions and abrasions are the medical words for?

A

grazes and brusies

40
Q

An incised wound is caused by?

A

Sharp object

41
Q

A laceration is caused by?

A

Blunt object

42
Q

What is a wound?

A

An injury in which the skin is divided or its continuity broken

43
Q

Important points to remember about incision wound?

A
  • Sharp instrument
  • Scalpel
  • Knife
  • Glass
  • Clean straight edges
  • Linear
  • Single
  • Multiple
  • Often deeper than appear
  • Fine scaring
44
Q

Important points to remember about Laceration wound?

A
  • Blunt injury
  • Crushing force
  • Explosion
  • Irregular edge
  • Associated with bruising
  • Often underlying hard
    tissue injury
  • Often poor healing
  • Secondary revision
45
Q

What are the four main groups of mid face fractures?

A
  • Naso-maxillary
  • Maxilla / Upper jaw
    -Le Fort Fractures
  • Naso-ethmoid
  • Orbit
46
Q

Name some soft tissue injury?

A

Wound
Contusion
Laceration
Abrasion
Incised wound

47
Q

Definitions of
Wound
Contusion
Laceration
Abrasion
Incised wound

A

Wound – not specific injury
* Contusion – bruising beneath skin
* Laceration – cut caused by blunt trauma
- Almost always down to bone
- Some degloving lacerations only involve skin
* Abrasion – graze caused by abrasive surface
* Incised wound – caused by sharp object

48
Q

What is the most common type of fracture in the mid face

A

cheek bone fracture

49
Q

What are the three types of cheek bone fractures

A
  • Fronto-zygomatic suture, greater wing of sphenoid, to
    inferior orbital fissure (LINE)
  • Orbital floor, orbital rim, infra-orbital foramen, anterior
    maxilla, zygomatic buttress, posterior maxilla to inferior
    orbital fissure (CIRCLE)
  • Zygomatic arch (STICK)
50
Q

What is the eye-brow sign

A

air in the orbit or above
-dark line of air above the eyeball

51
Q

What is the assessment for cheek bone/orbit injury

A

Check visual acuity first – nothing else really counts

Ask about how many thumps
* Single punch not on nose / nerve and nose bleed/numb
* Always = fracture

Lay on your hands – compare one side with other
* Feeling a dent or step may be only sign of arch fracture
* If you can’t notice a difference, operation unlikely
* But refer to OMFS just in case

52
Q

What is the term LeFort fractures

A

The term LeFort fractures is applied to transverse fractures of the midface. Rene’ LeFort described three transverse weak lines through the midfacial skeleton

type I is a horizontal injury, type II is a pyramidal injury, and type III is a very extensive transverse injury that often results in a craniofacial dislocation.

53
Q

Name the different parts of the mandible

A
54
Q

What are some signs of mandible fracture

A

If their teeth do not fit together as before
Numbness when nerve not bashed
* Blood
* Significant dysfunction/deformity
* Pain where they were not hit
* Altered sensation
* Air where it should not be
* Mobility

55
Q

Bloody SPAAM is the big 6 symptoms and signs of fractures
What are they?

A
  • Blood in funny places
  • Significant change in appearance/function
  • Including visual acuity or double vision
  • Pain where there was no direct injury
  • Altered feeling/numbness not explained by direct
    trauma to nerve
  • Air where it should not be
  • Mobility where none should be
56
Q

Name some examples of blood in funny places

A
  • Unilateral epistaxis with no trauma to nose
  • Zygoma
  • Orbital blow-out
  • Anterior Maxillary Fracture
  • Sub-conjunctival haemorrhage no posterior border
  • Zygoma
  • Orbit
  • Le Fort II or II
  • Sub-lingual haematoma
  • Blood from behind a wisdom tooth
  • Bleeding from lingual gingival tear
  • Bilateral epistaxis with no trauma to nose
  • Le Fort I or bilateral zygomas
  • Bruises around greater palatine foramen
  • Pathognemonic of maxillary fracture (I, II, or III)
57
Q

What does significant decrease in function mean?

A

Significant Decrease in function (4 Ds)
* Dents, steps and bone deformity (always a #)
* Decrease in visual acuity
- Most important change in facial function
* Double vision (usually but not always a #)
- Remember to check acuity first
* Deranged occlusion (usually but not always a #)
- Could also be damaged/displaced tooth
- Effusion or haemarthrosis of TMJ

58
Q

Examples of Pain or tenderness where no direct injury

A
  • Buttress tenderness (hard place to hit!!)
  • Zygoma, le Fort I and II
  • Tenderness at condylar neck of mandible
  • Fracture of condylar neck or base.
  • Tenderness on orbital rim or FZ region
  • Zygoma/ le fort II /III (esp. if on clenching teeth)
59
Q

Examples of Altered sensation not by direct nerve injury

A
  • Lip numbness if no blow to mental foramen
  • Fracture must be between mental and ID foramen
  • Infra-orbital nerve - if no direct blow to ION
  • Zygoma, blow-out, naso-maxillary fracture
  • Numbness of maxillary teeth and gum
  • Anterior maxillary wall and Le Fort fractures
60
Q

Examples of Air where it should not be

A
  • Forced out under pressure from
    sinuses
  • Sudden swelling without bruising: My eye just closed when I blew my nose
  • Air emphysema: Crackling of air under the skin
  • May also be seen on radiographs
    -“Eye-brow” sign on OM views
  • Pockets of air on CT scan
61
Q

name some Maxillofacial Emergencies

A
  • Airway compromise
  • Severe Bleeding
  • Retro-bulbar Haemorrhage
    sight threatening
  • White eye blow-out fracture
  • Avulsed tooth
62
Q

What are the three zones in the neck

A
63
Q

What is retrobulbar hemorrhage?

A

Retrobulbar hemorrhage (RBH) is a rapidly progressive, sight-threatening emergency that results in an accumulation of blood in the retrobulbar space

64
Q

what is a White eye blow-out

A

White-eyed blowout fracture is often found in pure orbital floor blowout fracture among pediatric patients. Unlike common orbital blowout fractures with apparent clinical signs, the diagnosis of white-eyed orbital blowout fractures is difficult because of minimal soft-tissue signs.

65
Q

what is an Avulsed Tooth

A

An avulsed tooth occurs when a tooth is completely dislodged from its socket. Avulsed teeth are dental emergencies and require immediate treatment. To save your tooth, try reinserting your tooth right away. Teeth treated within 30 minutes to one hour have the best chance of success

66
Q

What is Craniosynostosis

A

Craniosynostosis is a birth defect in which the bones in a baby’s skull join together too early. This happens before the baby’s brain is fully formed. As the baby’s brain grows, the skull can become more misshapen

67
Q

What is a normal head shape?

A
  • wide and round at the back
  • high at the back
  • narrows and lowers to the front
  • flat at the front
  • vertex above bregma
68
Q

Premature fusion of the metopic suture can cause?

A

Trigonocephaly

69
Q

What is Trigonocephaly

A

Trigonocephaly is the premature closure of the metopic suture causing the inability of the frontal bones to grow laterally, thus forming a triangular forehead with an obvious or subtle osseous ridge.

70
Q

What is the most common of the non syndromic cranial synostoses

A

scaphocephaly

71
Q

What is scaphocephaly

A

boat shaped head
sagittal synostosis

72
Q

What type of shape does positional plagiocephaly have?

A

parallelogram

73
Q

TRUE OR FALSE postional plagicephaly does not need surgery

A

TRUE

74
Q

what is unicoronal craniosynostosis

A

Unicoronal craniosynostosis is a type of non-syndromic craniosynostosis and occurs when one of the two coronal sutures fuses before birth

75
Q

what is syndromic craniosynostosis

A

Craniosynostosis is the premature fusion of one of the cranial sutures, which results in restricted head growth and an abnormal head shape. Most cases involve a single suture and have no other abnormalities.

76
Q

what is a crouzon syndrome

A

Crouzon syndrome is a genetic disorder characterized by the premature fusion of certain skull bones (craniosynostosis). This early fusion prevents the skull from growing normally and affects the shape of the head and face. Many features of Crouzon syndrome result from the premature fusion of the skull bones

77
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A

Diseases (40 decks)

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