Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

Symptoms/presentation of Dyspepsia?

A

Oesophageal:

  • Odynophagia
  • Dysphagia
  • Heartburn

Gastric

  • Epigastric pain
  • nausea and vomiting
  • Bloating

General:

  • Weight loss
  • Appetite increase/decrease
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3
Q

Causes of Dyspepsia?

A

Oesophageal causes:

  • GORD
  • Barret’s oesophagus

Gastro-duodenal

  • PUD- gastric and duodenal
  • Gastric cancer
  • Functional dyspepsia

Other causes:

  • Biliary diseases (gall stones)
  • Jaundice
  • Pancreatic diseases
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4
Q

Management of Dyspepsia

A
  • Investigate possible causes for dyspepsia (H pylori, gastric or Oesophageal cancer, Drugs, stress/trauma)
  • Refer for OGD- if meets the criteria
  • Life-style management: Weight loss (if high BMI), Elevate the head while sleeping, Stop smoking, Reduce alcohol consumption
  • Medicinal management: Depends on the cause, Anyone with uninvestigated dyspepsia must be treated with PPI.
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5
Q

WHat is gold standard for dyspepsia

A

OGD

gold standard for investigating dyspepsia.

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6
Q

What is the criteria to be eligible for OGD?

A

>55 years

Dyspepsia

Alarm symptoms:

  • Weight loss- unintentional
  • Persistent GI bleed
  • Difficulty swallowing/ inability to swallow
  • Persistent vomiting
  • Fe deficiency anaemia
  • Epigastric mass
  • Haematemesis
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7
Q

Pathology of GORD

A

Three main mechanisms: Poor oesophageal motility decreases clearance of acidic material. A dysfunctional LES allows reflux of large amounts of gastric juice. Delayed gastric emptying can increase the volume and pressure in the reservoir until the valve mechanism is defeated, leading to GORD.

The opening of the LOS results in a backflow/ aspiration of gastric content and acid into the oesophagus causing irritation and inflammation of the lining of the oesophagus. Persistent acid reflux damages the oesophageal mucosa causing complications

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8
Q

Complications of GORD

A

Oesophagitis, Oesophageal stenosis, Barrett’s oesophagus

Hiatus hernia (but note HH does not always cause GORD)

oesophageal adenocarcinoma

ulceration: rarely→haematemesis, melaena,↓F

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9
Q

Symptoms/Presentations of GORD

A
  • Heartburn: related to meals. Worse lying down / stooping, Relieved by antacids
  • Waterbrash
  • Regurgitation
  • May present with odynophagia
  • Nocturnal asthma
  • Chronic cough
  • Laryngitis, sinusitis
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10
Q

Investigations of GORD

A
  • Isolated symptoms don’t need Ix
  • Bloods:FBC
  • CXR:hiatus hernia may be seen
  • OGD if: >55yrs, Symptoms >4wks, Dysphagia, Persistent symptoms despite Rx, Wt. loss, OGD allows grading by Los Angeles Classification
  • Ba swallow:hiatus hernia, dysmotility
  • 24h pH testing ± manometry
    • pH <4 for >4hr
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11
Q

Management of GORD?

A

Lifestyle modifications:

  • Weight loss
  • Stop smoking
  • Reduce alcohol
  • Elevate head while sleeping
  • Small regular meals ≥ 3h before bed
  • Stop drugs: NSAIDs, steroids, CCBs, nitrate

Medications

  • OTC antacids: Gaviscon, Mg trisilicate
  • 1:Full-dose PPI for 1-2mo -Lansoprazole 30mg OD
  • 2:No response→double dose PPI BD
  • 3:No response: add an H2RA -Ranitidine 300mg nocte
  • Control: low-dose acid suppression PR

Surgery

  • Nissen Funoplication : usually laparoscopic approach, mobilise gastric funds and wrap around lower oesophagus. Repai diaphram and close any diaphragmatic hiatus
  • Complications: gast- bloat: inability to belch/vomit. Dysphagia if wrap too tight
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12
Q

Differential Dx for GORD

A
  • Oesophagitis: Infection: CMV, candida, IBD, Caustic substances / burns
  • PUD
  • Oesophageal Ca
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13
Q

What is peptic ulceration?

A

Ulcer in stomach or duodenum - most benign but gastric ulcers can be malignant

  • It is a defect of the gastric/ duodenal mucosa which extends to the muscularis mucosa
  • Gastric ulcer: defect of the gastric mucosa that is >0.5cm and extends to the muscularis mucosa
  • Duodenal ulcer: defect of the duodenal mucosa extending to the muscularis mucosa
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14
Q

Causes of PUD?

A

H pylori infection

H pylori

NSAIDs and aspirin

Stress- also called curling ulcers

Neuroendocrine tumors- Zollinger Ellison tumour

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15
Q

How does H pylori and NSAIDS/aspirin cause PUD?

A

H pylori infection

H pylori🡪 produces Urease🡪 breakdown urea into NH3🡪 creates an alkaline environment that favors bacterial colonization🡪 release of bacterial cytotoxins 🡪 cause damage to the mucosa lining of the stomach

NSAIDs and aspirin

Inhibition of COX 1 and COX2🡪 decreased prostaglandins🡪 decreased mucosal blood flow, inhibition of mucosal epithelium proliferation, decreased HCO3-🡪 Damage to the mucosa–> ulcer

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16
Q

Presentation of Barret’s metaplasia?

A

Appears red as compared to the adjacent pink squamous cell mucosa of the oesophagus

The transition zone (Z line) is shifted upwards

The physiological transformation zone separating the squamous cells from the columnar cells

Pre-malignant change- requires close monitoring

Increased risk of Oesophageal adenocarcinoma

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17
Q

Treatment for Barret’s Oesophagus?

A

PPI

Biopsies to rule out dysplasia and cancer

Low grade dysplasia= need radio-ablation or endoscopy every 6-12 months taking biopsies every 1cm

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18
Q

Oesophageal adenocarcinoma Pathology?

A
  • It is associated with Barret’s oesophagus
  • Intestinal metaplasia- Tumour produces mucins
  • Tumour mutations in TP53
  • It occurs in the distal colon
  • Hence lymph node spread- gastric and coeliac nodes
  • Usually presents after lymph node metastasis and hence poor prognosis as compared to squamous cell carcinoma
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19
Q

Investigations for Oesophageal adenocarcinoma

A

Endoscopy

Biopsy

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20
Q

Oesophageal squamous cell carcinoma

  • Oesophageal squamous-cell carcinomas may occur as ______ ________tumors associated with _____ and ______ cancer, due to field cancerization
  • Primary oesophageal cancer however is more commonly an _________
  • Anal cancers are normally ________ _______ ________
A
  • Oesophageal squamous-cell carcinomas may occur as second primary tumors associated with head and neck cancer, due to field cancerization
  • Primary oesophageal cancer however is more commonly an adenocarcinoma
  • Anal cancers are normally squamous cell carcinomas
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21
Q

Adenocarcinoma

  • Stomach is lined by ______ ________ normally
  • Risk factors for cancer = ________, diet, __ ______ ______
  • Two types of gastric adenocarcinoma: _______ vs _______
  • Intestinal type forms glands (polypoid)
A
  • Stomach is lined by glandular epithelium normally
  • Risk factors for cancer = smoking, diet, H pylori infection
  • Two types of gastric adenocarcinoma: Intestinal vs Diffuse type
  • Intestinal type forms glands (polypoid)
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22
Q

Epidemiology of squamous cell carcionoma

A

Male > female (4:1)

More seen in the African American population

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23
Q

Epidemiology of Oesophageal Adenocarcinoma?

A

Male > female (7:1)

More seen in the Caucasian population

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24
Q

What is Crohn’s disease?

A

Inflammation that can involve one small area of the gut, or multiple areas with normal bowel in between: SKIP LESIONS

AKA Cobblestone appearance

Commonly affects the terminal ileum and ascending colon- resulting in RLQ pain

Transmural Inflammation: Damage extends beyond the submucosal layer and through the depth of the entire intestinal wall (unlike UC)

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25
Q

micro organisms related to Crohns

A

Mycobacterium paratuberculosis as well Pseudomonas and Listeria species

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26
Q

Complications of Crohns

A

fistulae, abscess, bowel obstruction, perforation, toxic megacolon, kidney stones, Bowel cancer (adenocarcinoma), gallstones

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27
Q

Patho fo UC

A

AUTOIMMUNE Th2 mediated rxn, where cytotoxic T cells target abnormal gut bacteria or p-ANCA antibodies, thus eroding the lining of the intestines, and ulceration

The circumferential inflammation can destroy the haustras of the colon leading to a smooth section of colon which is called the “lead pipe” sign.

Prevalent in non-smokers/ex-smokers*

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28
Q

Classifications of UC

A
  • Proctitis: Just the rectum
  • Proctosigmoiditis: Involves the rectum and sigmoid colon
  • Left sided Colitis: Involves the descending colon up to the splenic flexure
  • Extensive Colitis: Extending to the hepatic flexure
  • Pancolitis/Universal colitis: The entire colon is affected, associated with Backwash Ileatis (inflammation of the terminal ileum)
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30
Q

Difference between Crohns and UC

A
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32
Q

What is Diverticulitis?

A

Inflammation of abnormal pouches called diverticula (can develop on the walls of the large intestine, or any other hollow structure). Usually 0.5c,-1cm large

True Diverticula: involve all layers of the intestine

Pseudo diverticula: Muscle layers are not included MOST COMMON

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33
Q

When abdominal outpouching occurs without inflammation, it is called ________

A

diverticulosis

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34
Q

Risk factors for Diverticulitis?

A

Obesity, lack of exercise, low fibre diet, Smoking, Connective tissue disorders (genetic), Family history, NSAIDs, Common in the western world, Elderly, Females

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35
Q

Symptoms of Diverticulitis?

A

Symptoms: MOST CASES ARE ASYMPTOMATIC

  • Lower abdominal pain (sudden onset)- mostly affects the Sigmoid colon- LLQ pain and tenderness
  • Erratic bowel habits
  • Symptoms of infection (fever, tachycardia), Nausea, Diarrhea, Constipation, Fever, blood/mucus in the stool
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36
Q

Investigations and Treatment for Diverticulitis?

A

Raised CRP and ESR, USS, CT, Barium enema, Sigmoidoscopy

Treatment

If less severe: analgesia, Fibre, Antibiotics, Fluid resus

Surgical resection if acutely unwell

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37
Q

What is Coeliac’s disease?

A

An AUTOIMMUNE DISORDER where exposure to gluten causes an autoimmune reaction that causes inflammation in the small bowel. It usually develops in early childhood but can start at any age.

1 in 100 people have it. Family History increases risk to 1 in 10.

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38
Q

Pathophysiology of Coeliac’s Disease

A

Gluten is a large molecule, that is broken down to smaller ones in the gut, and it is the breakdown products that are toxic (gliadins). The main toxic peptide is α-Gliadin.

Autoantibodies are created in response to exposure to gluten, which target the epithelial cells of the intestines, leading to inflammation in the small bowel (particularly jejunum)

It causes atrophy of the intestinal villi, and crypt hypertrophy, so the surface of the bowel becomes flattened, and the surface area for absorption becomes greatly reduced (malabsorption)

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39
Q

Important antibodies to know for coeliac disease?

A
  1. Anti-TTG (anti-tissue transglutaminase)- attacks TTG, which is responsible for gluten breakdown
  2. Anti-EMA (Anti-endomysial)
  3. DGP (deaminated gliadin peptide)
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40
Q

Clinical features of Coeliac Disease

A

Often asymptomatic (can be mistaken for IBS), Steatorrhea, failure to lose/gain weight, abdo pain, cramps, bloating, distension, diarrhoea, fatigue, mouth ulcers, anaemia, dermatitis herpetiformis, osteomalacia, Vit D and calcium deficiency, neurological (ataxia, epilepsy)

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41
Q

Coeliac disease diagnosis?

A

Check for total IgA levels whilst on gluten diet

  • Raised Anti-TTG antibodies serology (FIRST LINE)
  • Raised anti-endomysial antibodies
  • deaminated gliadin peptide (DGP) – in cases of patients who have a IgA deficiency

Duodenal Biopsy to confirm

Genetic testing for HLADQ2 and HLADQ8

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42
Q

What is IBS?

A
  • Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a group of symptoms—including abdominal pain and changes in the pattern of bowel movements without any evidence of underlying damage (like inflammation, ulcers etc).
  • It has been classified into four main types depending on whether diarrhoea is common, constipation is common, both are common, or neither occurs very often
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43
Q

IBD vs IBS?

A

IBD has structural damage to the bowel (ie inflammation, ulceration) in ADDITION to IBS symptoms

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44
Q

Diagnosis of IBS

What is the criteria used called

A

Other pathology should be excluded:

  • Normal FBC, ESR and CRP blood tests
  • Faecal calprotectin negative to exclude inflammatory bowel disease
  • Negative coeliac disease serology (anti-TTG antibodies)
  • Cancer is not suspected or excluded if suspected

Symptoms should suggest IBS:

Abdominal pain / discomfort pain for ≥12wks which has 2 of:

  • Relieved by defecation
  • Change in stool frequency (D or C)
  • Change in stool form: pellets, mucu

AND 2 of:

  • Abnormal stool passage: incomplete/urgency
  • Bloating/Distention
  • Worse symptoms after eating
  • PR mucus

ROME CRITERIA

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45
Q

Risk factors for IBS

A

Female, stress, gastroenteritis (nota/rotavirus)

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46
Q

Treatment for IBS?

A
  • A low FODMAPS diet:

F- fermentable

O- oligosaccharides 🡪 sucrose (Wheat, rye, legumes and various fruits and vegetables, such as garlic and onions.)

D- disaccharides 🡪 lactose (Milk, yogurt and soft cheese)

M- monosaccharides 🡪 fructose (Various fruit including figs and mangoes, and sweeteners such as honey

Andmitriptyline

P- polyols 🡪 sugar free sweeteners ( Certain fruits and vegetables including blackberries and lychee, as well as some low-calorie sweeteners like those in sugar-free gum.)

  • Avoid caffeine and alcohol
  • Probiotics, regular small meals, reduced processed food, physical activity, for constipation: soluble fibres, laxatives, stool softeners, for pain: anti-diarrhoeals (ie loperamide), antimuscarinics, antispasmodics (mebeverine)
  • Manage stress, anxiety and depression- CBT
  • Amitriptyline
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47
Q

Genetic connections with coeliac disease

A

Genetic connections:

HLA-DQ2 gene (90%)

HLA-DQ8 gene

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48
Q

What are Gallstones?

Incidence?

RF?

Symptoms

A

Formation of hard stones in the gallbladder

Incidence increases with age. More common in women.

F – Fat

F – Fair

F – Female

F – Forty

Most are asymptomatic and are discovered when they cause biliary colic etc

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49
Q

What are the types of gallstones?

A
  • Cholesterol gallstones are the most common stones -supersaturation of bile with cholesterol –Gallbladder stasis -cannot been seen on X-RAY . However if they have enough CaCO3
  • Bilirubin gallstones are the 2nd most common stones: AKA pigmented
  • can be seen on X-RAY as the bilirubin binds to calcium

–associated with : hemolytic disease, E.coli

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50
Q

What if the stones are brown in colour?

A
  • sign of infection (caused by bacteria Ecoli)
  • causes calcium + UBC
  • browness is due to hydrolysed phospholipid too in it.
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51
Q

What is biliary colic? and where would you find pain?

A

Biliary colic, also known as symptomatic cholelithiasis, a gallbladder attack or gallstone attack, is when a colic (sudden pain) occurs due to a gallstone temporarily blocking the cystic duct.

  • Intermittent RUQ pain that comes in waves
  • Pain MAY radiate to R shoulder tip
  • Typically starts in the evening and lasts till the morning
  • Recurring condition, usually managed with diet adjustment
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52
Q

What is Cholecystitis? and where would you find pain?

A
  • Inflammation of the cystic duct due to gallstone obstruction
  • Prolonged colicky pain which MAY radiate to the shoulder tip
  • Inflammation->Fever + leucocytosis
  • Murphy’s Sign. There will be RUQ pain that is usually worse on inspiration.
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53
Q

What is Choledocholithiasis? where would you get pain?

A
  • Common bile duct obstruction
  • No inflammation -> no fever or leucocytosis
  • Obstructive jaundice
  • Dilated hepatic ducts
  • RUQ pain> 6h
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54
Q

What is Cholangitis? where would you get pain?

A

Infection of the gallbladder and CBD

Charcot triad-> fever, jaundice and RUQ pain

Reynolds triangle -> hypotension (shock) +altered mental status + Charcoat triangle. This occurs when the infection becomes more advanced

RUQ pain

Murphy sign

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55
Q

Complications of gallstones?

A
  • Cholecystitis , Acute cholangitis + Mirizzi syndrome
  • Empyema +perforation
  • Jaundice -> obstructive jaundice
  • Acute pancreatitis -> epigastric pain, radiates to the back , curling makes it better
  • Cancer of the gallbladder
  • Gallstone ileus

A bowel obstruction requires immediate medical treatment. If it’s not treated, there’s a risk that the bowel could split open (rupture).

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56
Q

What is PRIMARY SCLEROSING CHOLANGITIS

A

Primary (not caused by something else)

Sclerosing (hardening/fibrosis of tissue)

Cholangitis (inflammation of bile ducts)

Disorder caused due to the chronic inflammation of the intra hepatic and extra hepatic bile ducts leading to fibrosis

More commonly occurs in males (around 30-50 years)

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57
Q

Causes of PRIMARY SCLEROSING CHOLANGITIS

A

The exact cause is unknown but it has a strong association with autoimmune disesases, especially inflammatory bowel disease (most commonly UC).

In most patients, there is presence of antibodies such as pANCA and ANA antibodies but these are not specific for the disease.

It is linked to HLA DR3 and HLA B8

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58
Q

Associated diseases for PRIMARY SCLEROSING CHOLANGITIS

A

UC

Crohn’s (much rarer)

AIH

HIV

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59
Q

Sclerosing Cholangitis vs Biliary Cirrhosis

A
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60
Q

WHat is PRIMARY BILIARY CHOLANGITIS?

A

Disorder caused due to the chronic inflammation of the intra hepatic bile ducts leading to fibrosis

More commonly occurs in females (around 30-65 years)

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61
Q

Presentation of PRIMARY BILIARY CHOLANGITIS

Think of PPBBCCS

A
  • Often asympto and Dx incidentally (↑ALP)
  • Jaundice occurs late
  • Pruritus and fatigue
  • Pigmentation of face
  • Bones: osteoporosis, osteomalacia (↓vit D)
  • Big organs: HSM
  • Cirrhosis and coagulopathy (↓vit K)
  • Cholesterol↑: xanthelasma, xanthomata
  • Steatorrhoe
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63
Q

What is appendicitis?

causes?

A

Inflammation of the appendix

Can occur at any age but most commonly in the elderly or in the 2nd decade of life.

It is due to the obstruction of the appendix lumen by hyperplasia of the lymphoid tissue, feces, worms, foreign body etc.

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64
Q

Patho of appendicitis?

A

Once the lumen is obstructed, it can lead to bacterial overgrowth, ischemia, inflammation etc.

If untreated, it can lead to necrosis, peritonitis, gangrene, perforation etc

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65
Q

Pain in Appendicitis?

Visceral pain

A

n the early stages, the pain will be poorly localized to the periumbilical or epigastric region. This is because the organ is poorly innervated by the lesser splanchnic nerves which localise the pain to the centre of the abdomen.

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66
Q

Pain in Appendicitis?

Somatic pain

A

In the later stages, as the inflammation becomes worse, it spreads to the parietal peritoneum in that area, so the pain can be localized. This is because the peritoneum is supplied by the same nerve as the respective dermatome.

So, initial pain will be in the periumbilical region and then will localize to the RIF as the inflammation becomes worse

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67
Q

How is the pain in appendicitis described?

A

It is described as constant and sharp

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68
Q

What is Mcburney’s point?

A

2/3’s of the way along an imaginary line from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine on the right hand side

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69
Q

What is Rovsing’s Sign?

A

pain felt in the LRQ when the LLQ is palpated

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70
Q

Psoas sign –

A

increased pain during passive extension of the right hip

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71
Q

Obturator sign

A

pain felt on passive internal rotation of the flexed hip

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72
Q

what does Washboard ridgidity

A

This shows that there is peritonitis. the pain is exacerbated by the slightest movement (e.g. rolling, coughing, even breathing) as this moves the peritoneum.

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73
Q

Characteristics fo autoimmune hepatitis?

A
  • Increased IgG levels
  • Antibodies against:

Liver specific proteins

Non-live specific proteins

Mononuclear infiltrate within the liver:

Monocytes, macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages and mast cells

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74
Q

Key definitions relating to gallbladder and gallstones?

  • Cholestasis
  • Cholelithiasis:
  • Choledocholithiasis:
  • Biliary colic:
  • Cholecystitis:
  • Cholangitis:
  • Gallbladder empyema:
  • Cholecystectomy:
  • Cholecystostomy:
A
  • Cholestasis: blockage to the flow of bile
  • Cholelithiasis: gallstone(s) are present
  • Choledocholithiasis: gallstone(s) in the bile duct
  • Biliary colic: intermittent right upper quadrant pain caused by gallstones irritating bile ducts
  • Cholecystitis: inflammation of the gallbladder
  • Cholangitis: inflammation of the bile ducts
  • Gallbladder empyema: pus in the gallbladder
  • Cholecystectomy: surgical removal of the gallbladder
  • Cholecystostomy: inserting a drain into the gallbladder
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75
Q

atients with gallstones and biliary colic are advised to avoid fatty foods to prevent CCK release and gallbladder contraction.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TURE

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76
Q

Ix for gallstones

A

LFTs- raised bilirubin, ALP

USS- first line

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77
Q

In a raised ALT and AST with higher rise in ALP , this suggest?

A

cholestasis an”obstructive picture”

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78
Q

If ALT and AST are high compared with the ALP level, this is more indicative of…

A

a problem inside the liver with hepatocellular injury “a hepatitic picture”

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79
Q

A raised ALP is consistent with ______ ___________ in presence of right upper quadrant pain and/or jaundice.

A

A raised ALP is consistent with biliary obstruction in presence of right upper quadrant pain and/or jaundice.

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80
Q

What is (MRCP)

A

A magnetic resonance cholangio-pancreatography (MRCP) is an MRI scan with a specific protocol that produces a detailed image of the biliary system. It is very sensitive and specific for biliary tree disease, such as stones in the bile duct and malignancy.

MRCP is used in a number of scenarios for gaining a detailed picture of the biliary system, such as identifying biliary strictures or congenital abnormalities.

With gallstone disease, MRCP is typically used to investigate further if the ultrasound scan does not show stones in the duct, but there is bile duct dilatation or raised bilirubin suggestive of obstruction.

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81
Q

What is ERCP

Complications

A

An endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography (ERCP) involves inserting an endoscope down the oesophagus, past the stomach, to the duodenum and the opening of the common bile duct (the sphincter of Oddi). This gives the operator access to the biliary system.

The main indication for ERCP is to clear stones in the bile ducts.

Key complications of ERCP are:

  • Excessive bleeding
  • Cholangitis (infection in the bile ducts)
  • Pancreatitis
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82
Q

Complications of cholecystectomy include:

A
  • Bleeding, infection, pain and scars
  • Damage to the bile duct including leakage and strictures
  • Stones left in the bile duct
  • Damage to the bowel, blood vessels or other organs
  • Anaesthetic risks
  • Venous thromboembolism (deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism)
  • Post-cholecystectomy syndrome
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83
Q

What is Post-cholecystectomy syndrome

A

Post-cholecystectomy syndrome involves a group of non-specific symptoms that can occur after a cholecystectomy. They may be attributed to changes in the bile flow after removal of the gallbladder. Symptoms often improve with time. Symptoms include:

  • Diarrhoea
  • Indigestion
  • Epigastric or right upper quadrant pain and discomfort
  • Nausea
  • Intolerance of fatty foods
  • Flatulence
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84
Q

What is Wilson Disease?

How is it inherited?

What gene and what chromosome?

A

Wilson disease is the excessive accumulation of copper in the body and tissues. It is caused by a mutation in the “Wilson disease protein” on chromosome 13. The Wilson disease protein also has the catchy name “ATP7B copper-binding protein” and is responsible for various functions, including the removal of excess copper in the liver. Genetic inheritance is autosomal recessive.

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85
Q

Clinical Features of Wilson disease?

think of CLANKAH

A

Cornea

  • Kayser-Fleischer rings (70%, may need slit-lamp)

Liver Disease

  • Children usually present c̄acute hepatitis.
  • Fulminant necrosis may occur
  • →cirrhosis

Arthritis

  • Chondrocalcinosis
  • Osteoporosis

Neurology

  • Parkinsonism:bradykinesia,tremor, chorea, tics
  • Spasticity, dysarthria, dysphagia
  • Ataxia
  • Depression, dementia, psychosis

Kidney

  • Fanconi’s syn. (T2 RTA)→osteomalacia

Abortions

Haemolytic anaemia

  • Coombs’ negative
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86
Q

Copper deposition in the liver leads to ____ _____ and eventually liver cirrhosis. Copper deposition in the ______ _____ ______ can lead to neurological and psychiatric problems.

A

Copper deposition in the liver leads to chronic hepatitis and eventually liver cirrhosis. Copper deposition in the central nervous system can lead to neurological and psychiatric problems.

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87
Q

Ix of Wilson Disease?

A
  • Bloods:↓Cu,↓caeruloplasmin

NB. Caeruloplasmin is an acute-phase protein and maybe high during infection. It may also be low protein-deficient states: nephroticsyndrome, malabsorption

  • ↑24h urinary Cu
  • Liver biopsy:↑hepatic Cu
  • MRI:basal-ganglia degeneration
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88
Q

Management for wilsons disease

A

Treatment is with copper chelation using:

  • Penicillamine (lifelong)
  • Trientene
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89
Q

eating typically worsens the pain of ______ ulcers and improves the pain of _________ ulcers.

A

eating typically worsens the pain of gastric ulcers and improves the pain of duodenal ulcers.

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90
Q

Management for peptic ulcer?

A

Peptic ulcers are diagnosed by endoscopy. During endoscopy a rapid urease test (CLO test) can be performed to check for H. pylori. Biopsy should be considered during endoscopy to exclude malignancy as cancers can look similar to ulcers during the procedure.

Medical treatment is the same as with GORD, usually with high dose proton pump inhibitors. Endoscopy can be used to monitoring the ulcer to ensure it heals and to assess for further ulcers

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91
Q

First, Second and Third line Medication for IBS

A

First Line Medication:

  • Loperamide for diarrhoea
  • Laxatives for constipation. Avoid lactulose as it can cause bloating. Linaclotide is a specialist laxative for patients with IBS not responding to first-line laxatives
  • Antispasmodics for cramps e.g. hyoscine butylbromide (Buscopan)

Second Line Medication:

  • Tricyclic antidepressants (i.e. amitriptyline 5-10mg at night)

Third Line Medication:

  • SSRIs antidepressants
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92
Q

What is hiatus hernia

A

A hiatus hernia is when part of your stomach moves up into your chest. It’s very common if you’re over 50. It does not normally need treatment if it’s not causing you problems

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93
Q

Explain the classification of Hiatus Hernia?

A

Sliding (80%)

  • Gastro-oesophageal junction slides up into chest
  • Often assoc. c̄GORD

Rolling (15%)

  • Gastro-oesophageal junction remains in abdomen but abulge of stomach rolls into chest alongside theoesophagus
  • LOS remains intact so GORD uncommon
  • Can→strangulation

Mixed (5%)

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94
Q

Ix for Hiatus Hernia

A
  • CXR:gas bubble and fluid level in chest
  • Ba swallow: diagnostic
  • OGD: visualises the mucosa but can’t exclude hernia
  • 24h pH + manometry:exclude dysmotility or achalsia
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95
Q

Tx for Hiatus Hernia

A
  • Lose wt.
  • Rx reflux
  • Surgery if intractable symptoms despite medical Rx.-Should repair rolling hernia (even if asympto) as it may strangulate
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96
Q

What is hereditary haemochromatosis

How is it inherited

What gene on what chromonsome:

A

Hereditary hemochromatosis (he-moe-kroe-muh-TOE-sis) causes your body to absorb too much iron from the food you eat. Excess iron is stored in your organs, especially your liver, heart and pancreas. Too much iron can lead to life-threatening conditions, such as liver disease, heart problems and diabetes

AR

HFE gene (High FE) on Chr6 (C282Y

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97
Q

Patho haemochromatosis

A
  • Inherited, multisystem disorder resulting from abnormaliron metabolism.
  • ↑intestinal Fe absorption (↑enterocyte DMT +↓hepatocyte hepcidin)→deposition in multiple organ
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98
Q

Clinical features of Haemochromotosis

A

Myocardial

  • Dilated cardiomyopathy
  • Arrhythmias

Endocrine

  • Pancreas: DM
  • Pituitary: hypogonadism→amenorrhoea, infertility
  • Parathyroid: hypocalcaemia, osteoporosis

Arthritis

  • 2ndand 3rdMCP joints, knees and shoulders

Liver

  • Chronic liver disease→cirrhosis→HCC
  • Hepatomegaly

Skin

  • Slate grey discolouration
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99
Q

Ix of Haemochromatosis

A
  • Bloods:↑LFT,↑ferritin,↑Fe,↓TIBC, glucose, genotype
  • X-ray:chondrocalcinosis
  • ECG, ECHO
  • Liver biopsy:Pearl’s stain to quantify Fe and severity
  • MRI:can estimate iron loading
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100
Q

Treatment for haemochromotosis

A

Iron removal

  • Venesection: aim for Hct <0.5
  • Desferrioxamine is 2ndline

General

  • Monitor DM
  • Low Fe diet

Screening

  • Se ferritin and genotype
  • Screen 1stdegree relatives

Transplant in cirrhosis

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101
Q

Patho of Wilson’s Disease

A
  • Mutation of Cu transporting ATPase
  • Impaired hepatocyte incorporation of Cu intocaeruloplasmin and excretion into bile.
  • Cu accumulation in liver and, later, other organ
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102
Q

Symptoms and signs of PSC

A

Symptoms

  • Jaundice
  • Pruritus and fatigue
  • Abdo pain

Signs

  • Jaundice: dark urine, pale stools
  • HSM
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103
Q

Complications of PSC

A

Bacterial cholangitis

↑Cholangiocarcinoma

↑CRC

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104
Q

Ix for PSC

A
  • LFTs:↑ALP initially, then↑BR
  • Abs:pANCA (80%), ANA and SMA may be +ve
  • ERCP/MRCP:“beaded” appearance of ducts
  • Biopsy:fibrous, obliterative cholangitis
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105
Q

Associated diseased with primary bilary cirrhosis ?

A

rimary biliary cholangitis is associated with metabolic or immune system disorders, including thyroid problems, limited scleroderma (CREST syndrome), rheumatoid arthritis, and dry eyes and mouth (Sjogren’s syndrome)

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106
Q
A
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107
Q

What are the types of Liver function tests?

A

ALT- Markers of hepatocellular damage, localised to liver

AST- Markers of hepatocellular damage, synthesised by liver, heart, skeletal muscle and brain

Billirubin- Assessing degree of jaundice

gGT- Cholestasis

ALP- Cholestasis – sources are bone and liver

Albumin- Synthetic function

Prothrombin time - Synthetic function

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108
Q

Liver function tests- imaging

A
  • USS- Ultrasound is usually first line. Identifies any obstructive pathology present or gross liver pathology
  • Fibroscan
  • MRI
  • MRCP- Used to visualise the biliary tree. Usually performed if obstructive jaundice is suspected or US is inconclusive
  • X rays – hepatic angiogram
  • CT
  • Biopsy- Performed when the diagnosis has not been made despite the above investigations
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109
Q

What is Jaundice?

A

yellow appearance of the skin, sclerae and mucous membranes resulting from an increased bilirubin concentrations in body fluids

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110
Q

What are the types of jaundice?

A
  • Pre-hepatic
  • Hepatic/ intrahepatic/ hepatocellular
  • Post-hepatic
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111
Q

Pre-hepatic jaundice and also be called?

A

haemolytic jaundice

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112
Q

What is pre hepatic jaundice?

A

Excessive red cell breakdown which overwhelms the liver’s ability to conjugate bilirubin 🡪 unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

Any bilirubin that manages to become conjugated is excreted normally

Unconjugated bilirubin in the blood causes jaundice

ALT, AST, ALP will be normal

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113
Q

Examples of conditons that can see pre hepatic jaundice?

A
  • Examples
  • Haemolytic anaemia
  • Malaria
  • Sickle cell thalassemia
  • SLE
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114
Q

What is hepatic jaundice?

A
  • Due to dysfunction of the hepatic cells
  • Liver loses the ability to conjugate bilirubin
  • Liver may become cirrhotic 🡪 compromises the intra-hepatic portions of the biliary tree to cause some obstruction
  • Both unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin are found in blood
  • High ALT, AST and ALP (higher ALT&AST)
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115
Q

Examples of conditions where you can hepatic jaundice?

A
  • Alcoholic liver disease
  • Viral hepatitis
  • Primary biliary cirrhosis
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
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116
Q

What is Post-hepatic jaundice

A
  • AKA obstructive jaundice
  • Due to obstruction of biliary drainage
  • Bilirubin that has been conjugated by the liver is not excreted
  • Excess conjugated bilirubin = conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
  • High ALP, AST and ALT (higher ALP)
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117
Q

What is Acute liver failure?

A

Onset of hepatic decompensation within 6 months, results in loss of function in 80-90%

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118
Q

Causes of Acute Liver failure?

A
  • Drugs

50% of cases in the UK due to paracetamol overdose

others inc NSAIDs and ecstasy

  • Infection

Viral hepatitis, CMV, HSV, EBV

  • Acute fatty liver in pregnancy

Unmetabolized fetal fatty acids enter maternal circulation and accumulate in mothers liver

  • Wilsons disease

AR, copper accumulates in the liver

  • Budd-Chiari

Occlusion of hepatic vein

Abdo pain + ascites + liver enlargement

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119
Q

Clinical features of Acute liver failure?

A
  • Jaundice
  • Bruising (coagulation disturbance)
  • Ascites
  • Tachycardia and hypotension
  • Due to reduced systemic vascular resistance
  • Signs of encephalopathy
  • Sweet smell on breath
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120
Q

Complications of acute liver failure

A
  • Hepatic encephalopathy = altered level of consciousness
  • Impaired protein synthesis = measured by serum albumin + prothrombin time in blood
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121
Q

What is Chronic liver failure

A

Progressive destruction/regeneration of liver parenchyma leading to fibrosis and cirrhosis (> 6 months

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122
Q

Causes of chronic liver failure

A
  • Metabolic

Hereditary haemochromatosis -Accumulation of iron, reacts with H2O2 to form free radicals

NAFLD

Wilsons disease

  • Toxic and drugs

Alcohol

Drug induced is rare 🡪 methotrexate, amiodarone

  • Infections – hep b & c
  • Autoimmune

Primary biliary cholangitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, autoimmune hepatitis

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123
Q

Clinical features of Chronic liver failure?

A
  • Nail clubbing
  • Palmar erythema
  • Spider nevi
  • Gynaecomastia
  • Feminising hair distribution
  • Small irregular shrunken liver
  • Anaemia
  • Caput medusae
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124
Q

Complications of chronic liver failure?

A
  • Portal hypertension
  • Synthetic dysfunction
  • Hepatopulmonary syndrome
  • Hepatorenal syndrome
  • Encephalopathy
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
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125
Q

What is portal hypertension?

A
  • Increased blood pressure in the hepatic portal system (portal venous system) usually due to hepatic cirrhosis
  • Obstruction may prevent the blood flow from the portal vein into the IVC
  • Causes the blood to accumulate in the hepatic portal system 🡪 increasing the pressure 🡪 PORTAL HYPERTENSION
  • Portosystemic Shunts- anastomoses between portal and systemic systems, due to portal HTN the blood backs up and varices form- these can rupture
  • Features (ABCDE)- ascites, bleeding, caput medusae, diminished liver function and enlarged spleen
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126
Q

What is hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Reduced blood to liver 🡪 reduced liver function

Increased ammonia crosses BBB

Can be gradual or sudden

In advanced stages 🡪 coma

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127
Q

Clinical features of heaptic encephalopathy

A

Asterixis, lethargy, movement problems, changes in mood or changes in personality, altered consciousness, seizures

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128
Q

What is treatment for hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Treatment = Oral lactulose

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129
Q

What is Hepatopulmonary syndrome

A

Syndrome of shortness of breath and hypoxemia caused by vasodilation in lungs of patients with liver disease

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130
Q

Causes of hepatopulmonary syndrome?

A

Due to formation of microscopic intrapulmonary arteriovenous dilations

Thought to be due to increased liver production or decreased liver clearance of vasodilators, e.g. NO

Dilation of blood vessels 🡪 over-perfusion relative to ventilation 🡪 V/Q mismatch

Increased gradient between the partial pressure of O2 in alveoli and adjacent arteries

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131
Q

What is Hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Life-threatening medical condition that consists of rapid deterioration of kidney function in individuals with cirrhosis or fulminant liver failure

Occurs due to portal hypertension

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132
Q

What is HEpatocellular carcinoma

A

Malignant tumour of the liver which occurs primarily in patients with pre-existing liver cirrhosis or chronic hepatitis

Most common type of primary liver cancer

Malignant tumour of the liver which occurs primarily in patients with pre-existing liver cirrhosis or chronic hepatitis

Most common type of primary liver cancer

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133
Q

What is the adenoma- carcinoma sequence?

A

A stepwise pattern; of mutational activation of oncogenes ( ie Kras) and inactivation of tumour suppressor genes (eg p53) that results in cancer

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134
Q

Environmental factors that leads to GI cancer development

A
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol
  • Diet; processed meat ( especially red meat), increased obesity risk, green vegetables and diet high in fibre protective against colorectal cancer
  • Chronic inflammation ie patients with ulcerative colitis have increased risk of developing colorectal cancer
  • Upper GI cancer; H pylori infection?
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135
Q

Hallmarks of cancer

A
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136
Q

Hallmarks of cancer

A
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137
Q

Environmental factors that leads to GI cancer development

A
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol
  • Diet; processed meat ( especially red meat), increased obesity risk, green vegetables and diet high in fibre protective against colorectal cancer
  • Chronic inflammation ie patients with ulcerative colitis have increased risk of developing colorectal cancer
  • Upper GI cancer; H pylori infection?
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138
Q

what is Colorectal cancer development in relation to TSG and Oncogenes

A
  1. Inactiviation of APC
  2. Activation of Kras
  3. Inactivation of p53
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139
Q

what is Colorectal carcinogenisis in IBD development in relation to TSG and Oncogenes?

A

Same genes different order

  1. P53
  2. Kras
  3. APC
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140
Q

what is Colorectal carcinogenisis in IBD development in relation to TSG and Oncogenes?

A

Same genes different order

  1. P53
  2. Kras
  3. APC
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141
Q

what is Colorectal cancer development in relation to TSG and Oncogenes

A
  1. Inactiviation of APC
  2. Activation of Kras
  3. Inactivation of p53
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142
Q

APC KRA and P53

which of these are tumour supressor genes?

A

APC and P53

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143
Q

APC KRas and P53

Which of these are oncgenes?

A

KRas

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144
Q

APC KRas and P53

Which of these are oncgenes?

A

KRas

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145
Q

APC KRA and P53

which of these are tumour supressor genes?

A

APC and P53

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146
Q

Typical upper GI cancer would be

A

Oesophageal cancers

Gastric cancers

147
Q

Typical lower GI cancer would be

A

colorectal cancers

148
Q

Difference between HNPCC and FAP

A
149
Q

Difference between HNPCC and FAP

A
150
Q

Pathology of Colorectal Cancer

A

Most common : adenocarcinoma ( a malignant tumour formed from glandular structures of the epithelial tissue)

Less common; mucinous adenocarcinoma, signet ring cell carcinoma, small cell carcinoma

Glandular dysplasia is the premalignant lesion, when it forms a poly it is commonly referred to as an adenoma

Adenomas classified as tubular, tubulovillous and villous (the is the worst one)

Adenomas are also graded in terms of dysplasia (low or high)

151
Q

Staging using TNM for Corectal Cancers

Tumour staging

A
152
Q

Staging using TNM for Corectal Cancers

Lymph nodes staging

A
153
Q

Staging using TNM for Corectal Cancers

Metastasis staging

A
154
Q

Staging using TNM for Corectal Cancers

Metastasis staging

A
155
Q

Pathology of gastric cancers?

A
156
Q

Pathology of gastric cancers?

A
157
Q

Staging using TNM for Corectal Cancers

Lymph nodes staging

A
158
Q

Staging using TNM for Corectal Cancers

Tumour staging

A
159
Q

Pathology of Colorectal Cancer

A

Most common : adenocarcinoma ( a malignant tumour formed from glandular structures of the epithelial tissue)

Less common; mucinous adenocarcinoma, signet ring cell carcinoma, small cell carcinoma

Glandular dysplasia is the premalignant lesion, when it forms a poly it is commonly referred to as an adenoma

Adenomas classified as tubular, tubulovillous and villous (the is the worst one)

Adenomas are also graded in terms of dysplasia (low or high)

160
Q

What are the causes of acute pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones - Obstruct sphincter of Oddi causing reflux . Bile salts irritates pancreatic duct

Ethanol - Increases acinar cell secretion, decreases ductal cell secretion → thickened pancreatic juice . ROS damages the cells

Trauma - Usually ruptured duct in the body of the pancreas from direct trauma (vertebral column)

Drugs - sodium valporate, furosemide, thiazides, Azathioprine

161
Q

What are the causes of acute pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones - Obstruct sphincter of Oddi causing reflux . Bile salts irritates pancreatic duct

Ethanol - Increases acinar cell secretion, decreases ductal cell secretion → thickened pancreatic juice . ROS damages the cells

Trauma - Usually ruptured duct in the body of the pancreas from direct trauma (vertebral column)

Drugs - sodium valporate, furosemide, thiazides, Azathioprine

162
Q

Colorectal cancer is the __ most commone cancer in the UK

Most occur in the ___

___ most common cause of cancer death in the UK

A

4th

rectum

2nd

163
Q

Risk factors of colorectal cancer?

A

family history, those that have FAP or HNPCC, diet with lack of fibre, inflammatory bowel disease (ie ulcerative colitis)

164
Q

What are familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

Classic familial adenomatous polyposis, called FAP or classic FAP, is a genetic condition. It is diagnosed when a person develops more than 100 adenomatous colon polyps. An adenomatous polyp is an area where normal cells that line the inside of a person’s colon form a mass on the inside of the intestinal trac

165
Q

How are Familial adenomatous polyposis inherited?

A

Autosomal dominant inheritance

166
Q

How is HNPCC (hereditary non polyposis colon cancer) inhertied?

A

Autosomal dominant inheritance

167
Q

HNPCC (hereditary non polyposis colon cancer)

Mutations occur where

A

Mutations in the DNA mismatch repair genes (MSH2 (60%)) and MLH1 (30%)), causing microsatellite instability. These genes normally maintain stability of DNA during replication

168
Q

HNPCC (hereditary non polyposis colon cancer)

Mutations occur where

A

Mutations in the DNA mismatch repair genes (MSH2 (60%)) and MLH1 (30%)), causing microsatellite instability. These genes normally maintain stability of DNA during replication

169
Q

RED FLAG symptoms for colorectal cancer?

A
  • Unintentional / unexplained weight loss
  • Rectal bleeding
  • Change in bowel habit
  • Abdominal masses
  • Iron deficiency anaemia
  • In history; ask about family history- family members with ovarian and bowel cancer can be significan
170
Q

RED FLAG symptoms for colorectal cancer?

A
  • Unintentional / unexplained weight loss
  • Rectal bleeding
  • Change in bowel habit
  • Abdominal masses
  • Iron deficiency anaemia
  • In history; ask about family history- family members with ovarian and bowel cancer can be significan
171
Q

How is HNPCC (hereditary non polyposis colon cancer) inhertied?

A

Autosomal dominant inheritance

172
Q

How are Familial adenomatous polyposis inherited?

A

Autosomal dominant inheritance

173
Q

What are familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

Classic familial adenomatous polyposis, called FAP or classic FAP, is a genetic condition. It is diagnosed when a person develops more than 100 adenomatous colon polyps. An adenomatous polyp is an area where normal cells that line the inside of a person’s colon form a mass on the inside of the intestinal trac

174
Q

If a tumour that invades the muscularis propria, metastasizes to 1-3 lymph nodes but does has no distant metastasis how would you use TNM?

A

T2N1M0

175
Q

If a tumour that invades the muscularis propria, metastasizes to 1-3 lymph nodes but does has no distant metastasis how would you use TNM?

A

T2N1M0

176
Q

Gastric cancer clinical features

A

Epigastric pain; may be relieved by food and antacids

Dysphagia especially if tumour involves stomach fundus

Anaemia

Nausea, vomiting and weight loss

Can have Liver, bone , brain and lung involvement

177
Q

What is Zollinger- Ellison syndrome?

A

Zollinger–Ellison syndrome is a disease in which tumours cause the stomach to produce too much acid, resulting in peptic ulcers. A gastrin secreting tumour (gastrinoma) - Excess gastric acid secretion leads to (unusual/severe peptic ulceration, oesophagitis, diarrhoea and

178
Q

WHat are gastrinomas?

A
  • Neuroendocrine tumours
  • Gastrin secreting
  • Cause severe peptic ulcer disease and diarrhoea (referred to as the Zollinger Ellison Syndrome)
  • Can either be sporadic (75-80% of cases) or associated with Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (20-30% of cases)
179
Q

What is acute pancreatitis?

A

Sudden inflammation, haemorrhage of pancreas due to autodigestion from inappropriate activation of zymogen (trypsinogen → trypsin)

Reversible

180
Q

What is acute pancreatitis?

A

Sudden inflammation, haemorrhage of pancreas due to autodigestion from inappropriate activation of zymogen (trypsinogen → trypsin)

Reversible

181
Q

Investiagtions for acute pancreatitis?

A

Elevated serum amylase >1000 IU/L

Elevated serum lipase (2-5x normal value)

LFTs: gallstones aetiology (jaundice)

Imaging

CT: swollen gland with inflammation, necrosis, pseudocyst

USS: gallstones

182
Q

What is chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Chronic inflammation causing irreversible structural damage

Atrophy of acinar cells

Fibrosis

Calcification

Dilation of ducts/ narrowing

  • Formation of chronic pseudocysts, intrapancreatic cysts
183
Q

What is pathogenesis of Chronic pancreatitis?

A

Obstruction in the pancreatic ducts

Ductal dilatation and damage to tissue (atrophy of acinar cells)

Stellate cells lay down fibrotic tissue

Further resulting in atrophy of acinar cells, intraluminal calcification, narrowing of ducts

184
Q

Causes of chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Recurrent episodes of acute pancreatitis (alcohol)
  • Duct obstruction: tumour, gallstones, structural abnormalities (annular pancreas, pancreas divisum), traumatic strictures
  • Cystic fibrosis
185
Q

Investiagtions for chronic pancreatitis?

A

Serum lipase and amylase may or may not be elevated

Glucose tolerance test (endocrine function)

Imaging

CT : calcification, intrapancreatic cysts or chronic pseudocysts

ERCP: dilated and strictured ducts (chain of lakes pattern)

To differentiate from carcinoma

Pancreatic imaging + EUS + targeted needle biopsy

186
Q

Complications of chronic pancreatitis?

A

Increased risk of pancreatic carcinoma

Pancreatic pseudocysts, fistula, ascites

Biliary obstruction

Malnutrition

Diabetes mellitus

187
Q

Risk factors for Pancreatic carcinoma

A

Western lifestyle

Cigarette smoking

High-fat diet

Liver cirrhosis

Chronic pancreatitis

Obesity

Family history/genetic factors (BRCA1/BRCA2/FAP/HNPCC)

188
Q

Name some congenital anomalies

A

Hirschprung’s Disease

Meckel’s Diverticulum

Omphalocele

Gastroschisis

189
Q

What is Hirschprung’s Disease

A

Agangliosis of myenteric and submucosal plexus in the distal colon and rectum which causes lack of peristalsis

Functional obstruction from spasms in denervated colon

Severe constipation within first 2 months

Investigations

X ray: colon distension

Biopsy to identify transition zone

Management: surgical removal of affected segment

190
Q

What is Meckel’s Diverticulum?

A

Persistence of vitellointestinal duct

Rule of 2s

2% of population

Present in first 2 years

2 inches in length

Approximately 2 ft from ileocaecal valve

191
Q

What is Omphalocele?

A

Herniation of intestines (sometimes liver and other organs) out of umbilicus at birth due to abdominal wall defects

Failure to return to abdomen after natural protrusion during development

Covered by peritoneal membrane and amnion

Investigations: USS antenatal scan shows herniated loop contained within peritoneum

Associated with severe malformations, 25% mortality

192
Q

What is Gastroschisis?

A

Herniation of bowel loops (sometimes stomach and liver) through para-umbilical wall defect (lateral to the umbilicus)

Not covered by surrounding membrane

Investigations: Antenatal USS show herniation to lateral of umbilicus, free-floating

193
Q

What is alcoholic liver disease?

A

Alcoholic liver disease results from the effects of the long term excessive consumption of alcohol on the liver. The onset and progression of alcoholic liver disease varies between people, suggesting that there may be a genetic predisposition to having harmful effects of alcohol on the liver.

194
Q

What are the 3 stepwise pricess of progression of alcoholic liver disease?

A

1. Alcohol related fatty liver

Drinking leads to a build-up of fat in the liver. If drinking stops this process reverses in around 2 weeks.

2. Alcoholic hepatitis

Drinking alcohol over a long period causes inflammation in the liver sites. Binge drinking is associated with the same effect. Mild alcoholic hepatitis is usually reversible with permanent abstinence.

3. Cirrhosis

This is where the liver is made up of scar tissue rather than healthy liver tissue. This is irreversible. Stopping drinking can prevent further damage. Continued drinking has a very poor prognosis.

195
Q

What is the recommended alcohol consumption

A

That latest recommendations (Department of Health, 2016) are to not regularly drink more than 14 units per week for both men and women.

If drinking 14 units in a week, this should be spread evenly over 3 or more days and not more than 5 units in a day.

The government guidelines also state that any level of alcohol consumption increases the risk of cancers, particularly breast, mouth and throat.

Pregnant women should avoid alcohol completely.

196
Q

What is AUDIT Questionnaire

A

The Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT) was developed by the World Health Organisation to screen people for harmful alcohol use. It involves 10 questions with multiple choice answers and gives a score. A score of 8 or more gives an indication of harmful use.

197
Q

Complications of Alcohol

A
  • Alcoholic Liver Disease
  • Cirrhosis and the complications of cirrhosis including hepatocellular carcinoma
  • Alcohol Dependence and Withdrawal
  • Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome (WKS)
  • Pancreatitis
  • Alcoholic Cardiomyopathy
198
Q

Signs of Liver Disease

A
  • Jaundice
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Spider Naevi
  • Palmar Erythema
  • Gynaecomastia
  • Bruising – due to abnormal clotting
  • Ascites
  • Caput Medusae – engorged superficial epigastric veins
  • Asterixis – “flapping tremor” in decompensated liver disease
199
Q

Ix for Alcohol Liver Disease

A

Bloods

FBC – raised MCV

LFTs – elevated ALT and AST (transaminases) and particularly raised gamma-GT. ALP will be elevated later in the disease. Low albumin due to reduced “synthetic function” of the liver. Elevated bilirubin in cirrhosis.

Clotting – elevated prothrombin time due to reduced “synthetic function” of the liver

U+Es may be deranged in hepatorenal syndrome.

Ultrasound

An ultrasound of the liver may show fatty changes early on described as “increased echogenicity”. It can also demonstrate changes related to cirrhosis if present.

“FibroScan” can be used to check the elasticity of the liver by sending high frequency sound waves into the liver. It helps assess the degree of cirrhosis.

Endoscopy

Endoscopy can be used to assess for and treat oesophageal varices when portal hypertension is suspected.

CT and MRI scans

CT and MRI can be used to look for fatty infiltration of the liver, hepatocellular carcinoma, hepatosplenomegaly, abnormal blood vessel changes and ascites.

Liver Biopsy

Liver biopsy can be used to confirm the diagnosis of alcohol-related hepatitis or cirrhosis. NICE recommend considering a liver biopsy in patients where steroid treatment is being considered.

200
Q

What is general management for alcohol liver disease

A
  • Stop drinking alcohol permanently
  • Consider a detoxication regime
  • Nutritional support with vitamins (particularly thiamine) and a high protein diet
  • Steroids improve short term outcomes (over 1 month) in severe alcoholic hepatitis but infection and GI bleeding need to be treated first and do not improve outcomes over the long term
  • Treat complications of cirrhosis (portal hypertension, varices, ascites and hepatic encephalopathy)
  • Referral for liver transplant in severe disease however they must abstain from alcohol for 3 months prior to referral
201
Q

Withdrawal symptoms

Symptoms occur at different times after alcohol consumption ceases:

  • 6-12 hours:
  • 12-24 hours:
  • 24-48 hours:
  • 24-72 hours:
A
  • 6-12 hours: tremor, sweating, headache, craving and anxiety
  • 12-24 hours: hallucinations
  • 24-48 hours: seizures
  • 24-72 hours: “delirium tremens”
202
Q

What is Delirium Tremens

A

Delirium tremens is a medical emergency associated with alcohol withdrawal with a mortality of 35% if left untreated. Alcohol stimulates GABA receptors in the brain. GABA receptors have a “relaxing” effect on the rest of the brain. Alcohol also inhibits glutamate receptors (also known as NMDA receptors) having a further inhibitory effect on the electrical activity of the brain.

203
Q

When alcohol is removed from the system, GABA under-functions and glutamate over-functions causing an extreme excitability of the brain with excess adrenergic activity. This presents as:

A
  • Acute confusion
  • Severe agitation
  • Delusions and hallucinations
  • Tremor
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypertension
  • Hyperthermia
  • Ataxia (difficulties with coordinated movements)
  • Arrhythmias
204
Q

What is CIWA-Ar

A

(Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment – Alcohol revised) tool can be used to score the patient on their withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment.

205
Q

Which benzodiazepine is used to combat the effects of alcohol withdrawal.

What is alternative?

A

Chlordiazepoxide (“Librium”)

Diazepam

206
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome (WKS)

What is it?

A

Alcohol excess leads to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. Thiamine is poorly absorbed in the presence of alcohol and alcoholics tend to have poor diets and rely on the alcohol for their calories. Wernicke’s encephalopathy comes before Korsakoffs syndrome. These result from thiamine deficiency.

207
Q

What are the Features of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A
  • Confusion
  • Oculomotor disturbances (disturbances of eye movements)
  • Ataxia (difficulties with coordinated movements)
208
Q

What are the Features of Korsakoffs syndrome

A
  • Memory impairment (retrograde and anterograde)
  • Behavioural changes
    *
209
Q

Korsakoffs syndrome reversible or irreversible

A
210
Q

What is NAFLD?

What is the extreme form of this called ?

A

Non alcholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) forms part of the “metabolic syndrome” group of chronic health conditions relating to processing and storing energy that increase risk of heart disease, stroke and diabetes. It is estimated that up to 30% of adults have NAFLD. It is characterised by fat deposited in liver cells. These fat deposits can interfered with the functioning of the liver cells. NAFLD does not cause problems initially, however it can progress to hepatitis and cirrhosis.

Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is most extremeform and→cirrhosis in 10%

211
Q

NAFLD stages?

A
  1. Non-alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease
  2. Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH)
  3. Fibrosis
  4. Cirrhosis
212
Q

NAFLD Risk factors

A
  • Obesity
  • Poor diet and low activity levels
  • Type 2 diabetes
  • High cholesterol
  • Middle age onwards
  • Smoking
  • High blood pressure
213
Q

Investigation in Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease

A

Liver Ultrasound can confirm the diagnosis of hepatic steatosis (fatty liver). It does not indicate the severity, the function of the liver or whether there is liver fibrosis.

Enhanced Liver Fibrosis (ELF) blood test. This is the first line recommended investigation for assessing fibrosis but it is not currently available in many areas. It measures three markers (HA, PIIINP and TIMP-1) and uses an algorithm to provide a result that indicates the fibrosis of the liver:

  • < 7.7 indicates none to mild fibrosis
  • ≥ 7.7 to 9.8 indicates moderate fibrosis
  • ≥ 9.8 indicates severe fibrosis

NAFLD fibrosis score is the second line recommended assessment for liver fibrosis where the ELF test is not available. It is based on an algorithm of age, BMI, liver enzymes, platelets, albumin and diabetes and is helpful in ruling out fibrosis but not assessing the severity when present.

Fibroscan is the third line investigation. It involves a particular ultrasound that measures the stiffness of the liver and gives an indication of fibrosis. This is performed if the ELF blood test or NAFLD fibrosis score indicates fibrosis.

  • BMI
  • Glucose, fasting lipids
  • ↑transaminases: AST:ALT <
  • Liver biopsy
214
Q

Management NAFLD

A
  • Weight loss
  • Exercise
  • Stop smoking
  • Control of diabetes, blood pressure and cholesterol
  • Avoid alcohol

Refer patients with liver fibrosis to a liver specialist where they may treat with vitamin E or pioglitazone.

215
Q

What is liver cirrhosis?

A

Liver cirrhosis is the result of chronic inflammation and damage to liver cells. When the liver cells are damaged they are replaced with scar tissue (fibrosis) and nodules of scar tissue form within the liver.

216
Q

This fibrosis affects the structure and blood flow through the liver, which causes increased resistance in the vessels leading in to the liver. This is called ________ __________

A

portal hypertension

217
Q

4 most common causes of Liver cirrhosis

A
  • Alcoholic liver disease
  • Non Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease
  • Hepatitis B
  • Hepatitis C
218
Q

Rarer Causes of cirrhosis?

A
  • Genetic:Wilson’s,α1ATD, HH, CF
  • AI:AH, PBC, PSC
  • Drugs:Methotrexate, amiodarone, methyldopa,INH
  • Neoplasm:HCC, mets
  • Vasc:Budd-Chiari, RHF,constrict. pericarditis
219
Q

Signs of Cirrhosis

What do they suggest?

A

Hands

  • Clubbing (± periostitis)
  • Leuconychia (↓albumin)
  • Terry’s nails (white proximally, red distally)
  • Palmer erythema- caused by hyperdynamic cirulation
  • Dupuytron’s contracture
  • Asterixis – “flapping tremor” in decompensated liver diseas

Face

  • Pallor: ACD
  • Xanthelasma: PBC
  • Parotid enlargement (esp. c̄EtOH)
  • Jaundice – caused by raised bilirubin

Trunk

  • Spider naevi (>5, fill from centre)- these are telangiectasia with a central arteriole and small vessels radiating away
  • Gynaecomastia- in males due to endocrine dysfunction
  • Loss of sexual hair
  • Brusing- due to abnormal clotting

Abdo

  • Striae
  • Hepatomegaly (may be small in late disease)
  • Splenomegaly- due to portal hypertension
  • Caput Medusae – distended paraumbilical veins due to portal hypertension
  • Testicular atrophy- in males due to endocrine dysfunction
220
Q

Ix for liver cirrhosis?

A

Bloods

  • FBC:↓WCC and↓plats indicate hypersplenism
  • ↑LFTs
  • ↑INR
  • ↓Albumin

Find Cause

  • EtOH:↑MCV,↑GGTNASH:hyperlipidaemia,↑glucose
  • Infection:Hep, CMV, EBV serology
  • Genetic:Ferritin,α1AT, caeruloplasmin (↓in Wilson’s)
  • Autoimmune:Abs (there is lots of cross-over)
  • AIH:SMA, SLA, LKM, ANA
  • PBC:AMA
  • PSC:ANCA, ANA
  • Ig:↑IgG – AIH,↑IgM – PBC
  • Ca:α-fetoprotein

Abdo US + PV Duplex

  • Small / large liver
  • Focal lesions
  • Reversed portal vein flow
  • Ascites

Ascitic Tap + MCS

PMN >250mm3indicates SBP

Liver biopsy

221
Q

Majority of pancreatic cancers are?

A

adenocarcinomas

222
Q

Name some drug induced Jaundice

A
223
Q

Name some drug induced Jaundice

A
224
Q

Pancreatic Cancer

Pre hepatic/hepatic/Post hepatic

A

Post Hepatic

Obstructive jaundice

225
Q

Where does pancreatic cancers spread to usually?

A

liver, then to the peritoneum, lungs and bones.

226
Q

Viral Hepatitis

There are types A-E

explain how they are spread and their cause

A
227
Q

Viral Hepatitis

There are types A-E

explain how they are spread and their cause

A
228
Q

Presentation of pancreatic cancer?

A
  • Painless Obstructive jaundice
  • Yellow skin and sclera
  • Pale stools
  • Dark urine
  • Generalised itching
  • Non-specific upper abdominal or back pain
  • Unintentional weight loss
  • Palpable mass in the epigastric region
  • Change in bowel habit
  • Nausea or vomiting
  • New‑onset diabetes or worsening of type 2 diabetes
229
Q

It is worth noting that a new onset of diabetes, or a rapid worsening of glycaemic control type 2 diabetes, can be a sign of __________ ______

A

Pancreatic cancer

230
Q

What are the NICE guidelines for when to refer for suspected pancreatic cancer:

A
  • Over 40 with jaundice – referred on a 2 week wait referral
  • Over 60 with weight loss plus an additional symptom (see below) – referred for a direct access CT abdomen
231
Q

When does GP directly refer to accesss CT abdomen to assess pancreatic cancer?

A

if a patient has weight loss plus any of:

  • Diarrhoea
  • Back pain
  • Abdominal pain
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Constipation
  • New‑onset diabetes
232
Q

What is the sign called for palpable gallbladder along with jaundice

A

Courvoisier’s law

suggests cholangiocarcinoma or pancreatic cancer

233
Q

What is Trousseau’s sign of malignancy

A

refers to migratory thrombophlebitis as a sign of malignancy, particularly pancreatic adenocarcinoma. Thrombophlebitis is where blood vessels become inflamed with an associated blood clot (thrombus) in that area. Migratory refers to the thrombophlebitis reoccurring in different locations over time.

234
Q

Ix for pancreatic cancer?

A

Diagnosis is based on imaging (usually CT scan) plus histology from a biopsy.

Staging CT scan involves a full CT thorax, abdomen and pelvis (CT TAP). This is used to look for metastasis and other cancers.

CA 19-9 (carbohydrate antigen) is a tumour marker that may be raised in pancreatic cancer.

Magnetic resonance cholangio-pancreatography (MRCP) may be used to assess the biliary system in detail to assess the obstruction.

Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography (ERCP) can be used to put a stent in and relieve the obstruction, and also obtain a biopsy from the tumour.

Biopsy may be taken through the skin (percutaneous) under ultrasound or CT guidance, or during an endoscopy under ultrasound guidance.

235
Q

Management for pancreatic cancer

A

Surgery

  • Total pancreatectomy
  • Distal pancreatectomy
  • Pylorus-preserving pancreaticoduodenectomy (PPPD) (modified Whipple procedure)
  • Radical pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure)

In most cases, curative surgery is not possible. Palliative treatment may involve:

  • Stents inserted to relieve the biliary obstruction
  • Surgery to improve symptoms (e.g., bypassing the biliary obstruction)
  • Palliative chemotherapy (to improve symptoms and extend life)
  • Palliative radiotherapy (to improve symptoms and extend life)
  • End of life care with symptom control
236
Q

What is Whipple Procedure?

A

A Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy) is a surgical operation to remove a tumour of the head of the pancreas that has not spread. A Whipple procedure is a massive operation so patients need to be in good baseline health.

237
Q

Whipple Procedure involves the removal of ?

A
  • Head of the pancreas
  • Pylorus of the stomach
  • Duodenum
  • Gallbladder
  • Bile duct
  • Relevant lymph nodes
238
Q

A modified Whipple procedure is called

A

pylorus-preserving pancreaticoduodenectomy (PPPD).

leave pylorus in place

239
Q

Symptoms of Meckels’ Divertculum

A

Symptoms

  • GI bleeding (May contain gastric mucosa → gastric ulcerations)
  • Abdominal pain and cramping
  • Tenderness near the belly button
  • Obstruction of bowels
240
Q

Causes of pre-hepatic jaundice

A

Excess (billirubin) BR production

  • Haemolytic anaemia
  • Ineffective erythropoiesise.g. thalassaemia
241
Q

Causes of unconjugated hepatic jaundice

A

↓BR Uptake

  • Drugs: contrast, RMP
  • CCF

↓BR Conjugation

  • Hypothyroidism
  • Gilbert’s (AD)
  • Crigler-Najjar (AR)

Neonatal jaundice is both ↑production +↓conju

242
Q

Causes of conjugated hepatic jaundice

A

Hepatocellular Dysfunction

  • Congen:HH, Wilson’s,α1ATD
  • Infection:Hep A/B/C, CMV, EBV
  • Toxin:EtOH, drugs
  • AI:AIH
  • Neoplasia:HCC, mets
  • Vasc:Budd-Chiari

↓Hepatic BR Excretion

  • Dubin-Johnson
  • Rotor’
243
Q

Causes of post hepatic jaundice

A

Obstruction

  • Stones
  • Ca pancreas
  • Drugs
  • PBC
  • PSC
  • Biliary atresia
  • Choledochal cyst
  • Cholangio Ca
244
Q

What convertes uBR to cBR

A

BR-UDP-glucuronyl transferase in live

245
Q

what are normal billirubin levels

at what levels can jaundice obvious

A
  • Normal BR = 3-17uM
  • Jaundice visible @ 50uM (3 x ULN
246
Q

what are normal billirubin levels

at what levels can jaundice obvious

A
  • Normal BR = 3-17uM
  • Jaundice visible @ 50uM (3 x ULN
247
Q

What is Gilbert’s syndrome

How is it inherited?

What percentage of population is affected?

Dx:

A

In Gilbert’s syndrome, slightly higher than normal levels of a substance called bilirubin build up in the blood.

  • Auto dom partial UDP-GT deficiency
  • 2% of the population
  • Jaundice occurs during intercurrent illness
  • Dx:↑uBR on fasting, normal LFTs
248
Q

What is Crigler-Najjar

What is treatment

A
  • Rare auto rec total UDP-GT deficiency
  • Severe neonatal jaundice and kernicterus
  • Rx:liver Transplant
249
Q

What grading is used for Liver Cirrhosis

Explain it

A

Child-Pugh Grading of Cirrhosis

  • Predicts risk of bleeding, mortality and need for Tx
  • Graded A-C using severity of 5 factors
  • Albumin
  • Bilirubin
  • Clotting
  • Distension: Ascites
  • Encephalopathy
  • Score >8 = significant risk of variceal bleeding
250
Q

What grading is used for Liver Cirrhosis

Explain it

A

Child-Pugh Grading of Cirrhosis

  • Predicts risk of bleeding, mortality and need for Tx
  • Graded A-C using severity of 5 factors
  • Albumin
  • Bilirubin
  • Clotting
  • Distension: Ascites
  • Encephalopathy
  • Score >8 = significant risk of variceal bleeding
251
Q

Patho of autoimmune hepatitis

A
  • Inflammatory disease of unknown cause characterisedby Abs directed vs. hepatocyte surface antigens
  • Predominantly young and middle-aged women
252
Q

Classification of autoimmune hepatitis

A

Classified according to Abs

  • T1:Adult, SMA+ (80%), ANA+ (10%),↑IgG
  • T2:Young, LKM+
  • T3:Adult, SLA+
253
Q

What are some associated diseases with autoimmune hepatitis

A

Autoimmune thyroiditis

DM

Pernicious anaemia

PSC

UC

GN

AIHA (Coombs +ve)

254
Q

Ix for autoimmune hepatitis

A
  • ↑LFTs
  • ↑IgG
  • Auto Abs: SMA, LKM, SLA, ANA
  • ↓WCC and↓plats = hypersplenism
  • Liver biopsy
255
Q

Mx for autoimmune hepatitis

A

Immunosuppression

  • Prednisolone
  • Azathioprine as steroid-sparer

Liver transplant (disease may recur)

256
Q
A
257
Q
A
258
Q

Mx for autoimmune hepatitis

A

Immunosuppression

  • Prednisolone
  • Azathioprine as steroid-sparer

Liver transplant (disease may recur)

259
Q

Ix for autoimmune hepatitis

A
  • ↑LFTs
  • ↑IgG
  • Auto Abs: SMA, LKM, SLA, ANA
  • ↓WCC and↓plats = hypersplenism
  • Liver biopsy
260
Q

What are some associated diseases with autoimmune hepatitis

A

Autoimmune thyroiditis

DM

Pernicious anaemia

PSC

UC

GN

AIHA (Coombs +ve)

261
Q

Classification of autoimmune hepatitis

A

Classified according to Abs

  • T1:Adult, SMA+ (80%), ANA+ (10%),↑IgG
  • T2:Young, LKM+
  • T3:Adult, SLA+
262
Q

Patho of autoimmune hepatitis

A
  • Inflammatory disease of unknown cause characterisedby Abs directed vs. hepatocyte surface antigens
  • Predominantly young and middle-aged women
263
Q

What is Crigler-Najjar

What is treatment

A
  • Rare auto rec total UDP-GT deficiency
  • Severe neonatal jaundice and kernicterus
  • Rx:liver Transplant
264
Q

What is Gilbert’s syndrome

How is it inherited?

What percentage of population is affected?

Dx:

A

In Gilbert’s syndrome, slightly higher than normal levels of a substance called bilirubin build up in the blood.

  • Auto dom partial UDP-GT deficiency
  • 2% of the population
  • Jaundice occurs during intercurrent illness
  • Dx:↑uBR on fasting, normal LFTs
265
Q

What convertes uBR to cBR

A

BR-UDP-glucuronyl transferase in live

266
Q

Causes of post hepatic jaundice

A

Obstruction

  • Stones
  • Ca pancreas
  • Drugs
  • PBC
  • PSC
  • Biliary atresia
  • Choledochal cyst
  • Cholangio Ca
267
Q

Causes of conjugated hepatic jaundice

A

Hepatocellular Dysfunction

  • Congen:HH, Wilson’s,α1ATD
  • Infection:Hep A/B/C, CMV, EBV
  • Toxin:EtOH, drugs
  • AI:AIH
  • Neoplasia:HCC, mets
  • Vasc:Budd-Chiari

↓Hepatic BR Excretion

  • Dubin-Johnson
  • Rotor’
268
Q

Causes of unconjugated hepatic jaundice

A

↓BR Uptake

  • Drugs: contrast, RMP
  • CCF

↓BR Conjugation

  • Hypothyroidism
  • Gilbert’s (AD)
  • Crigler-Najjar (AR)

Neonatal jaundice is both ↑production +↓conju

269
Q

Causes of pre-hepatic jaundice

A

Excess (billirubin) BR production

  • Haemolytic anaemia
  • Ineffective erythropoiesise.g. thalassaemia
270
Q

Symptoms of Meckels’ Divertculum

A

Symptoms

  • GI bleeding (May contain gastric mucosa → gastric ulcerations)
  • Abdominal pain and cramping
  • Tenderness near the belly button
  • Obstruction of bowels
271
Q

A modified Whipple procedure is called

A

pylorus-preserving pancreaticoduodenectomy (PPPD).

leave pylorus in place

272
Q

Whipple Procedure involves the removal of ?

A
  • Head of the pancreas
  • Pylorus of the stomach
  • Duodenum
  • Gallbladder
  • Bile duct
  • Relevant lymph nodes
273
Q

What is Whipple Procedure?

A

A Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy) is a surgical operation to remove a tumour of the head of the pancreas that has not spread. A Whipple procedure is a massive operation so patients need to be in good baseline health.

274
Q

Management for pancreatic cancer

A

Surgery

  • Total pancreatectomy
  • Distal pancreatectomy
  • Pylorus-preserving pancreaticoduodenectomy (PPPD) (modified Whipple procedure)
  • Radical pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure)

In most cases, curative surgery is not possible. Palliative treatment may involve:

  • Stents inserted to relieve the biliary obstruction
  • Surgery to improve symptoms (e.g., bypassing the biliary obstruction)
  • Palliative chemotherapy (to improve symptoms and extend life)
  • Palliative radiotherapy (to improve symptoms and extend life)
  • End of life care with symptom control
275
Q

Ix for pancreatic cancer?

A

Diagnosis is based on imaging (usually CT scan) plus histology from a biopsy.

Staging CT scan involves a full CT thorax, abdomen and pelvis (CT TAP). This is used to look for metastasis and other cancers.

CA 19-9 (carbohydrate antigen) is a tumour marker that may be raised in pancreatic cancer.

Magnetic resonance cholangio-pancreatography (MRCP) may be used to assess the biliary system in detail to assess the obstruction.

Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography (ERCP) can be used to put a stent in and relieve the obstruction, and also obtain a biopsy from the tumour.

Biopsy may be taken through the skin (percutaneous) under ultrasound or CT guidance, or during an endoscopy under ultrasound guidance.

276
Q

What is Trousseau’s sign of malignancy

A

refers to migratory thrombophlebitis as a sign of malignancy, particularly pancreatic adenocarcinoma. Thrombophlebitis is where blood vessels become inflamed with an associated blood clot (thrombus) in that area. Migratory refers to the thrombophlebitis reoccurring in different locations over time.

277
Q

What is the sign called for palpable gallbladder along with jaundice

A

Courvoisier’s law

suggests cholangiocarcinoma or pancreatic cancer

278
Q

When does GP directly refer to accesss CT abdomen to assess pancreatic cancer?

A

if a patient has weight loss plus any of:

  • Diarrhoea
  • Back pain
  • Abdominal pain
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Constipation
  • New‑onset diabetes
279
Q

What are the NICE guidelines for when to refer for suspected pancreatic cancer:

A
  • Over 40 with jaundice – referred on a 2 week wait referral
  • Over 60 with weight loss plus an additional symptom (see below) – referred for a direct access CT abdomen
280
Q

It is worth noting that a new onset of diabetes, or a rapid worsening of glycaemic control type 2 diabetes, can be a sign of __________ ______

A

Pancreatic cancer

281
Q

Presentation of pancreatic cancer?

A
  • Painless Obstructive jaundice
  • Yellow skin and sclera
  • Pale stools
  • Dark urine
  • Generalised itching
  • Non-specific upper abdominal or back pain
  • Unintentional weight loss
  • Palpable mass in the epigastric region
  • Change in bowel habit
  • Nausea or vomiting
  • New‑onset diabetes or worsening of type 2 diabetes
282
Q

Where does pancreatic cancers spread to usually?

A

liver, then to the peritoneum, lungs and bones.

283
Q

Pancreatic Cancer

Pre hepatic/hepatic/Post hepatic

A

Post Hepatic

Obstructive jaundice

284
Q

Majority of pancreatic cancers are?

A

adenocarcinomas

285
Q

Ix for liver cirrhosis?

A

Bloods

  • FBC:↓WCC and↓plats indicate hypersplenism
  • ↑LFTs
  • ↑INR
  • ↓Albumin

Find Cause

  • EtOH:↑MCV,↑GGTNASH:hyperlipidaemia,↑glucose
  • Infection:Hep, CMV, EBV serology
  • Genetic:Ferritin,α1AT, caeruloplasmin (↓in Wilson’s)
  • Autoimmune:Abs (there is lots of cross-over)
  • AIH:SMA, SLA, LKM, ANA
  • PBC:AMA
  • PSC:ANCA, ANA
  • Ig:↑IgG – AIH,↑IgM – PBC
  • Ca:α-fetoprotein

Abdo US + PV Duplex

  • Small / large liver
  • Focal lesions
  • Reversed portal vein flow
  • Ascites

Ascitic Tap + MCS

PMN >250mm3indicates SBP

Liver biopsy

286
Q

Signs of Cirrhosis

What do they suggest?

A

Hands

  • Clubbing (± periostitis)
  • Leuconychia (↓albumin)
  • Terry’s nails (white proximally, red distally)
  • Palmer erythema- caused by hyperdynamic cirulation
  • Dupuytron’s contracture
  • Asterixis – “flapping tremor” in decompensated liver diseas

Face

  • Pallor: ACD
  • Xanthelasma: PBC
  • Parotid enlargement (esp. c̄EtOH)
  • Jaundice – caused by raised bilirubin

Trunk

  • Spider naevi (>5, fill from centre)- these are telangiectasia with a central arteriole and small vessels radiating away
  • Gynaecomastia- in males due to endocrine dysfunction
  • Loss of sexual hair
  • Brusing- due to abnormal clotting

Abdo

  • Striae
  • Hepatomegaly (may be small in late disease)
  • Splenomegaly- due to portal hypertension
  • Caput Medusae – distended paraumbilical veins due to portal hypertension
  • Testicular atrophy- in males due to endocrine dysfunction
287
Q

Rarer Causes of cirrhosis?

A
  • Genetic:Wilson’s,α1ATD, HH, CF
  • AI:AH, PBC, PSC
  • Drugs:Methotrexate, amiodarone, methyldopa,INH
  • Neoplasm:HCC, mets
  • Vasc:Budd-Chiari, RHF,constrict. pericarditis
288
Q

4 most common causes of Liver cirrhosis

A
  • Alcoholic liver disease
  • Non Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease
  • Hepatitis B
  • Hepatitis C
289
Q

This fibrosis affects the structure and blood flow through the liver, which causes increased resistance in the vessels leading in to the liver. This is called ________ __________

A

portal hypertension

290
Q

What is liver cirrhosis?

A

Liver cirrhosis is the result of chronic inflammation and damage to liver cells. When the liver cells are damaged they are replaced with scar tissue (fibrosis) and nodules of scar tissue form within the liver.

291
Q

Management NAFLD

A
  • Weight loss
  • Exercise
  • Stop smoking
  • Control of diabetes, blood pressure and cholesterol
  • Avoid alcohol

Refer patients with liver fibrosis to a liver specialist where they may treat with vitamin E or pioglitazone.

292
Q

Investigation in Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease

A

Liver Ultrasound can confirm the diagnosis of hepatic steatosis (fatty liver). It does not indicate the severity, the function of the liver or whether there is liver fibrosis.

Enhanced Liver Fibrosis (ELF) blood test. This is the first line recommended investigation for assessing fibrosis but it is not currently available in many areas. It measures three markers (HA, PIIINP and TIMP-1) and uses an algorithm to provide a result that indicates the fibrosis of the liver:

  • < 7.7 indicates none to mild fibrosis
  • ≥ 7.7 to 9.8 indicates moderate fibrosis
  • ≥ 9.8 indicates severe fibrosis

NAFLD fibrosis score is the second line recommended assessment for liver fibrosis where the ELF test is not available. It is based on an algorithm of age, BMI, liver enzymes, platelets, albumin and diabetes and is helpful in ruling out fibrosis but not assessing the severity when present.

Fibroscan is the third line investigation. It involves a particular ultrasound that measures the stiffness of the liver and gives an indication of fibrosis. This is performed if the ELF blood test or NAFLD fibrosis score indicates fibrosis.

  • BMI
  • Glucose, fasting lipids
  • ↑transaminases: AST:ALT <
  • Liver biopsy
293
Q

NAFLD Risk factors

A
  • Obesity
  • Poor diet and low activity levels
  • Type 2 diabetes
  • High cholesterol
  • Middle age onwards
  • Smoking
  • High blood pressure
294
Q

NAFLD stages?

A
  1. Non-alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease
  2. Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH)
  3. Fibrosis
  4. Cirrhosis
295
Q

What is NAFLD?

What is the extreme form of this called ?

A

Non alcholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) forms part of the “metabolic syndrome” group of chronic health conditions relating to processing and storing energy that increase risk of heart disease, stroke and diabetes. It is estimated that up to 30% of adults have NAFLD. It is characterised by fat deposited in liver cells. These fat deposits can interfered with the functioning of the liver cells. NAFLD does not cause problems initially, however it can progress to hepatitis and cirrhosis.

Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is most extremeform and→cirrhosis in 10%

296
Q

Korsakoffs syndrome reversible or irreversible

A
297
Q

What are the Features of Korsakoffs syndrome

A
  • Memory impairment (retrograde and anterograde)
  • Behavioural changes
    *
298
Q

What are the Features of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A
  • Confusion
  • Oculomotor disturbances (disturbances of eye movements)
  • Ataxia (difficulties with coordinated movements)
299
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome (WKS)

What is it?

A

Alcohol excess leads to thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. Thiamine is poorly absorbed in the presence of alcohol and alcoholics tend to have poor diets and rely on the alcohol for their calories. Wernicke’s encephalopathy comes before Korsakoffs syndrome. These result from thiamine deficiency.

300
Q

Which benzodiazepine is used to combat the effects of alcohol withdrawal.

What is alternative?

A

Chlordiazepoxide (“Librium”)

Diazepam

301
Q

What is CIWA-Ar

A

(Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment – Alcohol revised) tool can be used to score the patient on their withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment.

302
Q

When alcohol is removed from the system, GABA under-functions and glutamate over-functions causing an extreme excitability of the brain with excess adrenergic activity. This presents as:

A
  • Acute confusion
  • Severe agitation
  • Delusions and hallucinations
  • Tremor
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypertension
  • Hyperthermia
  • Ataxia (difficulties with coordinated movements)
  • Arrhythmias
303
Q

What is Delirium Tremens

A

Delirium tremens is a medical emergency associated with alcohol withdrawal with a mortality of 35% if left untreated. Alcohol stimulates GABA receptors in the brain. GABA receptors have a “relaxing” effect on the rest of the brain. Alcohol also inhibits glutamate receptors (also known as NMDA receptors) having a further inhibitory effect on the electrical activity of the brain.

304
Q

Withdrawal symptoms

Symptoms occur at different times after alcohol consumption ceases:

  • 6-12 hours:
  • 12-24 hours:
  • 24-48 hours:
  • 24-72 hours:
A
  • 6-12 hours: tremor, sweating, headache, craving and anxiety
  • 12-24 hours: hallucinations
  • 24-48 hours: seizures
  • 24-72 hours: “delirium tremens”
305
Q

What is general management for alcohol liver disease

A
  • Stop drinking alcohol permanently
  • Consider a detoxication regime
  • Nutritional support with vitamins (particularly thiamine) and a high protein diet
  • Steroids improve short term outcomes (over 1 month) in severe alcoholic hepatitis but infection and GI bleeding need to be treated first and do not improve outcomes over the long term
  • Treat complications of cirrhosis (portal hypertension, varices, ascites and hepatic encephalopathy)
  • Referral for liver transplant in severe disease however they must abstain from alcohol for 3 months prior to referral
306
Q

Ix for Alcohol Liver Disease

A

Bloods

FBC – raised MCV

LFTs – elevated ALT and AST (transaminases) and particularly raised gamma-GT. ALP will be elevated later in the disease. Low albumin due to reduced “synthetic function” of the liver. Elevated bilirubin in cirrhosis.

Clotting – elevated prothrombin time due to reduced “synthetic function” of the liver

U+Es may be deranged in hepatorenal syndrome.

Ultrasound

An ultrasound of the liver may show fatty changes early on described as “increased echogenicity”. It can also demonstrate changes related to cirrhosis if present.

“FibroScan” can be used to check the elasticity of the liver by sending high frequency sound waves into the liver. It helps assess the degree of cirrhosis.

Endoscopy

Endoscopy can be used to assess for and treat oesophageal varices when portal hypertension is suspected.

CT and MRI scans

CT and MRI can be used to look for fatty infiltration of the liver, hepatocellular carcinoma, hepatosplenomegaly, abnormal blood vessel changes and ascites.

Liver Biopsy

Liver biopsy can be used to confirm the diagnosis of alcohol-related hepatitis or cirrhosis. NICE recommend considering a liver biopsy in patients where steroid treatment is being considered.

307
Q

Signs of Liver Disease

A
  • Jaundice
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Spider Naevi
  • Palmar Erythema
  • Gynaecomastia
  • Bruising – due to abnormal clotting
  • Ascites
  • Caput Medusae – engorged superficial epigastric veins
  • Asterixis – “flapping tremor” in decompensated liver disease
308
Q

Complications of Alcohol

A
  • Alcoholic Liver Disease
  • Cirrhosis and the complications of cirrhosis including hepatocellular carcinoma
  • Alcohol Dependence and Withdrawal
  • Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome (WKS)
  • Pancreatitis
  • Alcoholic Cardiomyopathy
309
Q

What is AUDIT Questionnaire

A

The Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT) was developed by the World Health Organisation to screen people for harmful alcohol use. It involves 10 questions with multiple choice answers and gives a score. A score of 8 or more gives an indication of harmful use.

310
Q

What is the recommended alcohol consumption

A

That latest recommendations (Department of Health, 2016) are to not regularly drink more than 14 units per week for both men and women.

If drinking 14 units in a week, this should be spread evenly over 3 or more days and not more than 5 units in a day.

The government guidelines also state that any level of alcohol consumption increases the risk of cancers, particularly breast, mouth and throat.

Pregnant women should avoid alcohol completely.

311
Q

What are the 3 stepwise pricess of progression of alcoholic liver disease?

A

1. Alcohol related fatty liver

Drinking leads to a build-up of fat in the liver. If drinking stops this process reverses in around 2 weeks.

2. Alcoholic hepatitis

Drinking alcohol over a long period causes inflammation in the liver sites. Binge drinking is associated with the same effect. Mild alcoholic hepatitis is usually reversible with permanent abstinence.

3. Cirrhosis

This is where the liver is made up of scar tissue rather than healthy liver tissue. This is irreversible. Stopping drinking can prevent further damage. Continued drinking has a very poor prognosis.

312
Q

What is alcoholic liver disease?

A

Alcoholic liver disease results from the effects of the long term excessive consumption of alcohol on the liver. The onset and progression of alcoholic liver disease varies between people, suggesting that there may be a genetic predisposition to having harmful effects of alcohol on the liver.

313
Q

What is Gastroschisis?

A

Herniation of bowel loops (sometimes stomach and liver) through para-umbilical wall defect (lateral to the umbilicus)

Not covered by surrounding membrane

Investigations: Antenatal USS show herniation to lateral of umbilicus, free-floating

314
Q

What is Omphalocele?

A

Herniation of intestines (sometimes liver and other organs) out of umbilicus at birth due to abdominal wall defects

Failure to return to abdomen after natural protrusion during development

Covered by peritoneal membrane and amnion

Investigations: USS antenatal scan shows herniated loop contained within peritoneum

Associated with severe malformations, 25% mortality

315
Q

What is Meckel’s Diverticulum?

A

Persistence of vitellointestinal duct

Rule of 2s

2% of population

Present in first 2 years

2 inches in length

Approximately 2 ft from ileocaecal valve

316
Q

What is Hirschprung’s Disease

A

Agangliosis of myenteric and submucosal plexus in the distal colon and rectum which causes lack of peristalsis

Functional obstruction from spasms in denervated colon

Severe constipation within first 2 months

Investigations

X ray: colon distension

Biopsy to identify transition zone

Management: surgical removal of affected segment

317
Q

Name some congenital anomalies

A

Hirschprung’s Disease

Meckel’s Diverticulum

Omphalocele

Gastroschisis

318
Q

Risk factors for Pancreatic carcinoma

A

Western lifestyle

Cigarette smoking

High-fat diet

Liver cirrhosis

Chronic pancreatitis

Obesity

Family history/genetic factors (BRCA1/BRCA2/FAP/HNPCC)

319
Q

Complications of chronic pancreatitis?

A

Increased risk of pancreatic carcinoma

Pancreatic pseudocysts, fistula, ascites

Biliary obstruction

Malnutrition

Diabetes mellitus

320
Q

Investiagtions for chronic pancreatitis?

A

Serum lipase and amylase may or may not be elevated

Glucose tolerance test (endocrine function)

Imaging

CT : calcification, intrapancreatic cysts or chronic pseudocysts

ERCP: dilated and strictured ducts (chain of lakes pattern)

To differentiate from carcinoma

Pancreatic imaging + EUS + targeted needle biopsy

321
Q

Causes of chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Recurrent episodes of acute pancreatitis (alcohol)
  • Duct obstruction: tumour, gallstones, structural abnormalities (annular pancreas, pancreas divisum), traumatic strictures
  • Cystic fibrosis
322
Q

What is pathogenesis of Chronic pancreatitis?

A

Obstruction in the pancreatic ducts

Ductal dilatation and damage to tissue (atrophy of acinar cells)

Stellate cells lay down fibrotic tissue

Further resulting in atrophy of acinar cells, intraluminal calcification, narrowing of ducts

323
Q

What is chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Chronic inflammation causing irreversible structural damage

Atrophy of acinar cells

Fibrosis

Calcification

Dilation of ducts/ narrowing

  • Formation of chronic pseudocysts, intrapancreatic cysts
324
Q

Investiagtions for acute pancreatitis?

A

Elevated serum amylase >1000 IU/L

Elevated serum lipase (2-5x normal value)

LFTs: gallstones aetiology (jaundice)

Imaging

CT: swollen gland with inflammation, necrosis, pseudocyst

USS: gallstones

325
Q

WHat are gastrinomas?

A
  • Neuroendocrine tumours
  • Gastrin secreting
  • Cause severe peptic ulcer disease and diarrhoea (referred to as the Zollinger Ellison Syndrome)
  • Can either be sporadic (75-80% of cases) or associated with Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (20-30% of cases)
326
Q

What is Zollinger- Ellison syndrome?

A

Zollinger–Ellison syndrome is a disease in which tumours cause the stomach to produce too much acid, resulting in peptic ulcers. A gastrin secreting tumour (gastrinoma) - Excess gastric acid secretion leads to (unusual/severe peptic ulceration, oesophagitis, diarrhoea and

327
Q

Gastric cancer clinical features

A

Epigastric pain; may be relieved by food and antacids

Dysphagia especially if tumour involves stomach fundus

Anaemia

Nausea, vomiting and weight loss

Can have Liver, bone , brain and lung involvement

328
Q

Risk factors of colorectal cancer?

A

family history, those that have FAP or HNPCC, diet with lack of fibre, inflammatory bowel disease (ie ulcerative colitis)

329
Q

Colorectal cancer is the __ most commone cancer in the UK

Most occur in the ___

___ most common cause of cancer death in the UK

A

4th

rectum

2nd

330
Q

Typical lower GI cancer would be

A

colorectal cancers

331
Q

Typical upper GI cancer would be

A

Oesophageal cancers

Gastric cancers

332
Q

What is the adenoma- carcinoma sequence?

A

A stepwise pattern; of mutational activation of oncogenes ( ie Kras) and inactivation of tumour suppressor genes (eg p53) that results in cancer

333
Q

What is HEpatocellular carcinoma

A

Malignant tumour of the liver which occurs primarily in patients with pre-existing liver cirrhosis or chronic hepatitis

Most common type of primary liver cancer

Malignant tumour of the liver which occurs primarily in patients with pre-existing liver cirrhosis or chronic hepatitis

Most common type of primary liver cancer

334
Q

What is Hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Life-threatening medical condition that consists of rapid deterioration of kidney function in individuals with cirrhosis or fulminant liver failure

Occurs due to portal hypertension

335
Q

Causes of hepatopulmonary syndrome?

A

Due to formation of microscopic intrapulmonary arteriovenous dilations

Thought to be due to increased liver production or decreased liver clearance of vasodilators, e.g. NO

Dilation of blood vessels 🡪 over-perfusion relative to ventilation 🡪 V/Q mismatch

Increased gradient between the partial pressure of O2 in alveoli and adjacent arteries

336
Q

What is Hepatopulmonary syndrome

A

Syndrome of shortness of breath and hypoxemia caused by vasodilation in lungs of patients with liver disease

337
Q

What is treatment for hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Treatment = Oral lactulose

338
Q

Clinical features of heaptic encephalopathy

A

Asterixis, lethargy, movement problems, changes in mood or changes in personality, altered consciousness, seizures

339
Q

What is hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Reduced blood to liver 🡪 reduced liver function

Increased ammonia crosses BBB

Can be gradual or sudden

In advanced stages 🡪 coma

340
Q

What is portal hypertension?

A
  • Increased blood pressure in the hepatic portal system (portal venous system) usually due to hepatic cirrhosis
  • Obstruction may prevent the blood flow from the portal vein into the IVC
  • Causes the blood to accumulate in the hepatic portal system 🡪 increasing the pressure 🡪 PORTAL HYPERTENSION
  • Portosystemic Shunts- anastomoses between portal and systemic systems, due to portal HTN the blood backs up and varices form- these can rupture
  • Features (ABCDE)- ascites, bleeding, caput medusae, diminished liver function and enlarged spleen
341
Q

Complications of chronic liver failure?

A
  • Portal hypertension
  • Synthetic dysfunction
  • Hepatopulmonary syndrome
  • Hepatorenal syndrome
  • Encephalopathy
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
342
Q

Clinical features of Chronic liver failure?

A
  • Nail clubbing
  • Palmar erythema
  • Spider nevi
  • Gynaecomastia
  • Feminising hair distribution
  • Small irregular shrunken liver
  • Anaemia
  • Caput medusae
343
Q

Causes of chronic liver failure

A
  • Metabolic

Hereditary haemochromatosis -Accumulation of iron, reacts with H2O2 to form free radicals

NAFLD

Wilsons disease

  • Toxic and drugs

Alcohol

Drug induced is rare 🡪 methotrexate, amiodarone

  • Infections – hep b & c
  • Autoimmune

Primary biliary cholangitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, autoimmune hepatitis

344
Q

What is Chronic liver failure

A

Progressive destruction/regeneration of liver parenchyma leading to fibrosis and cirrhosis (> 6 months

345
Q

Complications of acute liver failure

A
  • Hepatic encephalopathy = altered level of consciousness
  • Impaired protein synthesis = measured by serum albumin + prothrombin time in blood
346
Q

Clinical features of Acute liver failure?

A
  • Jaundice
  • Bruising (coagulation disturbance)
  • Ascites
  • Tachycardia and hypotension
  • Due to reduced systemic vascular resistance
  • Signs of encephalopathy
  • Sweet smell on breath
347
Q

Causes of Acute Liver failure?

A
  • Drugs

50% of cases in the UK due to paracetamol overdose

others inc NSAIDs and ecstasy

  • Infection

Viral hepatitis, CMV, HSV, EBV

  • Acute fatty liver in pregnancy

Unmetabolized fetal fatty acids enter maternal circulation and accumulate in mothers liver

  • Wilsons disease

AR, copper accumulates in the liver

  • Budd-Chiari

Occlusion of hepatic vein

Abdo pain + ascites + liver enlargement

348
Q

What is Acute liver failure?

A

Onset of hepatic decompensation within 6 months, results in loss of function in 80-90%

349
Q

What is Post-hepatic jaundice

A
  • AKA obstructive jaundice
  • Due to obstruction of biliary drainage
  • Bilirubin that has been conjugated by the liver is not excreted
  • Excess conjugated bilirubin = conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
  • High ALP, AST and ALT (higher ALP)
350
Q

Examples of conditions where you can hepatic jaundice?

A
  • Alcoholic liver disease
  • Viral hepatitis
  • Primary biliary cirrhosis
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
351
Q

What is hepatic jaundice?

A
  • Due to dysfunction of the hepatic cells
  • Liver loses the ability to conjugate bilirubin
  • Liver may become cirrhotic 🡪 compromises the intra-hepatic portions of the biliary tree to cause some obstruction
  • Both unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin are found in blood
  • High ALT, AST and ALP (higher ALT&AST)
352
Q

Examples of conditons that can see pre hepatic jaundice?

A
  • Examples
  • Haemolytic anaemia
  • Malaria
  • Sickle cell thalassemia
  • SLE
353
Q

What is pre hepatic jaundice?

A

Excessive red cell breakdown which overwhelms the liver’s ability to conjugate bilirubin 🡪 unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

Any bilirubin that manages to become conjugated is excreted normally

Unconjugated bilirubin in the blood causes jaundice

ALT, AST, ALP will be normal

354
Q

Pre-hepatic jaundice and also be called?

A

haemolytic jaundice

355
Q

What are the types of jaundice?

A
  • Pre-hepatic
  • Hepatic/ intrahepatic/ hepatocellular
  • Post-hepatic
356
Q

What is Jaundice?

A

yellow appearance of the skin, sclerae and mucous membranes resulting from an increased bilirubin concentrations in body fluids

357
Q

Liver function tests- imaging

A
  • USS- Ultrasound is usually first line. Identifies any obstructive pathology present or gross liver pathology
  • Fibroscan
  • MRI
  • MRCP- Used to visualise the biliary tree. Usually performed if obstructive jaundice is suspected or US is inconclusive
  • X rays – hepatic angiogram
  • CT
  • Biopsy- Performed when the diagnosis has not been made despite the above investigations
358
Q

What are the types of Liver function tests?

A

ALT- Markers of hepatocellular damage, localised to liver

AST- Markers of hepatocellular damage, synthesised by liver, heart, skeletal muscle and brain

Billirubin- Assessing degree of jaundice

gGT- Cholestasis

ALP- Cholestasis – sources are bone and liver

Albumin- Synthetic function

Prothrombin time - Synthetic function

359
Q
A