Surgery - Anaesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

There are two main categories of anaesthesia:

A
  • General anaesthesia – making the patient unconscious
  • Regional anaesthesia – blocking feeling to an isolated area of the body (e.g., a limb)
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2
Q

What is general anaesthetic

A

A general anaesthetic involves putting the patient in a state of controlled unconsciousness. It is most often used so that a major surgical operation can be performed. During a general anaesthetic, the patient will be intubated or have a supraglottic airway device, and their breathing will be supported and controlled by a ventilator. The patient will be continuously monitored at all times immediately before, during and after general anaesthesia.

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3
Q

Before a planned general anaesthesic, the patient will have a period of fasting. What is the purpose of this?

A

The purpose of fasting is to make sure they have an empty stomach, to reduce the risk of the stomach contents refluxing into the **oropharynx **(throat), then being aspirated into the trachea (airway). Gastric contents in the lungs creates an aggressive inflammatory response, causing pneumonitis (inflammation of the lung tissue). The risk of aspiration is highest before and during intubation, and when they are extubated. Once the endotracheal tube is correctly fitted, the airway is blocked and protected from aspiration.

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4
Q

___________ _______ and pneumonia are major causes of morbidity and mortality in anaesthetics, although with planned procedures they are very rare.

A

Aspiration pneumonitis and pneumonia are major causes of morbidity and mortality in anaesthetics, although with planned procedures they are very rare.

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5
Q

Fasting for an operation typically involves:

A
  • 6 hours of no food or feeds before the operation
  • 2 hours of no clear fluids (fully “nil by mouth”)
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6
Q

Before being put under a general anaesthetic, the patient will have a period of several minutes where they breathe 100% oxygen.
Why do they do this?
What is this called?

A

This gives them a reserve of oxygen for the period between when they lose consciousness and are successfully intubated and ventilated (in case the anaesthetist has difficulty establishing the airway). This step may need to be skipped when an emergency general anaesthetic is required.
Preoxygenation

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7
Q

What is the purpose of premedicating the patient before general anaesthetic?

1

A

Medications are given before the patient is put under a general anaesthetic to relax them, reduce anxiety, reduce pain and make intubation easier.

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8
Q

Medications given before the patient is put under a general anaesthetic include:

A
  • Benzodiazepines (e.g., midazolam) to relax the muscles and reduce anxiety (also causes amnesia)
  • **Opiates **(e.g., fentanyl or alfentanyl) to reduce pain and reduce the hypertensive response to the laryngoscope
  • Alpha-2-adrenergic agonists (e.g., clonidine), which can help with sedation and pain
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9
Q

When is Rapid Sequence Induction/Intubation used?

A

Rapid sequence induction/intubation (RSI) is used to gain control over the airway as quickly and safely as possible where a patient is intubated in an emergency scenario and detailed pre-planning is not possible. This is considerably more risky, as the patient has often not been fasted (risk of aspiration), and the anaesthetist has not had the chance to plan for individual factors and potential problems (e.g., a difficult airway).
It is also used in non-emergency situations where the airway needs to be secured quickly to avoid aspiration, such as in patients with gastro-oesophageal reflux or pregnancy.

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10
Q

Purpose of Rapid Sequence Induction/Intubation

A

The procedure is designed to ensure successful intubation with an endotracheal tube as soon as possible after induction (when the patient is unconscious) to protect the airway. The biggest concern during RSI is the aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. The bed can be positioned so the patient is more upright to reduce the reflux of contents up the oesophagus. Cricoid pressure (pressing down on the cricoid cartilage in the neck) may be used to compress the oesophagus and prevent the stomach contents from refluxing into the pharynx (this is somewhat controversial and should only be done by someone trained and experienced

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11
Q

There is a triad of general anaesthesia:

A
  • Hypnosis
  • Muscle relaxation
  • Analgesia
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12
Q

Hypnotic agents are used to make the patient unconscious. They can be either given ________ or by _________.

A

Hypnotic agents are used to make the patient unconscious. They can be either given **intravenously **or by inhalation.

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13
Q

Hypnosis
Intravenous options for a general anaesthetic include:

A
  • Propofol (the most commonly used)
  • Ketamine
  • Thiopental sodium (less common)
  • Etomidate (rarely used)
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14
Q

Hypnosis
Inhaled options for a general anaesthetic include:

A
  • Sevoflurane (the most commonly used)
  • Desflurane (less favourable as bad for the environment)
  • Isoflurane (very rarely used)
  • Nitrous oxide (combined with other anaesthetic medications – may be used for gas induction in children)
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15
Q

Sevoflurane, desflurane and isoflurane are volatile anaesthetic agents. What is volatile agents

A

Volatile agents are liquid at room temperature and need to be vaporised into a gas to be inhaled.
Vaporiser devices are used for inhaled volatile agents. The liquid medication is poured into the machine. The machine then turns it into vapour and mixes it with air in a controlled way. During the anaesthesia, the concentration of the vaporised anaesthetic medication can be altered to control the depth of anaesthesia

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16
Q

Whats more common inhaled or intravenous medication as an induction agent?

A

Commonly, an** intravenous** medication will be used as an induction agent (to induce unconsciousness), and inhaled medications will be used to maintain the general anaesthetic during the operation. Inhaled medications need to diffuse across the lung tissue and into the blood, where it takes a while for them to reach an effective concentration. IV agents have a head start, as they are infused directly into the blood and so can quickly reach an effective concentration.

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17
Q

WHat is Total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA

A

Total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA) involves using an intravenous medication for induction and maintenance of the general anaesthetic. Propofol is the most commonly used. This can give a nicer recovery (as they wake up) compared with inhaled options.

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18
Q

What is the function of Muscle Relation

A

Muscle relaxants block the neuromuscular junction from working. Acetylcholine (the neurotransmitter) is released by the axon but is blocked from stimulating a response from the muscle. Muscle relaxants are given to relax and paralyse the muscles.

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19
Q

Muscle Relaxation
What are the two categories:

A
  • Depolarising (e.g., suxamethonium)
  • Non-depolarising (e.g., rocuronium and atracurium)
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20
Q

What can reverse the effects of neuromuscular blocking medications.

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., neostigmine)

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21
Q

What can you use to specifically reverse the effects of certain non-depolarising muscle relaxants (rocuronium and vecuronium).

A

Sugammadex

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22
Q

Opiates are the most frequently used medication for analgesia (pain relief). Common agents used in anaesthetics are:

A
  • Fentanyl
  • Alfentanil
  • Remifentanil
  • Morphine
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23
Q

Antiemetics are often given at the end of the procedure by the anaesthetist to prevent post-operative nausea and vomiting. Common options for prophylaxis given at the end of the operation are:

A
  • Ondansetron (5HT3 receptor antagonist) – avoided in patients at risk of prolonged QT interval
  • Dexamethasone (corticosteroid) – used with caution in diabetic or immunocompromised patients
  • Cyclizine (histamine (H1) receptor antagonist) – caution with heart failure and elderly patients*
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24
Q

Before waking the patient, the muscle relaxant needs to have worn off. It is not good for the patient to regain consciousness whilst still paralysed (“awareness under anaesthesia”). A _____ _________ may be used to test the muscle responses to stimulation, to ensure the muscle relaxant effects have ended

A

Before waking the patient, the muscle relaxant needs to have worn off. It is not good for the patient to regain consciousness whilst still paralysed (“awareness under anaesthesia”). A **nerve stimulator **may be used to test the muscle responses to stimulation, to ensure the muscle relaxant effects have ended

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25
Q

What are the nerve simulator options?

A

This is often tested on the ulnar nerve at the wrist, watching for thumb movement (twitches). Alternatively, the** facial nerve **can be stimulated at the temple while watching for movement in the orbiculares oculi muscle at the eye. This involves a train-of-four (TOF)

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26
Q

What is Train of Four (TOF)

A

a train-of-four (TOF) stimulation, is where the nerve is stimulated four times to see if the muscle responses remain strong (indicating it has worn off) or whether they get weaker with additional stimulation (indicating it has not fully worn off). Medication can be used to reverse the effects of the muscle relaxants as discussed above (e.g., sugammadex).

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27
Q

Once the muscle relaxant has worn off, the inhaled anaesthetic is stopped. The concentration of the anaesthetic in the body will fall, and the patient will regain consciousness. They are ________ at the point where they are breathing for themselves.

A

Once the muscle relaxant has worn off, the inhaled anaesthetic is stopped. The concentration of the anaesthetic in the body will fall, and the patient will regain consciousness. They are **extubated **at the point where they are breathing for themselves.

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28
Q

Risks of General Anaesthesia

A

Sore throat and post-operative nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of general anaesthesia.

Significant risks of general anaesthesia include:

  • Accidental awareness (waking during the anaesthetic)
  • Aspiration
  • Dental injury, mainly when the laryngoscope is used for intubation
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Cardiovascular events (e.g., myocardial infarction, stroke and arrhythmias)
  • Malignant hyperthermia (rare)
  • Death
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29
Q

What is Malignant Hyperthermia

A

Malignant hyperthermia is a rare but potentially fatal hypermetabolic response to anaesthesia. The risk is mainly with:

  • Volatile anaesthetics (isoflurane, sevoflurane and desflurane)
  • Suxamethonium
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30
Q

There are genetic mutations that increase the risk of malignant hyperthermia. These are inherited in an _______ _______ pattern.

A

There are genetic mutations that increase the risk of malignant hyperthermia. These are inherited in an** autosomal dominant **pattern.

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31
Q

Malignant hyperthermia causes:

A
  • Increased body temperature (hyperthermia)
  • Increased carbon dioxide production
  • Tachycardia
  • Muscle rigidity
  • Acidosis
  • Hyperkalaemia
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32
Q

How is Malignant Hyperthermia treated?

A

It is treated with dantrolene. Dantrolene interrupts the muscle rigidity and hypermetabolism by interfering with the movement of calcium ions in skeletal muscle.

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33
Q

Name other types of Anaesthesia

A
  • Peripheral Nerve Blocks
  • Central Neuraxial Anaesthesia
  • Epidural Anaesthesia
  • Local Anaesthesia
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34
Q

Peripheral nerve blocks are a type of ________ anaesthesia.

A

Peripheral nerve blocks are a type of regional anaesthesia.

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35
Q

What is Peripheral Nerve Blocks

A

Peripheral nerve blocks are a type of regional anaesthesia. The patient remains awake during the procedure. A local anaesthetic is injected around specific nerves, causing the area distal to the nerves to be anaesthetised. This usually involves making a limb numb so that a surgeon can operate without causing any pain. A screen is put up between the patient and the operating site so that they cannot see the operation taking place.

The injection is performed under ultrasound guidance, sometimes with the help of a nerve stimulator, so that it can be accurately applied to the area around the targeted nerve

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36
Q

Central neuraxial anaesthesia is also known as a _____ _________ or ________ ________. It is a type of ________ anaesthesia.

A

Central neuraxial anaesthesia is also known as a spinal anaesthetic or spinal block. It is a type of regional anaesthesia.

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37
Q

Central Neuraxial Anaesthesia
The most common examples of when it is used for:

A
  • Caesarean sections
  • Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
  • Hip fracture repairs
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38
Q

What is Central Neuraxial Anaesthesia

A

The patient remains awake during the procedure. A local anaesthetic is injected into the cerebrospinal fluid, within the subarachnoid space. It is only used in the lumbar spine, after the point where the spinal cord ends, to avoid damaging the spinal cord. In practice, the needle is usually inserted into the L3/4 or L4/5 spaces.

Neuraxial anaesthesia will cause numbness and paralysis of the areas innervated by the spinal nerves below the level of the injection. Cold spray applied to the skin is often used to test whether the anaesthetic has worked. It takes around 1-3 hours for the anaesthetic to wear off.

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39
Q

What is Epidural Anaesthesia

A

Epidural anaesthesia is most commonly used for analgesia in pregnant women in labour and post-operatively after a laparotomy (open abdominal surgery). Importantly, **an epidural is different from a neuraxial/spinal block. **

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40
Q

What does an epidural involve?

A

An epidural involves inserting a small tube (catheter) into the epidural space in the lower back. This is **outside **the dura mater, separate from the spinal cord and CSF. Local anaesthetic medications are infused through the catheter into the epidural space, where they diffuse to the surrounding tissues and spinal nerve roots, where they have an analgesic effect. This offers good pain relief during labour. Levobupivacaine is often used, with or without fentanyl.

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41
Q

What are the Adverse effects Epidural

A

Headache if the dura is punctured, creating a hole for CSF to leak from** (“dural tap”)**
Hypotension
Motor weakness in the legs
Nerve damage (rare)
Infection, including meningitis
Haematoma (may cause spinal cord compression)

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42
Q

Epidural
When used for analgesia in labour, the risks include:

A
  • Prolonged second stage
  • Increased probability of instrumental delivery

Patients need an urgent anaesthetic review if they develop significant motor weakness (unable to straight leg raise). The catheter may be incorrectly sited in the subarachnoid space (and cerebrospinal fluid) rather than the epidural space.

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43
Q

What is Local Anaesthesia

A

Local anaesthesia is used to numb a very specific area where a procedure is being performed. The local anaesthetic (e.g., lidocaine) is usually injected by the person performing the procedure (rather than involving an anaesthetist). This is usually used for smaller operations and procedures

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44
Q

Common examples of procedures performed using a local anaesthetic are:

A
  • Skin sutures in A&E after a skin laceration
  • Minor surgery to remove skin lesions
  • Dental procedures
  • Hand surgery (e.g., carpal tunnel syndrome surgery)
  • Performing a lumbar puncture
  • Inserting a central line
  • Percutaneous procedures (e.g., percutaneous coronary intervention)
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45
Q

What is an endotracheal tube (ETT)

A

An endotracheal tube (ETT) is a flexible plastic tube with an inflatable cuff (balloon) at one end and a connector at the other. The tip of the endotracheal tube is inserted through the mouth, throat (pharynx), larynx and vocal cords into the trachea. Endotracheal tubes come in different sizes, with the diameter written in mm (e.g., 7-7.5mm for women, 8-8.5mm for men)

Once in the correct position, a syringe can be used to inflate the cuff via the pilot line. There is a pilot balloon towards the end of the pilot line, which inflates along with the cuff and allows the anaesthetist to roughly assess how inflated the cuff is (while it is out of sight in the trachea). The pressure in the cuff can be checked with a manometer (pressure sensor) to avoid over or under-inflation. There is a valve on the end of the pilot line that keeps the pilot balloon inflated.

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46
Q

The _________ _____ provides an extra hole on the side of the tip that gas can flow through in the event that the main opening at the tip of the ETT becomes occluded (blocked)

A

The Murphy’s eye provides an extra hole on the side of the tip that gas can flow through in the event that the main opening at the tip of the ETT becomes occluded (blocked)

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47
Q

What is a laryngoscope?
What is a McGrath Laryngoscope

A

A laryngoscope is a metal blade attached to a handle, with a light attached. It is inserted through the mouth and into the pharynx to visualise the vocal cords. An endotracheal tube can be guided along the blade into position in the trachea. A McGrath laryngoscope is a high-tech version of a standard laryngoscope, which has a camera and screen attached so that the vocal cords can be visualised via a live video feed.

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48
Q

What is a bougie

A

A bougie is a device to help with intubation, notably when the vocal cords cannot be visualised. The bougie is inserted into the trachea. The endotracheal tube slides along the bougie into the correct position in the airway. The bougie is then removed, and the endotracheal tube remains in place.

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49
Q

What is a stylet

A

A stylet is another device to help with intubation. It is a stiff metal wire (with a plastic coating) that is inserted into the endotracheal tube before intubation is attempted. It can be bent to hold the endotracheal tube in a specific shape. It is usually used to bend the tip of the endotracheal tube** anteriorly** towards the trachea (to avoid going posteriorly into the oesophagus).

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50
Q

What is Awake fibre-optic intubation

A

Awake fibre-optic intubation is a special procedure where the endotracheal tube is inserted with the patient awake, under the guidance of an endoscope (camera). A long thin tube with a camera on the end (endoscope) is inserted through the nose or mouth, down to a position below the vocal cords. The endotracheal tube is then inserted over the top of this tube into the correct position. Then the endoscope is removed, leaving the endotracheal tube in position. This is used where there is restricted mouth opening or difficult anatomy (e.g., after radiotherapy to the neck). Putting the patient to sleep prior to inserting the endotracheal tube is more risky, as a delay in intubation can lead to hypoxia.

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51
Q

What is Trismus

A

Trismus refers to pain and restriction when opening the jaw. This can make intubation more difficult and might need** awake fibre-optic intubation.**

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52
Q

What is Supraglottic Airway Devices

A

A supraglottic airway device (SAD) are an alternative to endotracheal intubation for ventilation. They are very commonly used in both elective and emergency scenarios. They are the first option if intubation fails in a difficult airway scenario.

The tip of the SAD will be located at the top of the oesophagus. The cuff will fit around the opening of the larynx, forming a seal between the device and the airway. The cuff can be inflatable or non-inflatable. SADs with inflatable cuffs are called laryngeal mask airways (LMA).

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53
Q

What is I-gel

A

I-gel is a type of non-inflatable SAD that uses a gel-like cuff that moulds to the larynx.

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54
Q

WHat are Oropharyngeal (Guedel) airways

A

Oropharyngeal (Guedel) airways are inserted into the oropharynx. They are rigid and create an air passage between in front of the teeth and the base of the tongue, maintaining a patent upper airway. They are inserted upside down, then rotated into position once the tip is past the tongue. These are most often used when ventilating the patient via a face mask and bag prior to inserting an SAD or ETT. The size is measured from the centre of the mouth to the angle of the jaw

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55
Q

What are Nasopharyngeal airways

A

Nasopharyngeal airways are slightly flexible tubes inserted through the nose. They create an air passage from outside the nostril to the pharynx (throat). The size is measured from the edge of the nostril to the tragus of the ear. They are often used in emergency scenarios, for example, in A&E or at cardiac arrests. They carry a risk of nosebleeds (epistaxis). A base of skull fracture is a contraindication for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway

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56
Q

What is a Tracheostomy

A

A tracheostomy refers to creating a new opening (-ostomy) in the trachea (trache-). A hole is made in the front of the neck with direct access to the trachea. A tracheostomy tube is inserted through the hole into the trachea and held in place with stitches or soft tie around the neck (trach tie). Tracheostomies may be temporary or permanent, depending on the indication.

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57
Q

Indications for a tracheostomy include

A
  • Respiratory failure where long-term ventilation may be required (e.g., after an acquired brain injury)
  • Prolonged weaning from mechanical ventilation (e.g., ICU patients that are weak after critical illness)
  • Upper airway obstruction (e.g., by a tumour or head and neck surgery)
  • Management of respiratory secretions (e.g., in patients with paralysis)
  • Reducing the risk of aspiration (e.g., in patients with an unsafe swallow or absent cough reflex)
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58
Q

The Difficult Airway Society (DAS) have published guidelines on the steps to take in the case of unanticipated difficulty intubating a patient (DAS guidelines 2015).

There are four stages (summarised):

A
  • **Plan A **– laryngoscopy with tracheal intubation
  • Plan B – supraglottic airway device
  • Plan C – face mask ventilation and wake the patient up
  • Plan D – cricothyroidotomy
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59
Q

What is Arterial Line

A

An arterial line is a special type of cannula inserted into an** artery** (e.g., the radial artery). The **blood pressure **can be accurately monitored in real-time using an arterial line. **Arterial blood samples **(for ABG monitoring) can be taken from the line. Medications are never given through an arterial line.

60
Q

What is a Central Line

A

A central line is also called a central venous catheter. This is essentially a long thin tube with several lumens (usually 3-5) that is inserted into a large vein, with the tip located in the vena cava

61
Q
A
62
Q

Central line can be inserted into the:

A
  • Internal jugular vein
  • Subclavian vein
  • Femoral vein
63
Q

Central Lines have separate ________ (tubes), which can be used for giving medications or taking blood samples. They last longer and are more reliable than peripheral cannulas. They can also be used for medications that would be too irritating to be given through a peripheral cannula (e.g., inotropes, amiodarone or fluids with a high potassium concentration)

A

They have separate lumens (tubes), which can be used for giving medications or taking blood samples. They last longer and are more reliable than peripheral cannulas. They can also be used for medications that would be too irritating to be given through a peripheral cannula (e.g., inotropes, amiodarone or fluids with a high potassium concentration)

64
Q

What is a Vas Cath

A

A Vas Cath is a type of central venous catheter inserted on a temporary basis, usually into the internal jugular or femoral vein. It has two or three lumens. It may be used for short-term haemodialysis (in renal failure).

65
Q

What is a PICC Line

A

A **peripherally inserted central catheter **(PICC line) is a type of central venous catheter. A long, thin tube is inserted into a peripheral vein (e.g., in the arm) and fed through the venous system until the tip is in a central vein (the vena cava or right atrium). They contain one or two lumens that are a narrower diameter than a standard central line. They have a low risk of infection, meaning they can stay in for a prolonged period and are useful as medium-term IV access.

66
Q

What is Tunnelled Central Venous Catheter

A

A Hickman line is a type of **tunnelled **central venous catheter. It is a long, thin catheter that enters the skin on the chest, travels through the subcutaneous tissue (“tunnelled”), then enters into the subclavian or jugular vein, with a tip that sits in the superior vena cava.

There is a** cuff **(sleeve) that surrounds the catheter near the skin insertion. It promotes adhesion of tissue to the cuff, making the catheter more permanent and providing a barrier to bacterial infection. They can stay in longer-term and be used for regular IV treatment (e.g., chemotherapy or haemodialysis).

67
Q

What is a Pulmonary Artery Catheter

A

Pulmonary artery catheters are also known as Swan-Ganz catheters. A pulmonary artery catheter is inserted into the internal jugular vein, through the central venous system, right atrium, right ventricle and into a pulmonary artery. It has a balloon on the end that can be inflated to “wedge” the catheter in a branch of the pulmonary artery. The pressure distal to the wedged balloon can be measured. This gives the pulmonary artery wedge pressure, which gives an indication of the pressures in the left atrium. This is rarely used, mostly used in specialist cardiac centres for close monitoring of cardiac function and response to treatment.

68
Q

What is a Portacath?

A

A Portacath is a type of central venous catheter. There is a small chamber (port) under the skin at the top of the chest that is used to access the device. This chamber is connected to a catheter that travels through the subcutaneous tissue and into the subclavian vein, with a tip that sits in the** superior vena cava or right atrium.**

69
Q

It is important to distinguish between two categories of pain:

A
  • Acute pain – new onset of pain
  • Chronic pain – pain present for 3 months or more
70
Q

What should you do when managing pain in hospital

A

When managing pain, see local guidelines and seek advice from seniors and pain or palliative care specialists when in doubt.

71
Q

There are two aspects to the experience of pain:

A

Sensory – the sensory signal transmitted from the pain receptor (“it is a sharp sensation, likely a needle”)
**Affective **– the unpleasant emotional reaction to the pain (“it is excruciating, I can’t bear it”)

72
Q

What is Pain threshold

A

Pain threshold refers to the point at which sensory input is reported as painful. For example, different temperatures can be applied to the skin to measure the pain at which the heat is interpreted as pain. A higher temperature indicates a higher sensory threshold for pain

73
Q

What is Allodynia?

A

Allodynia refers to when pain is experienced with sensory inputs that do not normally cause pain (e.g., light touch).

74
Q

What is pain tolerance

A

Pain tolerance is different to pain threshold. It is more difficult to define and generally refers to a person’s response to pain. One person may experience pain but think little of it and carry on with their activities as usual. Another person may experience a similar pain and worry that it indicates a serious underlying illness, take time away from work, and seek medical investigations and treatment. Pain tolerance varies massively between individuals and is influenced by many biological, psychological and social factors

75
Q

At the most basic level, pain receptors ________) at the ends of nerves detect damage or potential damage to tissues. Nerve signals are transmitted along the ________ nerves to the spinal cord. ________ sensory nerves that transmit pain signals are part of the ________ nervous system and are called primary ________ __________.

A

At the most basic level, pain receptors (nociceptors) at the ends of nerves detect damage or potential damage to tissues. Nerve signals are transmitted along the afferent nerves to the spinal cord.** Afferent **sensory nerves that transmit pain signals are part of the peripheral nervous system and are called primary afferent nociceptors.

76
Q

What are the two groups of nerve fibres transmit pain:

A

* C fibres (unmyelinated and small diameter) – transmit signals slowly and produce dull and diffuse pain sensations*
*** A-delta fibres **(myelinated and larger diameter) – transmit signals fast and produce sharp and localised pain sensations

77
Q

The pain signal then travels in the _________ _______ _______, up the spinal cord (mainly in the ____________ _____and __________ ______) to the brain where it is interpreted as pain, mainly in the ________ and cortex.

A

The signal then travels in the central nervous system, up the spinal cord (mainly in the **spinothalamic tract **and spinoreticular tract) to the brain where it is interpreted as pain, mainly in the thalamus and cortex.

78
Q

The main sensory inputs that generate a pain signal are:

A
  • Mechanical (e.g., pressure)
  • Heat
  • Chemical (e.g., prostaglandins)
79
Q

However, when directly measuring activity in the peripheral afferent sensory nerves:

A
  • Pain can be experienced without activity in the primary afferent nociceptors
  • Activity in the primary afferent nociceptors can be detected without the patient experiencing any pain
80
Q

What is Referred pain

A

Referred pain refers to pain that experienced in a location away from the site of tissue damage. For example, patients with a heart attack may have pain in their left arm.

81
Q

There are several possible explanations for referred pain, including:

A
  • Nerves may share the innervation of multiple parts of the body (e.g., the heart and left arm)
  • Pain in one area amplifies the sensitivity in the spinal cord to signals coming from other areas
  • Activation of the sympathetic nervous system in response to pain results in pain in other areas
82
Q

What is Neuropathic Pain

A

Neuropathic pain is caused by abnormal functioning or damage of the sensory nerves, resulting in pain signals being transmitted to the brain.

83
Q
A
84
Q

Typical features suggestive of neuropathic pain are:

A
  • Burning
  • Tingling
  • Pins and needles
  • Electric shocks
  • Loss of sensation to touch of the affected area
85
Q

The two ways commonly used to measure pain are:

A

the visual analogue scale (VAS) and numerical rating scale (NRS).

86
Q

What is visual analogue scale (VAS)

A

The visual analogue scale (VAS) involves asking the patient to rate their pain along a horizontal line, where the left end indicates no pain and the right end indicates the worst pain imaginable. The distance along that line can be measured to get a numerical value to represent the pain (e.g., 75mm along a 100mm line).

87
Q

What is numerical rating scale (NRS)

A

The numerical rating scale (NRS) involves asking the patient to rate their pain on a numerical scale of 0 – 10, with:
*
* 0 being no pain at all
* 10 being the worst pain imaginable

88
Q

What is Analgesic Ladder

A

The **World Health Organisation (WHO) analgesic ladder **was originally to help manage cancer-related pain. It is also often used for acute and chronic painful conditions. The idea is that patients with mild pain start on the first step, and when pain is more severe or does not respond to the lower steps, higher steps on the ladder are used until the pain is adequately managed.

89
Q

What are the three steps to the analgesic ladde

A
    • Step 1: Non-opioid medications such as paracetamol and NSAIDs
    • Step 2: Weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol (tramadol has multiple mechanisms of action, including being an SNRI and agonist of opioid receptors)
    • Step 3: Strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl and buprenorphine
90
Q

Other medications may be combined with the analgesic ladder for additional effect (called adjuvants) or used separately to manage neuropathic pain. These are:

A
  • Amitriptyline – a tricyclic antidepressant
  • Duloxetine – an SNRI antidepressant
  • Gabapentin – an anticonvulsant
  • Pregabalin – an anticonvulsant
  • Capsaicin cream (topical) – from chilli peppers
91
Q

What is Medical overuse headache

A

It is a common side-effect of the long-term use of analgesic medication.

92
Q

What are the key side effects of NSAIDs are:

A
  • Gastritis with dyspepsia (indigestion)
  • Stomach ulcers
  • Exacerbation of asthma
  • Hypertension
  • Renal impairment
  • Coronary artery disease, heart failure and strokes (rarely)
93
Q

NSAIDs may be inappropriate or contraindicated in patients with:

A

Asthma
Renal impairment
Heart disease
Uncontrolled hypertension
Stomach ulcers

94
Q

What is usually described with NSAIDs?

A

Proton pump inhibitors (e.g., omeprazole or lansoprazole) to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects (e.g., acid reflux, gastritis and stomach ulcers).

95
Q

What are the key side effects of opioids are:

A
  • Constipation
  • Skin itching (pruritus)
  • Nausea
  • Altered mental state (sedation, cognitive impairment or confusion)
  • Respiratory depression (usually only with larger doses in opioid-naive patients)
96
Q

What is is used to reverse the effects of opioids in life-threatening overdose (usually due to respiratory depression)?

A

Naloxone

97
Q

Using opioids to control pain in palliative patients is a specific scenario where the doses are titrated and optimised over time. This involves using a combination of:

A
  • Background opioids (e.g., 12-hourly modified-release oral morphine)
  • Rescue doses for breakthrough pain (e.g., immediate-release oral morphine solution)
98
Q

The rescue dose is usually 1/6 of the background 24-hour dose. Give an example?

A

For example, if the patient is getting 30mg in 24 hours of modified-release morphine (15mg every 12 hours), each rescue dose will be 5mg, given every 2-4 hours as required.

99
Q

this patient is on 30mg of modified-release morphine every 12 hours; what would be the correct breakthrough dose?

A

In this scenario, 10mg is the correct answer, as the patient is getting 60mg background morphine every 24 hours (30mg twice a day).

100
Q
A
101
Q
A
102
Q

It is also possible to use opioid patches for background analgesia: Name some opoid patches that can be used?

A
  • Buprenorphine patches (5 mcg/hour patches are roughly equivalent to 12 mg/24 hours of oral morphine)
  • **Fentanyl patches **(12 mcg/hour patches are roughly equivalent to 30mg/24 hours of oral morphine)
103
Q

Adequate analgesia in the post-operative period is vital to encourage the patient to:

A
  • Mobilise
  • Ventilate their lungs fully (reducing the risk of chest infections and atelectasis)
  • Have an adequate oral intake
104
Q

Analgesia is usually started in theatre by the ____________, with regular paracetamol, NSAIDs and opiates if required (e.g., regular modified-release oxycodone with immediate-release oxycodone as required for breakthrough pain). The ________ may put a local anaesthetic into the wound to help with the initial pain after the procedure. Analgesia should be reduced and stopped as symptoms improve. There is more detail on analgesia in the anaesthetics section.

A

Analgesia is usually started in theatre by the anaesthetist, with regular paracetamol, NSAIDs and opiates if required (e.g., regular modified-release oxycodone with immediate-release oxycodone as required for breakthrough pain). The **surgeon **may put a local anaesthetic into the wound to help with the initial pain after the procedure. Analgesia should be reduced and stopped as symptoms improve. There is more detail on analgesia in the anaesthetics section.

105
Q

What is Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)

A

Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) involves an intravenous infusion of a strong opiate (e.g., morphine, oxycodone or fentanyl) attached to a patient-controlled pump. A PCA involves the patient pressing a button as pain develops to administer a bolus of opiate medication. The button will stop responding for a set time after administering a bolus to prevent over-use. Only the patient should press the button (not a nurse or doctor).

106
Q

Patient-controlled analgesia requires careful monitoring. There needs to be input from an anaesthetist and facilities in place if adverse events occur. What does this include?

A

This includes access to naloxone for respiratory depression, antiemetics for nausea, and **atropine **for bradycardia. The anaesthetist may prescribe background opiates (e.g., patches) in addition to a PCA. Other “as required” opiates need to be avoided whilst a PCA is in use. The machine is locked to prevent tampering.

107
Q

How can chronic pain be diagnosed?

A

Chronic pain can be diagnosed when pain has been present or reoccurs in one or more areas over more than 3 months.

108
Q

Some studies suggest up to 50% of the adults in the UK are affected by chronic pain. Common areas of chronic pain include:

A

Headaches
Lower back pain
Neck pain
Joint pain (e.g., knees or hips)

109
Q

The NICE guidelines on chronic pain (April 2021) separates chronic pain into:

A
  • Chronic primary pain – where no underlying condition can adequately explain the pain
  • Chronic secondary pain – where an underlying condition can explain the pain
110
Q

There is a long list of causes of chronic secondary pain that could take up the entire page. A few examples are:

A
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Lasting pain after a traumatic injury (e.g., bone fracture)
  • Migraines
  • Irritable bowel syndrome
  • Endometriosis
  • Cancer
  • Neuropathic pain (e.g., due to diabetes, nerve impingement, multiple sclerosis or post-herpetic neuralgia)
  • Complex regional pain syndrome
111
Q

**Biological, psychological **and social factors contribute to the persistence of the pain. The physical processes that can lead to chronic pain include:

A
  • Sensitisation of the primary afferent nociceptors by frequent stimulation
  • Increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system
  • Increased muscle contraction in response to pain
112
Q

Patients require a holistic, person-centred approach to assessing and managing their condition. This involves:

A
  • Exploring the impact on their life
  • Discussing what they already do to manage their pain
  • Their ideas, concerns and expectations about the pain
113
Q

Options for managing chronic pain detailed in the NICE guidelines (2021) are:

A
  • Supervised group exercise programs
  • Acceptance and commitment therapy (ACT)
  • Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
  • Acupuncture
  • Antidepressants (e.g., amitriptyline, duloxetine or an SSRI)
114
Q

It is worth noting that the NICE guidelines (2021) advise that for chronic primary pain (where no underlying condition can adequately explain the pain), patients should not be started on:

A

Paracetamol
NSAIDs
Opiates
Pregabalin
Gabapentin

115
Q

In chronic secondary pain, analgesia may be helpful depending on the underlying cause. For example, in patients with pain caused by osteoarthritis, the use of analgesia involves a stepwise approach to control symptoms:

A
  1. Oral paracetamol and topical NSAIDs
  2. Add oral NSAIDs (consider co-prescribing a proton pump inhibitor, such as omeprazole, to protect the stomach)
  3. Consider **opiates **such as codeine
116
Q

What is the most appropriate medication for a patient with chronic primary pain

A

antidepressants
This is different to chronic secondary pain, where there is an underlying condition that explains the pain.

117
Q

What is DN4 questionnaire

A

The DN4 questionnaire can be used to assess the characteristics of the pain and the likelihood of neuropathic pain. Patients are scored out of 10. A score of 4 or more indicates neuropathic pain

118
Q

There are four first-line treatments for neuropathic pain:

A
  • Amitriptyline – a tricyclic antidepressant
  • Duloxetine – an SNRI antidepressant
  • Gabapentin – an anticonvulsant
  • Pregabalin – an anticonvulsant
    NICE recommend using one of these four medications to control neuropathic pain. If it does not help, it can be slowly withdrawn, and an alternative can be tried. All four can be tried in turn. Only one neuropathic medication should be used at a time.
119
Q

Other options for managing neuropathic pain are:

A
  • Tramadol ONLY as a rescue for short term control of flares
  • Capsaicin cream (chilli pepper cream) for localised areas of pain
  • Physiotherapy to maintain strength
  • Psychological input to help with understanding and coping
120
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of neuropathic pain. However, NICE recommend ________ as the first-line medication for trigeminal neuralgia, and if that does not work to refer to a specialist.

A

Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of neuropathic pain. However, NICE recommend** carbamazepine** as the first-line medication for trigeminal neuralgia, and if that does not work to refer to a specialist.

121
Q

What is HDU and ICU

A

The high dependency unit (HDU) and **intensive care unit (ICU) **are specialised hospital wards that manage severely unwell patients. Generally, **level 1 **patients can be managed on a general acute ward, level 2 patients can be managed on the high dependency unit and level 3 patients can be managed on the intensive care unit (the highest level of support).

122
Q

Common reasons patients are admitted to intensive care are:

A
  • Following major surgery (e.g., aortic aneurysm repair)
  • Severe sepsis
  • Major trauma
  • Following cardiopulmonary resuscitation
  • Organ failure (acute respiratory, renal or liver failure)
123
Q

In the intensive care unit, patients can have advanced organ support. This includes:

A

Respiratory support
Cardiovascular support
Renal support
Nutritional support
Neurological support
Dermatological support
Liver support

124
Q

There are scoring systems that can help predict mortality at the time of admission to ICU:

A
  • APACHE (Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation)
  • SAPS (Simplified Acute Physiology Score)
  • MPM (Mortality Prediction Model)
125
Q
A
126
Q

Nutrition is really important in critically ill patients. They are in a ____________ ________ and have increased nutritional requirements. There is a high risk of malnutrition, which can contribute to worse outcomes. ________ are involved in helping ensure patients meet their nutritional requirements

A

Nutrition is really important in critically ill patients. They are in a **hypermetabolic state **and have increased nutritional requirements. There is a high risk of malnutrition, which can contribute to worse outcomes. Dieticians are involved in helping ensure patients meet their nutritional requirement

127
Q

Where possible, patients should get their nutrition via their gastrointestinal tract. Having nutrition via the gastrointestinal tract is called ?

A

enteral nutrition.

128
Q

Where possible, patients should get their nutrition via their gastrointestinal tract. Having nutrition via the gastrointestinal tract is called enteral nutrition. This could be by:

A
  • Mouth
  • NG tube
  • Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) – a tube from the surface of the abdomen to the stomach
129
Q

What is Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)

A

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) involves meeting the complete nutritional requirements of the patient using an intravenous infusion of a solution of carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins and minerals. This is used where it is not possible to use the gastrointestinal tract for nutrition. It is prescribed under the guidance of a dietician. TPN is very irritant to veins and can cause thrombophlebitis, so it is normally given through a central line rather than a peripheral cannula.

130
Q

There are various complications associated with admission and treatment on ICU. These include:

A
  • Ventilator-associated lung injury
  • Ventilator-associated pneumonia
  • Catheter-related bloodstream infections (e.g., from central venous catheters)
  • Catheter-associated urinary tract infections
  • Stress-related mucosal disease (erosion of the upper gastrointestinal tract)
  • Delirium
  • Venous thromboembolism
  • Critical illness myopathy
    Critical illness neuropathy
131
Q

What is Ventilator-associated lung injury

A

Ventilator-associated lung injury is a common complication of mechanical ventilation. Forcefully blowing air into the lungs can cause volutrauma (damage from over-inflating the alveoli), barotrauma (damage from pressure changes) and inflammation. It can lead to short term pulmonary oedema and hypoxia. Long-term, it can lead to fibrosis of lung tissue, reduced lung function, recurrent infections and cor-pulmonale. Using optimal settings and pressures during mechanical ventilation helps reduce the risk of lung injury.

132
Q

What is Ventilator-associated pneumonia

A

Ventilator-associated pneumonia is a common complication of mechanical ventilation (up to 25%) and carries a high risk of death (up to 25%). Being ventilated increases the risk of bacteria being aspirated into the lungs. Positioning the bed at a 30-degree angle with the patient’s head elevated reduces the risk of aspirating secretions from the stomach. Good oral care with regular mouth cleaning is also important to reduce the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia.

133
Q

What are Catheter-related bloodstream infections

A

Catheter-related bloodstream infections describe infections introduced by invasive lines, such as central venous catheters. These are also common (up to 25%) and carry a high risk of death (up to 25%). The risk may be reduced by using **antibiotic-impregnated **or silver-impregnated catheters and keeping them in for the shortest time possible.

134
Q

How to reduce Catheter-associated urinary tract infections?

A

Catheter-associated urinary tract infections are common. The risk can be reduced by only using urinary catheters when necessary and keeping them in for the shortest time possible.

135
Q

What is Stress-related mucosal disease

A

Stress-related mucosal disease is common in critically unwell patients. Damage to the stomach mucosa occurs mainly due to impaired blood flow. It increases the risk of upper gastrointestinal bleeding, which can be life-threatening. The risk may be reduced by suppressing acid secretion in the stomach using proton pump inhibitors (e.g., omeprazole) or H2 receptor antagonists (e.g., ranitidine). Starting NG feeding early in patients that cannot eat normally also has a protective effect, even if only small volumes are used (trophic feeds are small volumes used for gastrointestinal benefits but are insufficient to meet nutritional requirements).

136
Q

What is Delirium

A

Delirium (impaired mental state) is a very common complication of both critical illness and intensive care. A long list of things can cause acute confusion, including pain, infection, hypoxia, electrolyte disturbances, renal failure, and medications. Usually, patients in ICU will have many of these occurring at the same time. The Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) can be used as a scoring system for identifying delirium. Dexmedetomidine is a medication used in the intensive care unit to sedate agitated patients.

137
Q

What is VTE

A

Venous thromboembolism (VTE) includes** deep vein thrombosis** and pulmonary embolism. Critically ill patients are at higher risk of VTE. Every patient will have a risk assessment to determine whether they require prophylaxis. The main preventative measures are low molecular weight heparin (e.g., enoxaparin) and intermittent pneumatic compression devices (e.g., Flowtrons) that regularly inflate to squeeze the legs and promote blood flow.

138
Q

What is Critical illness myopathy

A

Critical illness myopathy refers to muscle wasting and weakness during critical illness and treatment in the ICU. The weakness mostly affects the limbs and respiratory muscles. The use of corticosteroids or muscle relaxants is an important cause. Short-term, it can lead to difficulty weaning the patient off mechanical ventilation. Long-term, it can result in reduced exercise capacity and quality of life. It can take years to recover.

139
Q

What is Critical illness polyneuropathy

A

refers to degeneration of the sensory and motor nerve axons during critical illness and treatment in the ICU. It often occurs alongside critical illness myopathy. There is a wide range of pathological processes that result in degeneration of the nerves. Having optimal control of blood sugar levels (glycaemic control) is important in reducing the risk. It causes symmetrical weakness, decreased muscle tone and reduced reflexes. It often makes it difficult to wean patients off mechanical ventilation.

140
Q

What are Arterial lines

A

Arterial lines make it easy to obtain an arterial blood sample. ABGs give useful information about the acid-base balance, blood gases (O2 and CO2 in the blood), bicarbonate, lactate, haemoglobin and electrolytes

141
Q

What is FiO2

A

fraction of inhaled oxygen

142
Q

Room air has a FiO2 of

A

21%, meaning the concentration of oxygen in room air is 21%.

143
Q

_________ _____ can be used to control the FiO2. Other masks only give an approximate FiO2.

A

Venturi masks can be used to control the FiO2. Other masks only give an approximate FiO2.

144
Q

The most common scenarios where you will see a respiratory alkalosis in exams are

A

hyperventilation syndrome (e.g., due to anxiety) and patients with a pulmonary embolism. Patients with a PE will have a low PaO2, whereas patients with hyperventilation syndrome will have a high PaO2.

145
Q

Metabolic alkalosis results from the loss of hydrogen (H+) ions. Hydrogen ions can be lost from:

A
  • Gastrointestinal tract – due to vomiting (the stomach produces hydrochloric acid)
  • Kidneys – usually due to increased activity of aldosterone, which results in hydrogen ion excretion
146
Q

Increased activity of aldosterone can be due to:

A