Surgery Flashcards

pain Mx (eg. pt controlled anaesthesia); anastomotic leak; breast cyst

1
Q

Medical management of SBO?

A

IV fluids and gastric decompression, or ‘drip-and-suck’

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2
Q

Neutrophil predominant leucocytosis suggests what?

A

Appendicitis

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3
Q

Why is appendicitis pain felt in umbilical first?

A
  • Inflammation of the visceral peritoneum is felt in T10 which corresponds to periumbilical region -> no somatic sensation here
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4
Q

Why does appendicitis pain move to RIF?

A

Parietal peritoneum becomes involved which receives somatic innervation therefore pain is localised to area affected

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5
Q

What is a diverticulum?

A

Outpouching of the gut mucous through the muscle wall

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6
Q

Which part of the colon is diverticula common in?

A

Sigmoid - as majority of water has already been reabsorbed by this stage therefore high intraluminal pressures

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7
Q

Diverticulosis vs Diverticulitis vs Diverticular disease

A

Diverticulosis - presence of diverticula
Diverticular disease - symptomatic diverticula
Diverticulitis - inflammation of the diverticula

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8
Q

What is the possible complications of diverticulitis?

A
  • Perforation
  • Bleeding
  • Abscess
  • Fistulas
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9
Q

What are the 6 Ps of limb ischaemia?

A

Pallor, pain, pulseless, paraesthesia, perishingly cold, paralysis

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10
Q

Acute limb ischaemic vs critical limb ischaemia?

A

Critical - last longer than 2 weeks and foot will be warm with pink appearance

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11
Q

What is the management of acute limb ischaemia?

A

Immediate referral to vascular
Thrombotic cause - angio/surgery
Embolic cause - embolectomy

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12
Q

What is initially added with GnRH agonists for metastatic prostate cancer?

A

Anti-androgens to prevent tumour flare which can cause bone pain, bladder obstruction and other symptoms

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13
Q

fever, hypotension and a rash → desquamation

A

Staph toxic shock syndrome

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14
Q

Different surgical signs

A

Rosving - appendicitis
Boas - cholecystitis
Murphy’s - cholecystitis
Cullens - pancreatitis
Grey-Turner - pancreatitis

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15
Q

What are risk factors for abdominal wall hernias?

A
  • Obesity
  • Ascites
  • Increasing age
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16
Q

What are features of abdominal wall hernias?

A
  • Palpable lump
  • Cough impulse
  • Pain
  • Obstruction
  • Strangulation
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17
Q

What is the most common hernia and who is it common in?

A

Inguinal - men

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18
Q

Lump in the midline between the umbilicus and xiphisternum?

A

Epigastric hernia -> common in those doing extensive physical training/chronic cough

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19
Q

Management of congenital inguinal hernias?

A

Surgical repair ASAP as risk of incarceration

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20
Q

What is abdominal wound dehiscence?

A
  • When the layers of abdominal mass closure fail and the viscera protrude out
  • RF include malnutrition, jaundice and poor surgical technique
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21
Q

What is the management of sudden full dehiscence?

A
  • Coverage of wound with saline gauze
  • IV Abx
  • Analgesia
  • Fluids
  • Return to theatre
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22
Q

What blood test would point to appendicitis?

A

Neutrophil-predominant raised WCC

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23
Q

Investigations for Appendicitis?

A

Thin, male patients - clinical
Women - US useful to rule out pelvic pathology

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24
Q

How to reduce wound infection rates in appendicectomy?

A

Prophylactic IV Abx

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25
Q

What is cryptorchidism?

A

Undescended testis which fails to reach bottom of scrotum by 3 months

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26
Q

What is the major complication of undescended testes?

A

Testicular cancer - massive increased risk

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27
Q

What is the treatment of cryptoorchidism?

A

Orchidopexy at 6-18 months

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28
Q

A sinusoidal ECG pattern is indicative of what?

A

Severe hyperkalaemia

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29
Q

What are common complications of enteral feeding?

A

Diarrhoea

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30
Q

What is a femoral hernia?

A

When a section of the bowel passes into the femoral cancel - more common in females

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31
Q

How to differentiate a femoral vs inguinal hernia?

A

Femoral - inferolateral to the pubic tubercle below the inguinal ligament
Inguinal - super media to the pubic tubercle

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32
Q

What is the management of inguinal hernias?

A

Surgical repair due to the high risk of strangulation

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33
Q

Direct vs indirect inguinal hernia?

A

Direct - Through Hesselback triangle medial to the inferior epigastric artery
Indirect - Through inguinal ring, lateral to the inferior epigastric artery -> more common in infants

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34
Q

What causes direct and indirect inguinal hernias?

A

Direct - defect/weakness in the transversalis fascia area of the Hesselback triangle
Indirect - Failure of the processus vaginalis to close

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35
Q

What is a hiatus hernia?

A

Herniation of part of the stomach above the diaphragm

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36
Q

What is the most common type of hiatus hernia?

A

Sliding - gastroesophageal junction moves above the diaphragm

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37
Q

How does a hiatus hernia present?

A
  • Heartburn
  • Dysphagia
  • Regurg
  • Chest pain
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38
Q

How to manage hiatus hernia?

A
  • Barium swallow
  • Conservative: weight loss
  • Medical: PPI
  • Surgical: only for symptomatic
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39
Q

How to manage inguinal hernias?

A
  • Refer and treat even if asymptomatic
  • Unliteral: open surgery
  • Bilateral/recurrent: laparoscopy
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40
Q

What are the 2 most common liver cancers?

A
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
  • Cholangiocarcinoma
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41
Q

What are HCC tumours?

A
  • Common in liver cirrhosis and chronic Hep B infections
  • CT/MRI
  • Elevated AFP
  • Examine testes to rule out testicular tumours
  • Surgical resection
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42
Q

What is cholangiocarcinoma?

A
  • Tumour of bile ducts
  • Presents with jaundice
  • Associated with PSC
  • Obstructive liver picture with elevated CA19-9, CEA, CA-125
  • CT/MRI/MRCP
  • Surgical resection
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43
Q

Admission criteria for acute lower GI bleed?

A
  • Over 60
  • Unstable
  • On aspirin/NSAIDs
  • Significant co-morbidities
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44
Q

What are complications of massive haemorrhage?

A
  • Hypothermia
  • Hypocalcaemia
  • Hyperkalaemia
  • Delayed transfusion reactions
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45
Q

Which nerve can be damaged in carotid endardectomy?

A

Hypoglossal

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46
Q

Where is the most common site of oesophageal rupture?

A

Left postero-lateral oesophagus

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47
Q

What is the name for free air in the abdomen?

A

Pneumoperitoneum - Rigler’s sign

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48
Q

What is haemorrhagic shock?

A
  • Occurs following trauma
  • Control bleeding and then transfuse if needed
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49
Q

What is neurogenic shock?

A
  • Occurs following spinal cord transection
  • Decreases peripheral vascular resistance causing shock
  • Decreases CO -> shock
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50
Q

What is cardiogenic shock?

A
  • Caused by IHD
  • Supportive treatment plus echo needed
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51
Q

What is the most common cause of SBO?

A
  • Adhesions
  • Hernias
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52
Q

How does SBO present?

A
  • Diffuse abdo pain
  • Vomiting then constipation
  • Lack of flatulence
  • Abdo distension and tinkling bowel sounds
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53
Q

How is SBO managed?

A
  • Abdo X ray
  • CT - gold standard
  • Patients need to be NBM, IV Fluids and NG tube with free drainage
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54
Q

What is a strangulated hernia?

A

Blood supply to the hernia is compromised causing episodes of pain and an irreducible hernia

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55
Q

Management of strangulated hernias

A
  • Immediate surgery
  • Do not manually try to reduce whilst waiting for surgery
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56
Q

What line divides internal and external haemorrhoids?

A

Dentate line

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57
Q

What are symptoms of haemorrhoids?

A
  • Itching
  • Rectal fullness
  • Soiling
  • Pain
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58
Q

What are investigations for haemorrhoids?

A

FBC
Proctoscopy
Sigmoidoscopy

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59
Q

What are conservative options to manage haemorrhoids?

A
  • Increase fluid/fibre intake
  • Analgesia
  • Bed rest
  • Topical steroids/anaesthetics
60
Q

What are medical/surgical management options to manage haemorrhoids?

A
  • Rubber band ligation
  • Cryotherapy
  • Haemorrhoidectomy
  • Stapled haemorrhoidopexy
61
Q

What are complications of haemorrhoids?

A
  • Ulceration
  • Strictures
  • Thrombosis
  • Infection
  • Anaemia
62
Q

How would acute mesenteric ischaemia show on ABG?

A

Metabolic acidosis

63
Q

What bloods can indicate AMI?

A

Raised WCC, raised lactate, raised Hb

64
Q

What is the management of AMI?

A
  • Laparotomy
  • Fluids, Abx, Analgesia, Heparin
65
Q

What does red pulp and white pulp of spleen do?

A

Red - filter and destroys RBC
White - Lymphoid tissue which acts on immune system

66
Q

What are indications for splenectomy?

A
  • Trauma
  • Spontaneous rupture
  • Hypersplenism
  • Abscess
  • Neoplasia
67
Q

What are Howell-Jolly bodies?

A

RBC where the nuclear remnant is still seen

68
Q

What are complications of pancreatitis?

A

Early - shock, sepsis, DIC, renal failure
Late - necrosis, abscess, thrombosis of arteries, chronic pancreatitis

69
Q

Where is pain in small bowel vs large bowel?

A

Small - pain is higher as midgut structure

70
Q

Ileus vs mechanical obstruction

A

Absence of bowel sounds - ileus
Tinkling bowel sounds - mechanical obstruction

71
Q

What is the management of bowel obstruction?

A

Bowel rest - drip and suck: NBM with NG tube

72
Q

What are types of gallstones?

A
  • Pigment stones
  • Cholesterol stones
  • Mixed stones
73
Q

What is Murphy’s sign?

A
  • 2 fingers in RUQ and patient breathes in which causes pain and they stop breathing in fully
  • Repeat test in left which does not cause pain
74
Q

What are causes of HCC?

A
  • Viral hepatitis
  • Cirrhosis
  • Parasites
  • Steroids
  • COCP
75
Q

What tumour marker is associated with HCC?

76
Q

C-KIT gene mutation

A

Gastrointestinal stromal tumour

77
Q

Bruising to flanks?

A

Grey-Turners -> Pancreatitis

78
Q

Iron deficiency anaemia, dysphagia, pallor?

A

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

79
Q

What is Mirizzi syndrome?

A

A complication of gallstones where a duct is compressed by a gallstone

80
Q

What are complications of obstructive jaundice?

A
  • Sepsis
  • Encephalopathy
  • Coagulopathy
  • Hepatic failure
81
Q

What bacteria are people with obstructive jaundice susceptible to?

A

Gram neg sepsis

82
Q

What is the bilirubin pathway?

A
  • By product of haem metabolism
  • Excreted through bile into the bowel
  • Metabolised to urobilinogen and stercobilinogen
83
Q

Treatment of metastatic oesophageal cancer with recurrent vomiting?

A

Stenting to allow food to pass and relieve symptoms

84
Q

What bacteria are post splenectomy patients susceptible to?

A
  • Strep pneumoniae
  • H influenzae
  • E coli
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae
85
Q

Gastric vs Duodenal ulcer

A
  • Both more common in men
  • Duodenal in younger patients
86
Q

Investigation for suspected bowel perforation?

87
Q

What is Hartmann’s procedure?

A

Sigmoid colon is removed and stoma created

88
Q

Medical management of anal fissure?

A

Acute
- High fibre and fluid
- Bulk forming laxatives

Chronic
- Topical GTN
- Sphincterotomy if GTN does not help

89
Q

What can be used to defunction the colon to prevent an anastomosis?

A

Loop ileostomy

90
Q

What drugs can cause pancreatitis?

A
  • Azathioprine
  • Mesalazine
91
Q

Large volume paracentesis for ascites requires what to reduce mortality risk?

A

IV human albumin solution

92
Q

Why is it important to assess airway of someone with burns?

A

Thermal injury to the airway can lead to airway oedema and obstruction so intubation may be needed

93
Q

How to assess extent of burns?

A
  • Wallace Rule of Nines
  • Lund and Browder chart
94
Q

What are signs of superficial burns?

A

Red, painful, dry and no blisters

95
Q

What are signs of partial thickness superficial burns?

A

Pale pink, blistered with slow capillary refill

96
Q

What are signs of partial thickness dermal burns?

A

White with reduced sensation and painful for deep pressure

97
Q

What are signs of full thickness burns?

A

White/black burns, no blisters with no pain

98
Q

What are indications of referral to secondary care for burns?

A
  • All deep dermal and full thickness burns
  • Superficial burns of more than 3% of body surface area in adults or more than 2% of body area in children
  • Electrical/chemical burns
  • NAI
99
Q

What is the Parkland formula for calculating fluids?

A

TBSA of burn x Weight (kg) x 4

100
Q

Management of burns

A
  • ABCDE
  • Analgesia/emollients for superficial burns
  • Catheterise
101
Q

Rectal cancer on the anal verge

A

Abdomino-perineal excision of the rectum

102
Q

Why is the epidural analgesia good post abdominal surgery?

A

Accelerates the return of normal bowel function

103
Q

Isolated fever in well patient in first 24 hours following surgery

A

Normal physiological reaction to operation

104
Q

How should patients taking steroids be managed before surgery?

A

Switch to IV hydrocortisone

105
Q

What is psoas sign?

A

Extending right hip causes pain in RIF -> appendicitis

106
Q

What is Courvosier’s sign?

A

Painless jaundice with a palpable gallbladder is usually indicative of pancreatic/gallbladder cancer

107
Q

What do you not do in emergency settings with bowel obstructions caused by tumours?

A

Resect the bowel -> do colostomy

108
Q

What is migratory thrombophlebitis?

A

Trousseau sign -> pancreatic cancer

109
Q

Ascending cholangitis definitive management?

110
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for diverticulitis?

A

CT abdomen pelvis with contrast

111
Q

How to distinguish between femoral and inguinal hernias?

A

Femoral - inferior + lateral to the pubic tubercle
Inguinal - superior + medial to the pubic tubercle

112
Q

Recurrent UTIs + passing gas in urine in someone with diverticular disease?

A

Colovesical fistula formation -> cystoscopy

113
Q

When should ACE inhibitors be stopped before surgery?

A

Day before

114
Q

Management of post op poor urine output?

A
  • Fluid challenge to assess whether hypovolaemic
  • Manage underlying causes
  • Catheterise if persisting to assess urine output
115
Q

Most common organism which causes cholecystitis?

116
Q

Indications of all the different colonic resections

A

AP resection - tumours <8cm from anal margin
Anterior resection - tumours >8cm from anal margin
Left hemicolectomy - tumours of descending colon, proximal sigmoid
Right hemicolectomy - tumours of caecum, ascending colon and hepatic flexure
Sigmoid colectomy - tumours of sigmoid colon
Hartmann’s - used in an emergency to form temporary end colostomy

117
Q

Hernias - men vs women

A

Inguinal - men
Femoral - women

118
Q

When should Clopidogrel be stopped before surgery?

A

7 days before

119
Q

High risk ingested objects such as batteries must be managed how?

A

Immediate endoscopy for removal

120
Q

What is a diagnostic paracentesis?

A

Ascitic tap -> should be done for anyone with SBP

121
Q

Prophylaxis of colon polyps in patient with strong FH to prevent cancer?

A

Panproctoprolectomy

122
Q

What is important to check in post operative ileus?

A

Electrolytes

123
Q

Colostomy ve ileostomy?

A

Colostomy - flat to the skin
Ileostomy - spouted

124
Q

Indications for thoracotomy in haemothorax?

A
  • > 1.5L of blood loss initially
  • > 200ml per hour for >2 hours
125
Q

What is left vs right hemicolectomy used for?

A

Left - tumour in distal transverse colon/descending
Right - tumour in proximal transverse/ascending

126
Q

Acute pancreatitis Mx= Patients with acute pancreatitis due to gallstones should undergo?

A

early cholecystectomy

127
Q

Acute pancreatitis Mx= Patients with obstructed biliary system due to stones should undergo?

A

early ERCP

128
Q

Acute pancreatitis Mx= Patients who fail to settle with necrosis and have worsening organ dysfunction may require?

A

debridement, fine needle aspiration is still used by some

129
Q

Acute pancreatitis Mx= Patients with infected necrosis should undergo?

A

either radiological drainage or surgical necrosectomy. The choice of procedure depends upon local expertise

130
Q

Mx of acute anal fissure (<1w)?

A

soften stool:
- dietary advice: high-fibre diet with high fluid intake
- bulk-forming laxatives are first-line - if not tolerated then lactulose should be tried

lubricants such as petroleum jelly may be tried before defecation

topical anaesthetics

analgesia

131
Q

Mx of chronic anal fissure (>1w)?

A

acute Mx continued plus…

topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is first-line treatment for a chronic anal fissure

if topical GTN is not effective after 8 weeks then secondary care referral should be considered for surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin

132
Q

What is usually required when a patient presents with acute upper abdominal pain?

A

erect (upright CXR)

if perforated peptic ulcer will have free air under diaphragm (pneumoperitoneum)

133
Q

Volvulus?

A

torsion of the colon around it’s mesenteric axis resulting in compromised blood flow and closed loop obstruction.

134
Q

Sigmoid volvulus?

A

Sigmoid volvulus (around 80% of cases) describes large bowel obstruction caused by the sigmoid colon twisting on the sigmoid mesocolon.

A similar problem may also occur at the caecum (20% of cases).

In most people (around 80%) the caecum is a retroperitoneal structure so not at risk of twisting.

In the remaining minority there is however developmental failure of peritoneal fixation of the proximal bowel putting these patients at risk of caecal volvulus.

135
Q

Sigmoid volvulus associations?

A

older patients

chronic constipation

Chagas disease

neurological conditions e.g. Parkinson’s disease, Duchenne muscular dystrophy

psychiatric conditions e.g. schizophrenia

136
Q

Caecal volvulus associations?

A

all ages

adhesions

pregnancy

137
Q

Features of volvulus?

A

constipation
abdominal bloating
abdominal pain
nausea/vomiting

138
Q

Ix for volvulus?

A

usually diagnosed on the abdominal film

sigmoid volvulus= large bowel obstruction (large, dilated loop of colon, often with air-fluid levels) + coffee bean sign

caecal volvulus= small bowel obstruction may be seen

139
Q

Mx of sigmoid volvulus?

A

rigid sigmoidoscopy with rectal tube insertion

140
Q

Mx of caecal volvulus?

A

management is usually operative. Right hemicolectomy is often needed

141
Q

Postoperative ileus (paralytic ileus)?

A

common complication after surgery involving the bowel, especially surgeries involving extensive handling of the bowel. There is reduced bowel peristalsis resulting in pseudo-obstruction.

142
Q

Postoperative ileus (paralytic ileus) features?

A

abdominal distention/bloating
abdominal pain
nausea/vomiting
inability to pass flatus
inability to tolerate an oral diet

143
Q

Postoperative ileus (paralytic ileus) = what is it important to check?

A

Deranged electrolytes can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus, so it is important to check potassium, magnesium and phosphate.

144
Q

Postoperative ileus (paralytic ileus) = Mx?

A

nil-by-mouth initially, may progress to small sips of clear fluids

nasogastric tube if vomiting

IV fluids to maintain normovolaemia; additives to correct any electrolyte disturbances

total parenteral nutrition
occasionally required for prolonged/severe cases

145
Q

abdominal distention/bloating
abdominal pain
nausea/vomiting
inability to pass flatus
inability to tolerate an oral diet

presents 2-3d following surgery eg. extensive handling of bowel?

A

?Postoperative ileus

if lasts >3d then prolonged ileus needs further evalutation

146
Q

Postoperative ileus (paralytic ileus) = when does it normally happen?

A

normally 2-3d following surgery eg. extensive handling of bowel

if lasts >3d then prolonged ileus needs further evalutation