Medicine Neurology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Hydrocephalus

A

Hydrocephalus describes cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) building up abnormally within the brain and spinal cord. This is a result of either over-production of CSF or a problem with draining or absorbing CSF.

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2
Q

What is Normal CSF Physiology

A

There are four ventricles in the brain: two lateral ventricles, the third and the fourth ventricles. The ventricles containing CSF. The CSF provides a cushion for the brain tissue. CSF is created in the four **choroid plexuses **(one in each ventricle) and by the walls of the ventricles. CSF is absorbed into the venous system by the arachnoid granulations.

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3
Q

Congenital Causes pof Hydrocephalus

A

The most common cause of hydrocephalus is aqueductal stenosis, leading to insufficiency drainage of CSF. The cerebral aqueduct that connects the third and fourth ventricle is stenosed (narrowed). This blocks the normal flow of CSF out of the third ventricle, causing CSF to build up in the lateral and third ventricles.

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4
Q

Hydrocephalus
Other causes:

A
  • Arachnoid cysts can block the outflow of CSF if they are large enough
  • Arnold-Chiari malformation is where the cerebellum herniates downwards through the foramen magnum**, blocking the outflow of CSF
  • Chromosomal abnormalities and congenital malformations can cause obstruction to CSF drainage.
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5
Q

Presentation Hydrocephalus

A

The cranial bones in babies are not fused at the sutures until around 2 years of age. Therefore, the skull is able to expand to fit the cranial contents. When a baby has hydrocephalus it causes outward pressure on the cranial bones. Therefore, babies with hydrocephalus will have an enlarged and rapidly increasing head circumference** (occipito-frontal circumference)**.

Other signs:

  • Bulging anterior fontanelle
  • Poor feeding and vomiting
  • Poor tone
  • Sleepiness
    *
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6
Q

What is Ventriculoperitoneal Shunt

A

Placing a VP shunt that drains CSF from the ventricles into another body cavity is the mainstay of treatment for hydrocephalus. Usually the peritoneal cavity is used to drain CSF, as there is plenty of space and it is easily reabsorbed. The surgeon places a small tube (catheter) through a small hole in the skull at the back of the head and into one of the ventricles. A valve on the end of this tube is placed subcutaneously, and a catheter on the other side of the valve runs under the skin into the peritoneal cavity. The valve helps to regulate the amount of CSF that drains from the ventricles.

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7
Q

VP Shunt Complications

A
  • Infection
  • Blockage
  • Excessive drainage
  • Intraventricular haemorrhage during shunt related surgery
  • Outgrowing them (they typically need replacing around every 2 years as the child grows)
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8
Q

Headaches are a very common presentation with a large number of causes. Causes include:

A
  • Tension headaches
  • Migraines
  • Cluster headaches
  • Secondary headaches
  • Sinusitis
  • Giant cell arteritis
  • Glaucoma
  • Intracranial haemorrhage
  • Venous sinus thrombosis
  • Subarachnoid haemorrhage
  • Medication overuse
  • Hormonal headache
  • Cervical spondylosis
  • Carbon monoxide poisoning
  • Trigeminal neuralgia
  • Raised intracranial pressure
  • Brain tumours
  • Meningitis
  • Encephalitis
  • Brain abscess
  • Pre-eclampsia
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9
Q

Key red flags associated with a headache, indicating a possible serious underly cause, include:

A
  • Fever, photophobia or neck stiffness (meningitis, encephalitis or brain abscess)
  • New neurological symptoms (haemorrhage or tumours)
  • Visual disturbance (giant cell arteritis, glaucoma or tumours)
  • Sudden-onset occipital headache (subarachnoid haemorrhage)
  • Worse on coughing or straining (raised intracranial pressure)
  • Postural, worse on standing, lying or bending over (raised intracranial pressure)
  • Vomiting (raised intracranial pressure or carbon monoxide poisoning)
  • History of trauma (intracranial haemorrhage)
  • History of cancer (brain metastasis)
  • Pregnancy (pre-eclampsia)
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10
Q

What are Tension Headaches

A

Tension headaches are very common. They typically cause a mild ache or pressure in a** band-like pattern** around the head. They develop and resolve gradually and do not produce visual changes.

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11
Q

Tension headaches may be associated with:

A
  • Stress
  • Depression
  • Alcohol
  • Skipping meals
  • Dehydration
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12
Q

Tension headache management

A

Management is with:

  • Reassurance
  • Simple analgesia (e.g., ibuprofen or paracetamol)

Amitriptyline is generally first-line for chronic or frequent tension headaches.

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13
Q

Secondary headaches give a similar presentation to a tension headache but with a clear cause, such as:

A
  • Infections (e.g., viral upper respiratory tract infection)
  • Obstructive sleep apnoea
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • Head injury
  • Carbon monoxide poisoning
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14
Q

What is Sinusitis

A

Sinusitis refers to inflammation of the paranasal sinuses in the face. It typically causes pain and pressure following a recent viral upper respiratory tract infection. There may be tenderness and swelling on palpation of the affected areas. Most cases are caused by a viral infection and resolve within 2-3 weeks. Prolonged cases (over 10 days) may be treated with a steroid nasal spray or antibiotics (phenoxymethylpenicillin first-line).

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15
Q

What is Medication-Overuse Headache

A

Medication-overuse headache (also called analgesic headache) is a headache caused by frequent analgesia use. It gives similar non-specific features to a tension headache. Withdrawal of the analgesia is important in treating the headache, although this can be challenging in patients with long-term pain.

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16
Q

What are Hormonal Headaches

A

Hormonal headaches are related to low oestrogen. They have similar features to migraines, with a unilateral, pulsatile headache associated with nausea. They are sometimes called menstrual migraines

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17
Q

Hormonal Headache may occur?

A
  • Two days before and the first three days of the menstrual period
  • In the perimenopausal period
  • Early pregnancy (headaches in the second half of pregnancy should prompt investigations for pre-eclampsia)
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18
Q

Hormonal Headache treatment

A

Triptans and NSAIDs (e.g., mefenamic acid) are treatment options.

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19
Q

WHat is Cervical Spondylosis

A

Cervical spondylosis is a common condition caused by degenerative changes in the cervical spine. It causes neck pain, usually made worse by movement. It often presents with headaches.

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20
Q

What is Trigeminal Neuralgia

A

Trigeminal neuralgia causes intense facial pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, which has three branches:

  • Ophthalmic (V1)
  • Maxillary (V2)
  • Mandibular (V3)
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21
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia can affect any combination of the branches. Over 90% of cases are unilateral. It is more common in patients with __________ ______

A

Trigeminal neuralgia can affect any combination of the branches. Over 90% of cases are unilateral. It is more common in patients with multiple sclerosis.

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22
Q

What is the pain like in trigeminal neuralgia

A

The pain comes on suddenly and can last seconds to hours. It may be described as an electricity-like, shooting, stabbing or burning pain. It may be triggered by touch, taking, eating, shaving or cold. Attacks may worsen over time.

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23
Q

Mx of trigeminal neuralgia

A

NICE CKS (updated 2022) recommend carbamazepine as first-line for trigeminal neuralgia. Various surgical interventions are possible where the symptoms persist.

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24
Q

What is a Migraine

A

Migraine is a complex neurological condition causing episodes or attacks of headache and associated symptoms. It is very common, tends to affect women more often than men and is most common in teenagers and young adults.

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25
Q

Migraine can be categorised into four main types:

A
  • Migraine without aura
  • Migraine with aura
  • Silent migraine (migraine with aura but without a headache)
  • Hemiplegic migraine
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26
Q

There are five stages of migraine:

A
  • Premonitory or **prodromal stage (can begin several days before the headache)
  • Aura (lasting up to 60 minutes)
  • Headache stage (lasts 4 to 72 hours)
  • Resolution stage (the headache may fade away or be relieved abruptly by vomiting or sleeping)
  • Postdromal or recovery phase
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27
Q

Migraine headaches last between 4 and 72 hours. Typical features are:

A
  • Usually unilateral but can be bilateral
  • Moderate-severe intensity
  • Pounding or throbbing in nature
  • Photophobia (discomfort with lights)
  • Phonophobia (discomfort with loud noises)
  • Osmophobia (discomfort with strong smells)
  • Aura (visual changes)
  • Nausea and vomiting
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28
Q

Aura can affect vision, sensation or language. Visual symptoms are the most common. These may be:

A
  • Sparks in the vision
  • Blurred vision
  • Lines across the vision
  • Loss of visual fields (e.g., scotoma)
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29
Q

____________ changes may include tingling or numbness. ____________ symptoms include dysphasia (difficulty speaking).

A

Sensation changes may include tingling or numbness. Language symptoms include dysphasia (difficulty speaking).

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30
Q

The main feature of hemiplegic migraines is ____________ Other symptoms may include ________ and ________ ___________.

A

The main feature of hemiplegic migraines is hemiplegia (unilateral limb weakness). Other symptoms may include ataxia (loss of coordination) and impaired consciousness.

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31
Q

How is Familial hemiplegic migraine inherited

A

autosomal dominant

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32
Q

What can Hemiplegic migraines mimic

A

stroke or TIA.

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33
Q

Migraine triggers vary between patients and may include:

A
  • Stress
  • Bright lights
  • Strong smells
  • Certain foods (e.g., chocolate, cheese and caffeine)
  • Dehydration
  • Menstruation
  • Disrupted sleep
  • Trauma
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34
Q

Mirgraine Acute Management

A

**Patients may develop strategies for managing symptoms, often retreating to a dark, quiet room and sleeping.

Medical options for an acute attack are:

  • NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen or naproxen)
  • Paracetamol
  • Triptans (e.g., sumatriptan)
  • Antiemetics if vomiting occurs (e.g., metoclopramide or prochlorperazine)

Opiates are not used to treat migraines and may make the condition worse.

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35
Q

What are Triptans

A

Triptans are used to abort migraines when they start to develop. They are 5-HT receptor agonists (they bind to and stimulate serotonin receptors), specifically 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D.

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36
Q

When do you take triptans

A

Triptans (e.g., sumatriptan) are taken as soon as a migraine headache starts. They should halt the attack. If the attack resolves and then reoccurs, another dose can be taken. If it does not work the first time, another second dose should **not **be taken for the same attack

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37
Q

What are the main contraindications for triptans

A

The main contraindications relate to risks associated with vasoconstriction, for example, hypertension, coronary artery disease or previous stroke, TIA or myocardial infarction.

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38
Q

A headache diary can help identify the triggers and assess the response to treatment. Avoiding triggers can be helpful.

The usual prophylactic medications to reduce the frequency and severity of attacks are:

A
  • Propranolol (a non-selective beta blocker)
  • Amitriptyline (a tricyclic antidepressant)
  • Topiramate (teratogenic and very effective contraception is needed)
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39
Q

More specialist options for mirgraine include:

A
  • Pizotifen
  • Candesartan
  • Sodium valproate
  • Monoclonal antibodies (e.g., erenumab and fremanezumab)
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40
Q
A
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41
Q

Migraine Other options mentioned in the NICE clinical knowledge summaries (updated 2022) include:

A
  • Cognitive behavioural therapy
  • Mindfulness and meditation
  • Acupuncture
  • Vitamin B2 (riboflavin)
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42
Q

___________ _______(e.g., frovatriptan or zolmitriptan) are an option for menstrual migraines. Symptoms tend to occur two days before until three days after the start of menstruation. Regular triptans may be taken during this time.

A

**Prophylactic triptans **(e.g., frovatriptan or zolmitriptan) are an option for menstrual migraines. Symptoms tend to occur two days before until three days after the start of menstruation. Regular triptans may be taken during this time.

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43
Q

Cluster headaches are severe and unbearable ____________ headaches, usually centred around the eye.

A

Cluster headaches are severe and unbearable unilateral headaches, usually centred around the eye.

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44
Q

What is the normal presentation of cluster headaches

A

They are called cluster headaches as they come in clusters of attacks and then disappear for extended periods. For example, a patient may suffer 3-4 episodes a day for weeks or months, followed by a pain-free period lasting several years. Attacks last between 15 minutes and 3 hours.

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45
Q

What is a typical exam question patient for cluster headaches?

A

A typical patient is a 30-50 year old male smoker. They may have triggers, such as alcohol, strong smells or exercise.

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46
Q

Syptoms of cluster headaches?

A

Cluster headaches cause severe pain. They are sometimes called “suicide headaches” due to their severity.

Associated symptoms are typically unilateral:

  • Red, swollen and watering eye
  • Pupil constriction (miosis)
  • Eyelid drooping (ptosis)
  • Nasal discharge
  • Facial sweating
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47
Q

Cluster headaches
Treatment options during acute attacks are:

A

Triptans (e.g., subcutaneous or intranasal sumatriptan)
High-flow 100% oxygen (may be kept at home)

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48
Q

Cluster headaches
____________ is the first line for prophylaxis (to prevent attacks).

A

Verapamil is the first line for prophylaxis (to prevent attacks).

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49
Q

Other options for cluster headaches prophylaxis are:

A
  • Occipital nerve block
  • Prednisolone (e.g., a short course to break the cycle during clusters)
  • Lithium
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50
Q

What is Encephalitis

A

Encephalitis means inflammation of the brain. This can be the result of infective or non-infective causes. Non-infective causes are autoimmune, meaning antibodies are created that target brain tissue.

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51
Q

What is the common causes of encephalitis
viral/bacterial/fungal

A

Viral

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52
Q

Encephalitis
The most common viral cause is ___________ ________ _______. In children the most common cause is _____ _______ ______ from cold sores. In neonates it is ____________ ______ ______ from genital herpes, contracted during birth.

A

The most common viral cause is herpes simplex virus (HSV). In children the most common cause is herpes simple type 1 (HSV-1) from cold sores. In neonates it is herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) from genital herpes, contracted during birth.

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53
Q

What are the other viral causes of encephalitis?

A

Other viral causes include varicella zoster virus (VZV) associated with chickenpox, cytomegalovirus associated with immunodeficiency, Epstein-Barr virus associated with infectious mononucleosis, enterovirus, adenovirus and influenza virus. It is important to ask about vaccinations, as the polio, mumps, rubella and measles viruses can cause encephalitis as well.

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54
Q

Presentation of Encephalitis

A
  • Altered consciousness
  • Altered cognition
  • Unusual behaviour
  • Acute onset of focal neurological symptoms
  • Acute onset of focal seizures
  • Fever
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55
Q

Children with features of encephalitis need some key investigations to establish the diagnosis:

A
  • Lumbar puncture, sending cerebrospinal fluid for viral PCR testing
  • CT scan if a lumbar puncture is contraindicated
  • MRI scan after the lumbar puncture to visualise the brain in detail
  • EEG recording can be helpful in mild or ambiguous symptoms but is not always routinely required
  • Swabs of other areas can help establish the causative organism, such as throat and vesicle swabs
  • HIV testing is recommended in all patients with encephalitis
    Contraindications to a lumbar puncture include a GCS below 9, haemodynamically unstable, active seizures or post-ictal.
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56
Q

Management for encephalitis

A

Intravenous antiviral medications are used to treat the suspected or confirmed underlying cause:

  • Aciclovir treats herpes simplex virus (HSV) and varicella zoster virus (VZV)
  • Ganciclovir treat cytomegalovirus (CMV)

Repeat lumbar puncture is usually performed to ensure successful treatment prior to stopping antivirals

Aciclovir is usually started empirically in suspected encephalitis until results are available. Other viral causes have no effective treatment and management is supportive.

Followup, support and rehabilitation is required after encephalitis, with help managing the complications.

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57
Q

Complications of Encephalitis

A
  • Lasting fatigue and prolonged recovery
  • Change in personality or mood
  • Changes to memory and cognition
  • Learning disability
  • Headaches
  • Chronic pain
  • Movement disorders
  • Sensory disturbance
  • Seizures
  • Hormonal imbalance
58
Q

What is Cauda equina syndrome

A

Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency where the nerve roots of the cauda equina at the bottom of the spine are compressed. It requires emergency decompression surgery to prevent permanent neurological dysfunction. However, even with immediate decompression, patients may still not regain full function.

59
Q

Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency where the nerve roots of the cauda equina at the bottom of the spine are compressed. It requires emergency decompression surgery to prevent permanent neurological dysfunction. However, even with immediate decompression, patients may still not regain full function.

A
  • Sensation to the lower limbs, perineum, bladder and rectum
  • Motor innervation to the lower limbs and the anal and urethral sphincters
  • Parasympathetic innervation of the bladder and rectum
60
Q

In cauda equina syndrome, the nerves of the cauda equina are compressed. There are several possible causes of compression, including

A
  • Herniated disc (the most common cause)
  • Tumours, particularly metastasis
  • Spondylolisthesis (anterior displacement of a vertebra out of line with the one below)
  • Abscess (infection)
  • Trauma
61
Q

Cauda Equina
The key red flags to look out for are:

A
  • Saddle anaesthesia (loss of sensation in the perineum – around the genitals and anus)
  • Loss of sensation in the bladder and rectum (not knowing when they are full)
  • Urinary retention or incontinence
  • Faecal incontinence
  • Bilateral sciatica
  • Bilateral or severe motor weakness in the legs
  • Reduced anal tone on PR examination

TOM TIP: A common way people ask about saddle anaesthesia when taking a history is to ask, “does it feel normal when you wipe after opening your bowels?”

62
Q

Cauda equina is a neurosurgical emergency. It requires:

A
  • **Immediate hospital admission **
  • Emergency MRI scan to confirm or exclude cauda equina syndrome
  • Neurosurgical input to consider lumbar decompression surgery
63
Q

What is Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression

A

When a metastatic lesion compresses the spinal cord (before the end of the spinal cord and the start of the cauda equina), this is called metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC). This is different to cauda equina, which specifically refers to compression of the cauda equina.

64
Q

MSCC presents similarly to cauda equina, with

A

back pain and motor and sensory signs and symptoms. A key feature is back pain that is worse on coughing or straining.

65
Q

MSCC is an ____________ ________ and requires rapid imaging and management. There are specialist MSCC coordinators who should be involved early to coordinate the imaging and treatment of patients with MSCC.

A

MSCC is an oncological emergency and requires rapid imaging and management. There are specialist MSCC coordinators who should be involved early to coordinate the imaging and treatment of patients with MSCC.

66
Q

Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression
Treatments will depend on individual factors. They may include:

A
  • High dose dexamethasone (to reduce swelling in the tumour and relieve compression)
  • Analgesia
  • Surgery
  • Radiotherapy
  • Chemotherapy
67
Q

How do you differentiate between cauda equina and MSCC

A

Cauda equina presents with lower motor neuron signs (reduced tone and reduced reflexes). The nerves being compressed are lower motor neurons that have already exited the spinal cord. When the spinal cord is being compressed higher up by metastatic spinal cord compression, upper motor neuron signs (increased tone, brisk reflexes and upping plantar responses) will be seen

68
Q

What is Benign essential tremor

A

Benign essential tremor is a relatively common condition associated with older age. It is characterised by a fine tremor affecting all the voluntary muscles. It is most notable in the hands but can affect other areas, for example, causing a head tremor, jaw tremor and vocal tremor.

69
Q

What are the features of Benign essential tremor

A
  • Fine tremor (6-12 Hz)
  • Symmetrical
  • More prominent with voluntary movement
  • Worse when tired, stressed or after caffeine
  • Improved by alcohol
  • Absent during sleep
70
Q

Differential Diagnosis of Tremor

A

Parkinson’s disease
Benign essential tremor
Multiple sclerosis
Huntington’s chorea
Hyperthyroidism
Fever
Dopamine antagonists (e.g., antipsychotics)

71
Q

Manageement of Benign essential tremor

A

There is no definitive treatment for benign essential tremor. The tremor is not harmful and does not require treatment if it is not causing functional or psychological problems.

Medications that may improve symptoms are:

  • Propranolol (a non-selective beta blocker)
  • **Primidone **(a barbiturate anti-epileptic medication)
72
Q

What is Motor neurone disease

A

Motor neurone disease is a term that encompasses a variety of specific diseases affecting the motor nerves. Motor neurone disease is a progressive, eventually fatal condition where the motor neurones stop functioning.

73
Q

Are there any sensory affects on Motor Neurone Disease

A

There is no effect on the sensory neurones. Sensory symptoms suggest an alternate diagnosis.

74
Q

What is the most common type of motor neurone disease

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is the most common and well-known type of motor neurone disease. Stephen Hawking had amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

75
Q

What is the second most common form of motor neurone disease?

A

Progressive bulbar palsy is the second most common form of motor neurone disease. It primarily affects the muscles of talking and swallowing (the bulbar muscles).

76
Q

Name other types of motor neurone disease to be aware of

A

Other types to be aware of are progressive muscular atrophy and primary lateral sclerosis.

77
Q

Does motor neurone disease involve upper or lower motor neurones?

A

Both
Motor neurone disease involves a progressive degeneration of both the upper and lower motor neurones. The sensory neurones are spared.

78
Q

Signs of lower motor neurone disease:

A

Muscle wasting
Reduced tone
Fasciculations (twitches in the muscles)
Reduced reflexes

79
Q

Signs of upper motor neurone disease:

A

Increased tone or spasticity
Brisk reflexes
Upgoing plantar reflex

80
Q

Typical hisotry of motor neurone disease?

A

The typical patient is a late middle-aged (e.g., 60) man, possibly with an affected relative. There is an insidious, progressive weakness of the muscles throughout the body, affecting the limbs, trunk, face and speech. The weakness is often first noticed in the upper limbs. There may be increased fatigue when exercising. They may complain of clumsiness, dropping things more often or tripping over. They can develop slurred speech (dysarthria).

81
Q

Diagnosis of Motor Neurone disease

A

The diagnosis needs to be made very carefully. It is based on the clinical presentation after excluding other conditions. It should only be made by a specialist when there is certainty. The diagnosis is often delayed, causing stress.

82
Q

Management for motor neurone disease?

A

There are no effective treatments for halting or reversing the progression of the disease.

Riluzole can slow the progression of the disease and extend survival by several months in ALS.

**Non-invasive ventilation (NIV) **can be used to support breathing when the respiratory muscles weaken.

83
Q

Patients with motor neurone disease tend to die of ____________ ______ or ____________

A

Patients with motor neurone disease tend to die of respiratory failure or pneumonia.

84
Q

What is Huntington’s disease

A

Huntington’s disease (also called Huntington’s chorea) is an autosomal dominant genetic condition that causes progressive neurological dysfunction.

It is a trinucleotide repeat disorder involving a genetic mutation in the** HTT** gene on chromosome 4, which codes for the huntingtin (HTT) protein.

85
Q

In huntingtons disease, symptoms typically begin when?

A

30-50

86
Q

Other examples of trinucleotide repeat disorders include:

A
  • Fragile X syndrome
  • Spinocerebellar ataxia
  • Myotonic dystrophy
  • Friedrich ataxia
87
Q

What is anticipation?

A

Huntington’s chorea displays something called genetic anticipation. Anticipation is a feature of trinucleotide repeat disorders, where successive generations have more repeats in the gene, resulting in:

  • Earlier age of onset
  • Increased severity of disease
88
Q

Presentation of huntingtons disease

A

Huntington’s chorea presents with an insidious, progressive worsening of symptoms. It typically begins with cognitive, psychiatric or mood problems, followed by the development of movement disorders:

  • Chorea (involuntary, random, irregular and abnormal body movements)
  • Dystonia (abnormal muscle tone, leading to abnormal postures)
  • Rigidity (increased resistance to the passive movement of a joint)
  • Eye movement disorders
  • Dysarthria (speech difficulties)
  • Dysphagia (swallowing difficulties)
89
Q

Management for huntingtons?

A

Diagnosis is made by genetic testing via a specialist genetic centre and involves pre and post-test counselling.

There are currently no treatment options for slowing or stopping the progression of the disease

90
Q

What is the Prognosis
Huntington’s chorea

A

Huntington’s chorea is a progressive condition. Life expectance is around 10-20 years after the onset of symptoms. As the disease progresses, patients become more frail and susceptible to illness (e.g., infections, weight loss, falls and pressure ulcers). Death is often due to aspiration pneumonia. Suicide is also a common cause of death

91
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis

A

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune condition affecting the neuromuscular junction. It causes muscle weakness that progressively worsens with activity and **improves with rest. **

92
Q

Myasthenia gravis affects men and women at different ages, typically affecting women under _ and men over .

A

Myasthenia gravis affects men and women at different ages, typically affecting women under 40 and men over 60.

93
Q

There is a strong link with ________. 10-20% of patients with myasthenia gravis have a ________. 30% of patients with a ________ develop myasthenia grav

A

There is a strong link with thymomas (thymus gland tumours). 10-20% of patients with myasthenia gravis have a thymoma. 30% of patients with a thymoma develop myasthenia grav

94
Q

Patho of Myasthenia Gravis

A

Acetylcholine receptor (AChR) antibodies are found in most patients with myasthenia gravis. These antibodies bind to the postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors, blocking them and preventing stimulation by acetylcholine. The more the receptors are used during muscle activity, the more they become blocked. There is less effective stimulation of the muscle with increased activity. With rest, the receptors are cleared, and the symptoms improve.

95
Q

Two other antibodies can cause myasthenia gravis:

A
  • Muscle-specific kinase (MuSK) antibodies
  • Low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 4 (LRP4) antibodies
96
Q

MuSK and LRP4 are important proteins for the creation and organisation of the _____________ _________. Destruction of these proteins leads to inadequate ____________ ________.

A

MuSK and LRP4 are important proteins for the creation and organisation of the** acetylcholine receptor.** Destruction of these proteins leads to inadequate acetylcholine receptors.

97
Q

What type of muscles to Myasthenia Gravis affect

A

The symptoms most affect the proximal muscles of the limbs and small muscles of the head and neck, with:

  • Difficulty climbing stairs, standing from a seat or raising their hands above their head
  • Extraocular muscle weakness, causing double vision (diplopia)
  • Eyelid weakness, causing drooping of the eyelids (ptosis)
  • Weakness in facial movements
  • Difficulty with swallowing
  • Fatigue in the jaw when chewing
  • Slurred speech
98
Q

Further examination steps for Myasthenia gravis include

A
  • Checking for a thymectomy scar
  • Testing the forced vital capacity (FVC)
99
Q

Ix for Myasthenia gravis

A

Antibody tests look for:

  • AChR antibodies (around 85%)
  • MuSK antibodies (less than 10%)
  • LRP4 antibodies (less than 5%)

A CT or MRI of the thymus gland is used to look for a thymoma.

The edrophonium test can be helpful where there is doubt about the diagnosis.

100
Q

What is Edrophonium Test

A

Patients are given intravenous edrophonium chloride (or neostigmine). Normally, cholinesterase enzymes in the neuromuscular junction break down acetylcholine. Edrophonium blocks these enzymes, reducing the breakdown of acetylcholine. As a result, the level of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction rises, temporarily relieving the weakness. A positive result suggests a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.

101
Q

What are the treatment options for Myasthenia gravis

A
  • Pyridostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor that prolongs the action of acetylcholine and improves symptoms
  • Immunosuppression (e.g., prednisolone or azathioprine) suppresses the production of antibodies
  • Thymectomy can improve symptoms, even in patients without a thymoma
  • Rituximab (a monoclonal antibody against B cells) is considered where other treatments fail
102
Q

What is Myasthenic Crisis and what is its treatment?

A

Myasthenic crisis is a potentially life-threatening complication of myasthenia gravis. It causes an acute worsening of symptoms, often triggered by another illness, such as a respiratory tract infection. Respiratory muscle weakness can lead to respiratory failure. Patients may require non-invasive ventilation or mechanical ventilation.

Treatment is with **IV immunoglobulins **and plasmapheresis.

103
Q

What is Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

A

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is an autoimmune condition affecting the neuromuscular junction, similar to myasthenia gravis. The symptoms tend to be more insidious and less pronounced than myasthenia gravis.

In most cases, it is a paraneoplastic syndrome occurring alongside small-cell lung cancer (SCLC). It can occur as a primary autoimmune disorder without the presence of SCLC.

104
Q

Pathophysiology of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

A

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome results from antibodies against voltage-gated calcium channels. These antibodies may be produced in response to **small-cell lung cancer (SCLC) **cells that express voltage-gated calcium channels. They target and damage voltage-gated calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junction.

**Voltage-gated calcium channels **are responsible for assisting in the release of acetylcholine into the synapse of the neuromuscular junction. Acetylcholine travels across the synapse and attaches to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, simulating muscle contraction. When the voltage-gated calcium channels are destroyed, less acetylcholine is released into the synapse, resulting in a weaker signal and reduced muscle contraction.

105
Q

Presentation of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

A

The key presenting features are:

  • Proximal muscle weakness, causing difficulty climbing stairs, standing from a seat or raising the arms overhead
  • Autonomic dysfunction, causing dry mouth, blurred vision, impotence and dizziness
  • Reduced or absent tendon reflexes

Signs and symptoms improve after periods of muscle contraction, which is the reverse of what is seen in myasthenia gravis. Reflexes may be absent in a rested patient but be present when testing immediately after the patient maximally contracts the associated muscles. Equally, muscle strength may improve after use.

106
Q

Presentation of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndromeManagement of

A

Excluding underlying malignancy (e.g., small-cell lung cancer) is essential.

Amifampridine works by blocking voltage-gated potassium channels in the presynaptic membrane, which in turn prolongs the depolarisation of the cell membrane and assists calcium channels in carrying out their action.

Other options include:

  • Pyridostigmine (cholinesterase inhibitor)
  • Immunosuppressants (e.g., prednisolone or azathioprine)
  • IV immunoglobulins
  • Plasmapheresis
107
Q

What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease

A

Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is an inherited disease that affects the peripheral motor and sensory neurones. It is also known as hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy. There are various types, with different genetic mutations and pathophysiology, causing myelin or axon dysfunction. The majority of mutations are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. Symptoms usually start to appear before the age of 10 but can be delayed until 40 or later.

108
Q

There are some classical features of Charcot-Marie-Tooth. Not all of these features will apply to all patients:

A
  • High foot arches (pes cavus)
  • Distal muscle wasting causing “inverted champagne bottle legs”
  • Lower leg weakness, particularly loss of ankle dorsiflexion (with a high stepping gait due to foot drop)
  • Weakness in the hands
  • Reduced tendon reflexes
  • Reduced muscle tone
  • Peripheral sensory loss
109
Q

What is Peripheral neuropathy

A

Peripheral neuropathy refers to reduced sensory and motor function in the peripheral nerves, typically affecting the feet and hands (“stocking-glove” distribution). It is a characteristic feature of Charcot-Marie-Tooth.

110
Q

Other causes of peripheral neuropathy can be remembered with the ABCDE mnemonic:

A

A – Alcohol
B – B12 deficiency
C – Cancer (e.g., myeloma) and Chronic kidney disease
D – Diabetes and Drugs (e.g., isoniazid, amiodarone, leflunomide and cisplatin)
E – Every vasculitis

A common OSCE scenario is to examine a patient with peripheral neuropathy. Charcot-Marie-Tooth is a relatively common condition with good signs and stable patients, making it popular in OSCEs. Look for the other features of the condition, suggest the diagnosis, and then run through the ABCDE mnemonic to indicate the other possible causes of peripheral neuropathy.

111
Q

What is treatment for CMT

A

There is no cure or treatment to prevent it from progressing. Management is supportive, with input from various members of the multidisciplinary team:

  • Neurologists and geneticists to make the diagnosis
  • Physiotherapists to maintain muscle strength and joint range of motion
  • Occupational therapists to assist with activities of living
  • Podiatrists to help with foot symptoms and suggest insoles and other orthoses to improve symptoms
  • Analgesia for neuropathic pain (e.g., amitriptyline)
  • Orthopaedic surgeons for severe joint deformities
112
Q

What is Neurofibromatosis

A

Neurofibromatosis is a genetic condition that causes nerve tumours (neuromas) to develop throughout the nervous system. These tumours are benign but can cause neurological and structural problems.

113
Q

What is more common Neurofibromatosis 1 or 2

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1 is more common than neurofibromatosis type 2

114
Q

The neurofibromatosis type 1 gene is found on chromosome ____. It codes for a protein called neurofibromin, which is a ______ _____ _______. Mutations in this gene are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.

A

The neurofibromatosis type 1 gene is found on chromosome 17. It codes for a protein called neurofibromin, which is a tumour suppressor protein. Mutations in this gene are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.

115
Q

The diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type 1 are based on the features, remembered with the “CRABBING” mnemonic:

A

C – Café-au-lait spots (more than 15mm diameter is significant in adults)
R – Relative with NF1
A – Axillary or inguinal freckling
BB – Bony dysplasia, such as Bowing of a long bone or sphenoid wing dysplasia
I – Iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules), which are yellow-brown spots on the iris
N – Neurofibromas
G – Glioma of the optic pathway

116
Q

What are neurofibromas?

A

Neurofibromas may be seen on the skin. They are skin-coloured, raised nodules or papules with a smooth, regular surface. A single skin neurofibroma without other features does not indicate neurofibromatosis. Two or more are significant. A plexiform neurofibroma is a larger, irregular, complex neurofibroma containing multiple cell types. A single plexiform neurofibroma is significant.

117
Q

What is the management of Neurofibromatosis

A

Diagnosis is based on the diagnostic criteria. Genetic testing can be helpful.

There is no treatment for the underlying disease process. Management involves monitoring, managing symptoms and treating complications.

118
Q

Complications of Neurofibromatosis

A
  • Migraines
  • Epilepsy
  • Renal artery stenosis, causing hypertension
  • Learning disability
  • Behavioural problems (e.g., ADHD)
  • Scoliosis of the spine
  • Vision loss (secondary to optic nerve gliomas)
  • Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumours
  • Gastrointestinal stromal tumour (a type of sarcoma)
  • Brain tumours
  • Spinal cord tumours with associated neurology (e.g., paraplegia)
  • Increased risk of cancer (e.g., breast cancer and leukaemia)
    TOM TIP: The two unique complications worth remembering for NF1 are malignant peripheral nerve sheath (MPNST) and gastrointestinal stromal tumours (GIST).
119
Q

The neurofibromatosis type 2 gene is found on chromosome ____. It codes for a protein called merlin, a _______ _________ ______ important in Schwann cells. Schwann cells provide the myelin sheath that surrounds neurones of the peripheral nervous system. Mutations in this gene lead to ________________ (benign tumours of the Schwann cells). Inheritance is also autosomal dominant.

A

The neurofibromatosis type 2 gene is found on chromosome 22. It codes for a protein called merlin, a **tumour suppressor protein **important in Schwann cells. Schwann cells provide the myelin sheath that surrounds neurones of the peripheral nervous system. Mutations in this gene lead to schwannomas (benign tumours of the Schwann cells). Inheritance is also autosomal dominant.

120
Q

Neurofibromatosis type 2 is particularly associated with ___________ _______, which are tumours of the auditory nerve that innervates the inner ear.

A

Neurofibromatosis type 2 is particularly associated with acoustic neuromas, which are tumours of the auditory nerve that innervates the inner ear.

121
Q

An exam patient with bilateral acoustic neuromas almost certainly has

A

neurofibromatosis type 2

122
Q

What is Facial nerve palsy

A

Facial nerve palsy refers to isolated dysfunction of the facial nerve and presents with unilateral facial weakness.

123
Q

The facial nerve exits the brainstem at the __________ ______. On its journey to the face, it passes through the____________ bone and ____ gland.

A

The facial nerve exits the brainstem at the cerebellopontine angle. On its journey to the face, it passes through the temporal bone and **parotid **gland.

124
Q

Facial nerve divides into five branches which are?

A

It then divides into five branches:

Temporal
Zygomatic
Buccal
Marginal mandibular
Cervical

125
Q

Motor function for Facial nerve?

A
  • Facial expression
  • Stapedius in the inner ear
  • Posterior digastric, stylohyoid and platysma muscles
126
Q

Sensory function for facial nerve

A

taste from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.

127
Q

Facial Nerve
Parasympathetic supply to the:

A
  • Submandibular and sublingual salivary glands
  • Lacrimal gland (stimulating tear production)
128
Q

Patients with new-onset ________ motor neurone facial nerve palsy need immediate management as a possible stroke. In contrast, patients with ________ motor neurone facial nerve palsy can be managed less urgently.

A

Patients with new-onset upper motor neurone facial nerve palsy need immediate management as a possible stroke. In contrast, patients with lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy can be managed less urgently.

129
Q

Each side of the forehead has ________ ________ ________ innervation by both sides of the brain. However, each side of the forehead only has ________ ______ ______ innervation from one side of the brain.

A

Each side of the forehead has upper motor neurone innervation by both sides of the brain. However, each side of the forehead only has lower motor neurone innervation from one side of the brain.

130
Q

Each side of the forehead has ________ motor neurone innervation by both sides of the brain. However, each side of the forehead only has________ motor neurone innervation from one side of the brain.

A

Each side of the forehead has upper motor neurone innervation by both sides of the brain. However, each side of the forehead only has lower motor neurone innervation from one side of the brain.

131
Q

Unilateral upper motor neurone lesions occur in:

A

Cerebrovascular accidents (strokes)
Tumours

132
Q

Bilateral upper motor neurone lesions are rare. They may occur in

A

Pseudobulbar palsies
Motor neurone disease

133
Q

What is bell’s palsy?

A

Bell’s palsy is a relatively common condition. It is idiopathic, meaning there is no apparent cause. It presents with a unilateral lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy. Most patients fully recover over several weeks, but recovery may take up to 12 months. A third are left with some residual weakness.

134
Q

Management for bell’s palsy

A

If patients present within 72 hours of developing symptoms, NICE clinical knowledge summaries (updated 2023) recommend considering prednisolone as treatment, either:

  • 50mg for 10 days
  • 60mg for 5 days followed by a 5-day reducing regime, dropping the dose by 10mg per day

Patients also require **lubricating eye drops **to prevent the eye from drying out and being damaged. If they develop pain in the eye, they need an ophthalmology review for exposure keratopathy. The eye can be taped closed at night.

135
Q

Ramsay-Hunt syndrome is caused by

A

varicella zoster virus (VZV)

136
Q

What type of motor neurone is Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome

A

unilateral lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy.

137
Q

Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome Presentation

A

Patients stereotypically have a painful and tender vesicular rash in the ear canal, pinna and around the ear on the affected side. This rash can extend to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and hard palate.

138
Q

Treatment for ramsay hunt syndrome?

A

Treatment is with aciclovir and prednisolone. Patients also require lubricating eye drops.

139
Q

Other Causes of Lower Motor Neurone Facial Nerve Palsy
Infections:

A

Otitis media
Otitis externa
HIV
Lyme disease

140
Q

Other Causes of Lower Motor Neurone Facial Nerve Palsy
Systemic diseases:

A
  • Diabetes
  • Sarcoidosis
  • Leukaemia
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Guillain–Barré
141
Q

Other Causes of Lower Motor Neurone Facial Nerve Palsy
Tumours:

A

Acoustic neuroma
Parotid tumour
Cholesteatoma

142
Q

Other Causes of Lower Motor Neurone Facial Nerve Palsy
Trauma:

A

Direct nerve trauma
Surgery
Base of skull fractures