Neuro Flashcards

cervical radiculopathy, basal skull fracture

1
Q

How does MND present on nerve conduction studies?

A

Normal motor conduction

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2
Q

What are adverse side effects of phenytoin?

A

Acute: dizziness, visual changes, slurred speech, seizures
Chronic: gingival hyperplasia, drowsiness, megaloblastic anaemia, peripheral neuropathy, lymphadenopathy
Teratogenic: associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease

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3
Q

How do the pattern of signs present in GBS?

A

Flaccid weakness with hyporeflexia

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4
Q

What is the management of autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Remove stimulus (distended bowel/bladder) and treat lift-threatening complications e.g. bradycardia

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5
Q

reduced GCS, paralysis and bilateral pin point pupils suggests what?

A

Pontine haemorrhage

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6
Q

Patient with new onset stroke?

A

Admit to hospital for urgent CT head -> ?stroke assessment

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7
Q

What should be considered when starting someone on phenytoin?

A

Cardiac monitoring due to arrhythmogenic effects

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8
Q

What is a common side effect of triptans?

A

Tightness of the chest and throat

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9
Q

clonic movements travelling proximally suggests what?

A

Jacksonian march - frontal lobe epilepsy

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10
Q

What is the most common complication of meningitis?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

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11
Q

What is the management of headache linked to valsalva manoeuvres?

A

Raised ICP until proven otherwise so needs CT

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12
Q

Management of seizures?

A

Rectal diazepam

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13
Q

What is used to treat idiopathic intracranial HTN?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Acetazolamide
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14
Q

Ipsilateral oculomotor palsy and contralateral weakness of the upper and lower extremity

A

Posterior cerebral artery

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15
Q

What is the mode of action of ondansetron?

A

Selective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist which acts in the medulla oblongata

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16
Q

Subdural vs extradural?

A

Subdural will have fluctuating consciousness

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17
Q

patients with dangerous mechanism of injury, including falling more than 1 metre or from a height of 5 stairs or more require what?

A

CT head within 8 hours

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18
Q

criteria for CT head within 1 hour?

A

GCS < 13 on initial assessment
GCS < 15 at 2 hours post-injury
suspected open or depressed skull fracture
any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign).
post-traumatic seizure.
focal neurological deficit.
more than 1 episode of vomiting

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19
Q

CSF findings for SAH?

A
  • Normal or raised opening pressure
  • Xanthochromia
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20
Q

criteria for CT head within 8 hours?

A

age 65 years or older
any history of bleeding or clotting disorders including anticogulants
dangerous mechanism of injury (a pedestrian or cyclist struck by a motor vehicle, an occupant ejected from a motor vehicle or a fall from a height of greater than 1 metre or 5 stairs)
more than 30 minutes’ retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury

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21
Q

Idiopathic vs drug induced Parkinsons

A

Idiopathic - asymmetrical symptoms
Drug induced - symmetrical

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22
Q

Seizures vs syncopal episodes

A

Syncopal episodes - rapid recovery and short post ictal period

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23
Q

Sudden onset vertigo and vomiting, facial paralysis and sensorineural deafness - which artery

A

Anterior inferior cerebellar artery

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24
Q

Progressive supranuclear palsy vs multiple system atrophy?

A

PSP will have an upward gaze impairment

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25
Q

What is a patient with alcoholism at risk of?

A

Subdural haematoma

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26
Q

pain, ophthalmoplegia, proptosis, trigeminal nerve lesion and Horner’s?

A

Cavernous sinus syndrome

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27
Q

Cerebral Herniation can cause what?

A

Third nerve palsy: eye down and out with dilated pupil

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28
Q

What are the signs of lateral medullar syndrome/PICA stroke?

A
  • Ipsilateral facial pain and loss of temperature
  • Contralateral loss of limb and torso pain/temperature
  • Ipsilateral Horners syndrome
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29
Q

Which anticoagulant is used for prophylaxis post TIA?

A

Lifelong clopidogrel

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30
Q

What visual features will be present in a patient with IIH?

A
  • Blurred vision
  • Papilledema
  • Enlarged blind spot
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31
Q

What imaging is used to diagnose carotid artery stenosis?

A

Duplex US

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32
Q

What drug should be avoided in patients with myasthenia gravis?

A

Bisoprolol

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33
Q

Ventriculomegaly without sulcal enlargement suggests what?

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

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34
Q

What is the response that can occur following raised ICP?

A

Cushings reflex - hypertension and bradycardia with wide pulse pressure

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35
Q

Which opiate should be used if standard neuropathic medications are not working?

A

Tramadol

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36
Q

Which Parkinsons medication is linked with impulse control disorders?

A

Dopamine agonists

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37
Q

Which anaesthetic agent would someone with MG be resistant to?

A

NMBDs e.g suxamethonium

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38
Q

reduced GCS, paralysis and bilateral pin point pupils suggests what?

A

Pontine haemorrhage

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39
Q

Fluent speech, comprehension intact but poor repetition?

A

Conduction dysphasia

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40
Q

Gait ataxia is caused by what?

A

Cerebellar vermis lesions

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41
Q

Which drugs are associated with IIH?

A

A - Vit A and metabolites
L - Lithium/Levothyroxine
O - OCP
S - Steroids
T - Tetracycline
C - Cimetidine

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42
Q

What is a very common early symptom of MS?

A

Lethargy

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43
Q

What is associated with autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Stroke

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44
Q

Which cranial nerves are affected in acoustic neuromas?

A

5,7,8

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45
Q

What is the sensory loss in syringomyelia?

A

Spinothalamic - pain and temperature

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46
Q

How long can cluster headaches last?

A

15 mins - 2 hours

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47
Q

Muscle wasting of hands, numbness and tinging with autonomic symptoms suggests what?

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome

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48
Q

Which anti-epileptic drug can cause weight gain?

A

Sodium valproate

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49
Q

What is paroxysmal hemicrania?

A
  • Unilateral headache in the orbital/temporal region
  • Similar to cluster headaches
  • Responsive to indomethacin
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50
Q

Which anti epileptic medication can cause numbness of fingers and feet?

A

Phenytoin

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51
Q

Empty delta sign on venography suggests what?

A

Sagittal sinus thrombosis

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52
Q

Vision worse on going down the stairs?

A

4th nerve palsy

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53
Q

What can be done in patients with raised ICP?

A

Hyperventilation to reduce blood CO2 to induce cerebral vasoconstriction

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54
Q

What can be used to differentiate between a seizures and a pseudo seizure?

A

Prolactin

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55
Q

What is the eye examination signs for 3rd nerve palsy?

A

Ptosis + dilated pupil + absent light reflex with intact consensual constriction

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56
Q

Where is the most common cause of obstructive hydrocephalus?

A

Cerebral aqueduct stenosis

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57
Q

Which anti-epileptic drug causes weight loss, renal stones and cognitive and behaviour changes?

A

Topiramate

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58
Q

sudden and severe back pain, followed immediately by rapidly progressive bilateral flaccid limb weakness and loss of sensation, particularly for pain and temperature?

A

Spinal cord infarction

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59
Q

What is the management of stroke in patients <60 with severe symptoms and atleast 50% infarct of MCA on CT?

A

Decompressive hemicraniectomy

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60
Q

What is the most common cause of third nerve palsy?

A

Diabetes

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61
Q

What causes painful third nerve palsy?

A

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

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62
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for venous sinus thrombosis?

A

MR venogram

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63
Q

What is the triad for lewy-body dementia?

A

fluctuating cognition, parkinsonism and visual hallucinations

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64
Q

unilateral wide-amplitude flinging movements, usually of the proximal limb post stroke?

A

Hemiballismus secondary to lesion in the contralateral sub thalamic nucleus

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65
Q

Causes of SAH?

A

PKD, Ehlers Danlos, aortic cortication

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66
Q

Other symptoms of SAH except headache?

A

Vomiting, collapse, coma, visual disturbance, focal neurology

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67
Q

What is Kernigs sign?

A
  • Demonstrates meningeal irritation
  • Hip and Knee bent to 90 degrees, pain causes when knee is straightened
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68
Q

Extradural vs subdural

A

Extradural - lens shaped/lemon/biconvex, subdural - crescent shaped

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69
Q

What is Todds palsy?

A

T temporary weakness following a seizure - usually of affected limb(s).

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70
Q

What are causes of seizures?

A

Uraemia, hypoglycaemia, hyponatraemia, hypernatraemia, hypocalcaemia

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71
Q

What airway adjunct should be used if someone is having a seizure?

A

Nasopharyngeal

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72
Q

Management of seizure?

A
  • Roll the patient into the recovery position and move any items away from him that could cause harm
  • Place a pillow under head
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73
Q

What is the management of bladder dysfunction/incontinence in someone with MS?

A

US KUB

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74
Q

Sudden onset vertigo and vomiting, ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness

A

Anterior inferior cerebellar artery

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75
Q

What is Freidreich’s ataxia?

A

Autosomal recessive neuro condition with weakness, cerebellar signs and scoliosis

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76
Q

What signs would be present to indicate GBS?

A

LMN signs: hypotonia, paralysis, no reflexes

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77
Q

What is the most common cause of surgical third nerve palsy?

A

Posterior communication artery aneurysm

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78
Q

Damage to which structures can cause a homonymous hemianopia?

A

Unilateral damage to optic radiation or visual cortex

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79
Q

What are symptoms of raised ICP?

A
  • Headache
  • Vomiting
  • Papilledema
  • Seizures
  • Reduced consciousness
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80
Q

Drugs to manage ICP?

A
  • Mannitol
  • Dexamethasone
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81
Q

What are causes of Horners syndrome?

A
  • Pancoast tumour: non-small cell carcinoma
  • Stroke
  • Carotid artery dissection
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82
Q

Atrophy of the caudate nucleus and putamen?

A

Huntingtons

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83
Q

Dementia + Depression/Irritability + Involuntary movements?

A

Huntingtons

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84
Q

Acute cord compression in someone on anticoagulation should make you think what?

A

Epidural haematoma

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85
Q

What can present very similarly to carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

degenerative cervical myelopathy?

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86
Q

What are C/I to thrombolysis?

A
  • Haemorrhagic stroke
  • Active bleedig
  • Major surgery within 14 days
  • Pregnancy
  • Previous intracranial haemorrhage
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87
Q

Where is the damage in spastic cerebral palsy?

A

UMN in the periventricular white matter

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88
Q

What is the management of myasthenia crisis?

A

IV Immuniglobulins / Plasmapheresis

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89
Q

What is the most common cause of viral meningitis?

A

Enteroviruses e.g. coxsackie B

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90
Q

Vision worse going down stairs?

A

CN4 - Trochlear

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91
Q

What is a common complication of SAH?

A

Hyponatraemia -> can cause SIADH

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92
Q

What should FEV1 increase by when testing for asthma with short acting bronchodilators?

A

12% or more

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93
Q

What genes are associated with Parkinsons?

A

SNCA, LRRK2, PINK1

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94
Q

What are some non motor symptoms of Parkinsons?

A
  • Cognitive impairment
  • Depression
  • Hallucinations
  • Constipation
  • Sleep disorders
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95
Q

Investigations for TIA?

A
  • CT/MRI
  • Echo
  • 24 hour ECG
  • Carotid doppler
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96
Q

What are complications of GCA?

A
  • Visual loss
  • Aortic aneurysm
  • Seizures
  • Stroke
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97
Q

Which chromosome is affected in Huntingtons?

A

Chromosome 4

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98
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Huntingtons?

A

Expansion of CAG triple repeats in the huntingtin gene

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99
Q

What are Alzheimers symptoms?

A
  • Confusion
  • Apraxia
  • Depression
  • Hallucinations
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100
Q

What are the 2 drugs for Alzheimers?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors - Donepezil
NMDA antagonists - Memantine

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101
Q

Third nerve palsy with decreasing consciousness and heamatoma?

A

Trans-tentorial herniation

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102
Q

What investigation could be done to investigate suspected trigeminal neuralgia?

A

MRI head -> assess for underlying cause e.g MS

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103
Q

If CT is done within 6 hours of suspected SAH and is normal….

A

Do not do LP - consider alternative diagnosis

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104
Q

weakness of foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion

A

common peroneal lesion

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105
Q

what causes action potential prolongation in both sensory and motor axons?

A

Carpal tunnel

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106
Q

How long should symptoms be present before being able to diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

3 months

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107
Q

burning and tingling sensation over the upper lateral area of the thigh with no motor deficits

A

Think merralgia paraesthetica

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108
Q

loss of sensation to the palmar and dorsal aspect of the 5th digit

A

Ulnar

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109
Q

What occular signs are seen in Wernickes?

A
  • Nystagmus
  • Opthalmoplegia: lateral rectus palsy
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110
Q

When should amoxicillin be given to cover for Listeria in meningitis?

A

Over 60s

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111
Q

Fever on alternating days?

A

Malaria

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112
Q

Falling from a tree and grabbing a branch whilst falling -> claw hand?

A

Klumpke’s palsy -> T1 nerve damage

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113
Q

What should be given in non falciparum malaria?

A

Primaquine

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114
Q

Why is primaquine used in non-falciparum malaria?

A

Destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse

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115
Q

Which MND has the worst prognosis?

A

Progressive bulbar palsy

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116
Q

lymphocytic CSF with high protein and low glucose

A

TB meningitis

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117
Q

What are options to reduce relapses in MS?

A
  • Natalizumab
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118
Q

What are the 2 first line drugs for spasticity in MS?

A

Baclofen and Gabapentin

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119
Q

What are complications of spinal cord compression?

A
  • Aspiration
  • Pressure sores
  • Depression
  • Pneumonia
  • Autonomic dysfunction
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120
Q

Epilepsy DVLA rules

A

First unprovoked/isolated seizure - 6 months
Established epilepsy - seizure free for 12 months

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121
Q

What causes short headaches before an SAH?

A

Small leaks from the aneurysm

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122
Q

What kind of signs would MS give?

A

UMN

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123
Q

What autoimmune conditions are associated with myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Graves
  • Hashimotos
  • RA
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124
Q

What is the key feature of MG?

A

Fatigability - muscles become progressively weaker during periods of activity and improve after rest

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125
Q

What are the antibodies of MG?

A
  • Anti-acetylcholine receptors
  • anti muscle-specific tyrosine kinase antibodies
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126
Q

What is the Tensilon test?

A

IV edrophonium which reduces muscle weakness temporarily

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127
Q

What is the main complication with MG?

A

Acute respiratory failure due to weakness of the muscles of ventilation.

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128
Q

CT head showing temporal lobe changes

A

Herpes encephalitis

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129
Q

Sensory loss posterolateral aspect of leg and lateral aspect of foot

A

S1

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130
Q

Which organisms can cause GBS?/

A
  • Campylobacter
  • CMV
  • Hepatitis
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • EBV
  • HIV
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131
Q

What are types of CNS tumours?

A

Glioma - most common
Meningioma
Glioblastoma

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132
Q

What is the treatment for Lewy-Body dementia?

A
  • Same as Alzheimers
  • Donepezil/Rivastigmine
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133
Q

What criteria is used for MS diagnosis?

A

McDonald

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134
Q

Cushings reflex

A
  • HTN
  • Bradycardia
  • Irregular breathing
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135
Q

Signs of expanding EDH?

A
  • N+V
  • Slurred speech
  • Seizures
  • Reduced GCS
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136
Q

What is coning?

A

Herniation of cerebellar tonsils through foramen magnum causing compression of brainstem

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137
Q

Management of ?brain abscess on CT?

A

IV Abx
MRI to rule out brain mets
Drainage if confirmed abscess

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138
Q

Meningitis complications?

A

Septic shock
Hearing loss
Seizures
Intellectual impairment
Abscess

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139
Q

Memantine side effect?

A

Constipation

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140
Q

CSF antibodies against NMDA?

A

Autoimmune encephalitis

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141
Q

What test should be done before starting acetylcholinesterase inhibitors?

A

ECG - can prolong QT

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142
Q

cerebral venous sinus thrombosis treatment?

A

LMWH

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143
Q

A hyperdense artery sign on CT can be a sign of what?

A

Ischaemic stroke

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144
Q

Effacement of the cerebral ventricles and loss of grey-white matter differentiation

A

Raised ICP

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145
Q

Hyperdense material in the cerebral sulci and basal cisterns

A

SAH

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146
Q

What is cortical basal degeneration?

A

Parkinson’s triad + spontaneous activity of an affected limb

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147
Q

What is internuclear opthalmoplegia?

A

Lesion in medial longitudinal fasciculus causing impaired adduction in affected side and nystagmus in opposite eye

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148
Q

What are some factors with worsen prognosis of MS?

A
  • Older
  • Male
  • Many MRI lesions
  • Early relapses
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149
Q

What is myotonic dystrophy?

A
  • 20s year old with cataracts, muscle wasting of hands, slow relaxing grip
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150
Q

Management of lumbar spine stenosis?

A
  • Pain management, physio
  • Surgery only for severe cases e.g. laminectomy
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151
Q

Most common cause of spontaneous intracerebral haemorrhage?

A

HTN

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152
Q

REM sleep disturbances is a feature of what?

A

Lewy body dementia

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153
Q

What is decorticate?

A

Abnormal flexion in response to pain

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154
Q

India ink stain is used to test for what?

A

Cryptococcus -> Fungal meningitis

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155
Q

HIV patient with meningitis signs?

A

Fungal -> Cryptococcus

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156
Q

Excessive nitrous oxide inhalation can cause what?

A

Subacute degeneration of spinal cord

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157
Q

Vertigo, nystagmus, dysphagia, Horners?

A

PICA

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158
Q

CAG triple repeat with anticipation through spermatogenesis?

A

Huntingtons

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159
Q

Bell’s palsy?

A

acute unilateral facial nerve weakness or paralysis of rapid onset (<72hrs) and unknown causes

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160
Q

What may contribute to the development of Bell’s palsy (but mainly unknown cause)?

A

HSV, varicella zoster, autoimmunity

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161
Q

What age is Bell’s palsy most common?

A

15-45yrs

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162
Q

Cx of Bell’s palsy?

A

eye injury, facial pain, dry mouth, intolerance to loud noises, abnormal facial muscle contraction during voluntary movements, psychological Cx

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163
Q

Diagnosis of Bell’s palsy?

A

clinical, when no other condition is found to be causing facial weakness or paralysis

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164
Q

Symptoms of Bell’s palsy?

A
  • rapid onset (<72hrs)
  • unilateral facial muscle weakness invl upper AND lower parts of face
  • reduction in movement on affected side
  • drooping of eyebrows, corner of mouth and loss of nasolabial fold
  • ear & postauricular pain on affected side
  • difficulty chewing, dry mouth, changes in taste
  • incomplete eye closure, dry eye, eye pain, or XS tearing
  • numbness/tingling of cheek +/- mouth
  • speech articulation problems, drooling
  • hyperacusis
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165
Q

Mx of Bell’s palsy?

A

Present <72hrs of onset= prednisolone 50mg daily 10d

  • keep affected eye lubricated= eye drops & artificial tears in day, at night- oitnment and tape eye closed
  • specialist advice= ? antiviral + corticosteroid (may be recommended)
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166
Q

Urgent referral for Bell’s palsy if it may be caused by what?

A
  • UMN cause
  • cancer
  • trauma
  • acute or severe local infection
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167
Q

Bell’s palsy- when to refer to specialist?

A
  • atypical features
  • no improvement >3w after Tx
  • new neurologic or worsen symptoms
  • ocular symptoms= pain, irritation, itch
  • incomplete recovery >3m of onset
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168
Q

Atypical features of Bell’s palsy that require referral for exclusion of an alternative diagnosis?

A
  • gradual progression
  • > 6m; ipsilateral hearing loss; pain within facial nerve distribution
  • parotid mass
  • previous stroke, brain tumour, trauma, recent infection, skin ca of head or face
  • systemic illness or fever
  • dysphagia, diplopia, vestibular abnormalities
  • eye brow spared
  • bilateral
  • recurrent
  • uneven distribution of weakness
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169
Q

Examination for Bell’s palsy?

A

complete head and neck exam

1) cranial nerve
2) otoscopy, Weber’s & Rinne’s
3) parotid gland
4) skin of head, face, cheek, oral cavity, mastoid: swelling, rashes
5) eyes & periocular complex

SHOULD be unremarkable except uniformly distributed one-sided facial palsy

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170
Q

Differential diagnosis for Bell’s palsy?

A
  • infection= HSV, Lyme disease, otitis media, mastoiditis, cholesteatoma, Ramsay Hunt, meningitis, encephalitis, HIV, syphilis, glandular fever
  • stroke
  • brain tumour
  • trauma
  • facial nerve tumour, parotid tumour
  • skin ca
  • diabetes
  • MS
  • Guillain-Barre
  • sarcoidosis
  • arteriovenous malformation
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171
Q

Ramsay Hunt vs Bell’s palsy?

A

RH= pain followed by vesicular rash on pinna, or in ear canal or pharynx; sensorineural hearing loss; facial nerve palsy

Bell’s= uniformly distributed one-sided facial palsy

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172
Q

Stroke vs Bell’s palsy?

A

Stroke= FOREHEAD SPARED- can raise eyebrows on affected side

Bell’s= can’t raise eyebrows, palsy includes forehead

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173
Q

Is the facial palsy in stroke- where forehead spared, a UMN or LMN palsy?

A

UMN

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174
Q

What group of people is Bell’s palsy more common in?

A

pregnant women

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175
Q

Is Bell’s palsy a UMN or LMN facial nerve palsy?

A

LMN= forehead affected

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176
Q

Why is eye care eg. artificial tears and eye lubricants important in Bell’s palsy?

A

prevent exposure keratopathy

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177
Q

Follow up in Bell’s palsy?

A

if paralysis shows no sign of improvement after 3w, refer urgent to ENT

long standing weakness eg. months= may refer to plastic surgery

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178
Q

Prognosis of Bell’s palsy?

A

most make full recovery in 3-4m

untreated= 15% pts have permanent moderate to severe weakness

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179
Q

Causes of brain abscess?

A

extension of sepsis from middle ear or sinuses, trauma or surgery to scalp, penetrating head injury, embolic events from endocarditis

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180
Q

CP of brain abscess?

A

depends on site eg. if in critical areas like motor cortex will present earlier

  • raised ICP= nausea, papilloedema, seizures
  • headache= dull, persistent
  • fever= may be absent
  • focal neurology eg. oculomotor palsy or abducens palsy secondary to raised ICP
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181
Q

Ix for brain abscess?

A

CT head

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182
Q

Mx for brain abscess?

A
  • surgery= craniotomy, abscess cavity debrided (may reform as head is closed following drainage)
  • also IV Abx= IV 3rd gen cephalosporin + metronidazole
  • ICP Mx= dexamethasone
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183
Q

IV Abx for brain abscess?

A

IV 3rd gen cephalosporin + metronidazole

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184
Q

Cerebral palsy?

A

term for group of permanent movement and posture disorders of the developing fetal or infant brain which limit activity

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185
Q

Cause of cerebral palsy?

A

acquired pathology with the developing brain during the prenatal, neonatal or infant period

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186
Q

The impaired movement associated with cerebral palsy results from what?

A

centrally-mediated abnormal muscle tone which leads (most commonly) to spasticity

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187
Q

Features of cerebral palsy?

A
  • abnormal muscle tone leading to spasticity
  • disorders of sensation, perception, cognition, communication and behaviour
  • may incl. MSK problems, neurogenic bladder, GORD, XS salivation and feeding & swallowing difficulties
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188
Q

RFs for cerebral palsy?

A
  • prematurity
  • multiple gestation, maternal infections eg. chorioamnioitis
  • lower birth weight
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189
Q

Possible early motor features suggestive of cerebral palsy?

A
  • unusual fidgety movements or asymmetry or paucity of movement
  • abnorm tone: hypotonia, spasticity or dystonia
  • abnorm motor development: late head control, rolling and crawling
  • feeding difficulties
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190
Q

Most common delayed motor milestones in children with cerebral palsy (corrected for gestational age)?

A
  • not sitting by 8m
  • not walking by 18m
  • asymmetry of hand function before 1yr (dominant hand)
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191
Q

Children at increased risk of cerebral palsy should receive what?

A

enhanced MDT developmental follow up to age of 2yrs

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192
Q

Cerebral palsy suspected?

A

referral to child development service for MDT assessment

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193
Q

Who is involved in the Mx for confirmed cerebral palsy?

A

MDT specialist Mx:
- peads, nurse, physio, occupational, SALT, dietician, psychology
- orthopaedic surgery (& post-surgery rehab), rehav medicine, specialist neurology service, social care, learning disability services, mental health services

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194
Q

Common medical issues in pts with cerebral palsy that may need Mx?

A

nutrition problems, pain, mental health, constipation, GORD, resp problems

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195
Q

When does spasticity in cerebral palsy typically present?

A

after 1st yr when child attempts activities

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196
Q

What is spasticity in cerebral palsy characterised as?

A

hypertonia, abnormal deep tendon reflexes (increased), presence of clonus

progressive contractures or deformities can follow by age of 5yrs esp during periods of rapid growth

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197
Q

When to suspect a different diagnosis if already suspect cerebral palsy?

A
  • absence of CP RFs
  • FHx of progressive neuro disorder
  • loss of already attained cognitive or developmental abilities
  • development of unexpected focal neuro signs
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198
Q

Differential diagnosis for cerebral palsy?

A
  • brain tumour
  • dystonia
  • muscular dystrophy
  • myelodysplasia
  • spinal muscular atrophy
  • spinal stenosis/tethered cord
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199
Q

Cerebral palsy if defined as a disorder of movement and posture due to a non-progressive lesion of the….

A

motor pathways in the developing brain

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200
Q

Most common cause of major motor impairment?

A

cerebral palsy

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201
Q

Antenatal (80%), intrapartum (10%) and postnatal (10%) causes of cerebral palsy?

A

antenatal= cerebral malformation and congenital infection (rubella, toxoplasmosis, CMV)

intrapartum= birth asphyxia/trauma

postnatal= intraventricular haemorrhage, meningitis, head-trauma

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202
Q

Is cerebral palsy progressive?

A

no

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203
Q

Main possible mainfestations of cerebral palsy (4)?

A
  • abnormal tone early infancy
  • delayed motor milestones
  • abnormal gait
  • feeding difficulties
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204
Q

Children with cerebral palsy often have associated non-motor problems such as…

A
  • learning difficulties (60%)
  • epilepsy (30%)
  • squints (30%)
  • hearing impairment (20%)
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205
Q

Classification of cerebral palsy?

A

1) Spastic (70%)
2) Dyskinetic
3) Ataxic
4) Mixed

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206
Q

Spastic cerebral palsy subtypes?

A

hemiplegia, diplegia, quadriplegia

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207
Q

Spastic cerebral palsy?

A

subtypes= hemi, di or quadriplegia

increased tone resulting from damage to UMN

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208
Q

Dyskinetic cerebral palsy?

A

caused by damage to basal ganglia and substantia nigra

athetoid movements and oro-motor problems

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209
Q

Ataxic cerebral palsy?

A

caused by damage to cerebellum with typical cerebellar signs

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210
Q

Subtype of cerebral palsy: cerebellar signs?

A

ataxic

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211
Q

increased tone resulting from damage to UMN?

A

spastic cerebral palsy

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212
Q

Subtype of cerebral palsy: athetoid movements and oro-motor problems?

A

dyskinetic

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213
Q

Tx that can be used in cerebral palsy (Mx includes MDT approach)?

A

spasticity= oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal balofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopaedic surgery and selective dorsal rhizotomy

analgesia

anticonvulsants

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214
Q

Chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

diagnosed after at least 3m of disabling fatigue affecting mental and physical function more than 50% of the time in the absence of other disease that may explain symptoms

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215
Q

Epidemiology of chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

females more common
past psychiatric history NOT a risk factors

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216
Q

Features of chronic fatigue syndrome?

A
  • FATIGUE
  • sleep problems= insomnia, hypersomnia, unrefreshing sleep, disturbed sleep-wake cycle
  • muscle +/or joint pains
  • painful lymph nodes without enlargement
  • sore throat
  • cognitive dysfunction= difficulty thinking, inability to concentrate, impaired short term memory, diff word finding
  • general malaise/flu like symptoms
  • dizziness
  • nausea
  • palpitations
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217
Q

What makes symptoms worse in chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

physical or mental exertion

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218
Q

Ix and Diagnosis for chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

Ix= screening blood to exclude other pathology eg. FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, Ca, CK, ferritin, coeliac screening, urinalysis

Diagnosis= symptoms persist for 3m

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219
Q

Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) has a better prognosis in who?

A

children

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220
Q

Mx for chronic fatigue syndrome?

A
  • refer to specialist CFS if diagnostic criteria met
  • energy Mx= self-management strategy to keep activities within energy limit with support from healthcare proffessional
  • Physical activity and exercise= only if specialist advised, if pt feels ready to progress activity beyond current ADLs
  • CBT: supportive not curative
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221
Q

ME vs CFS?

A

Myalgic Encephalomyelitis (ME) and Chronic Fatigue Syndrome (CFS) are overlapping conditions often termed ME/CFS due to similar symptoms like severe fatigue, post-exertional malaise (PEM), and cognitive impairment.

ME historically focuses on neurological and muscular symptoms, implying inflammation in the brain and spinal cord, while CFS centers on prolonged, unexplained fatigue and broader systemic symptoms. Both conditions can follow viral infections and have no single known cause, with diagnosis based on symptom clusters rather than specific tests.

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222
Q

Dementia?

A

progressive irreversible clinical syndrome with range of cognitive and behavioural symptoms incl. memory loss, problems with reasoning and communication, change in personality, reduction in pts ability to carry out daily activities

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223
Q

How severe is decline in cognition in dementia?

A

extensive, often affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning

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224
Q

RFs for dementia?

A

ageing
mild cognitive impairment
genetics
Parkinson’s
cerebrovascular disease
CVD

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225
Q

Modifiable RFs for dementia?

A

smoking, DM, lack of physical activity, obesity

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226
Q

Mild cognitive impairment?

A

cognitive impairment that does not fulfil the diagnostic criteria for dementia

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227
Q

Common subtypes of dementia?

A
  • Alzheimers (50-75%)= often co-exists with other forms eg. vascular
  • Vascular dementia (20%)
  • Dementia with Lewy bodies (10-15%)
  • Frontotemporal dementia (2%)
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228
Q

When to suspect dementia?

A
  • cog impairment= memory problems (eg. diff learning new info_, dysphasia and dyspraxia, disorientation to time and place, impairment of executive function (diff planning & problem solving)
  • difficulties with ADLs= eating, hygiene, grooming, dressing
  • behavioural & psychological symptoms of dementia (BPSD)= delusions, hallucinations, agitiation, emotional lability, depression, anxiety, apathy, social/sexual disinhibition, motor disturbance (eg. wandering or repetitive activity), sleep disruption
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229
Q

Behavioural & psychological symptoms of dementia (BPSD)

A

delusions, hallucinations, agitiation, emotional lability, depression, anxiety, apathy, social/sexual disinhibition, motor disturbance (eg. wandering or repetitive activity), sleep disruption

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230
Q

Ix for dementia?

A
  • cognitive assessment: MMSE, Montreal Cognitive Assessment, 10 point cognitive screen or 6 item Cognitive Impairment Test
  • Hx from someone who knows pt well= IQCODE or FAQ
  • neuro exam
  • Rule out reversible causes= depression, hypothyroidism, delirium
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231
Q

Mx of pt with suspect dementia should invl what?

A
  • admission is severely disturbed
  • refer to memory assessment service for specialist assessment and Mx
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232
Q

Pt with mild cognitive impairment?

A

follow up regularly to monitor possible progression of cognitive deficit- if deteriorate refer to assessment and Mx ?dementia

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233
Q

Follow up in primary care for pt with dementia?

A
  • planning ahead= lasting power of attorney, advance statement, decisions, preferences for place of care and death (ReSPECT)
  • ensure have regularly reviewed care plan
  • monitor response and adverse effects of Tx and progression
  • review meds
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234
Q

How may difficulties with ADLs for pt with dementia deteriorate?

A

early stages= diff carrying out complex household tasks

later= bathing, toileting, eating and walking affected

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235
Q

Symptoms specific for Alzheimer’s disease?

A
  • presenting symptom= loss of recent memory first and diff with executive function and/or normal dysphasia
  • loss of episodic memory= memory loss of recent events, repeated questioning and diff learning new info
  • cognitive deficits= aphasia, apraxia and agnosia
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236
Q

aphasia, apraxia and agnosia eg in Alzheimer’s?

A

inability to remember a word (amnesia) and the inability to understand a word (aphasia) or the inability to recognize a fork as a fork (agnosia) and the inability to use it properly (apraxia)

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237
Q

Symptoms specific for vascular dementia?

A
  • stepwise increases in severity of symptoms= subcortical ischaemic vascular dementia may present insidiously with gait and attention problems and changes in personality
  • focal neuro signs (hemiparesis or visual field defects) may be present
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238
Q

Symptoms specific for dementia with Lewy bodies?

A

fluctuating cognition, recurrent visual hallucinations, REM sleep behaviour disorder and one or more symptoms of parkinsonism= bradykinesia, rest tremor or rigidity

memory impairment may not be apparent in early stages

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239
Q

Symptoms specific for frontotemporal dementia?

A
  • personality change and behavioural disturbance eg. apathy or social/sexual disinhibition; may develop insidiously
  • other cognitive functions eg. memory and perception may be relatively preserved
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240
Q

10-point Cognitive Screener (10-CS)?

A

a type of cognitive assessment tool for dementia

involves 3 temporal orientation questions (year, month, date), a 3-word recall, and a 4 point scaled animal naming task.

One point is scored for each of the temporal questions and each word recalled, and the scores for the animal naming task range from 0 points for 0–5 animals, to 4 points for 15 or more animals.

A score of 8 or more is normal, 6–7 indicates possible cognitive impairment, and 0–5 indicates probable cognitive impairment

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241
Q

Differential diagnosis for dementia?

A
  • normal age related memory changes
  • mild cognitive impairment
  • depression
  • delirium
  • vitamin def eg. thiamine, B12
  • hypothyroidism
  • adverse drug effects
  • normal pressure hydrocephalus
  • sensory deficits eg. vision or hearing
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242
Q

subcortical dementia is a what condition

A

HIV indicator condition

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243
Q

Normal pressure hydrocephalus can present with what symptoms?

A

early cognitive impairment, urinary incontinence and gait disorder

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244
Q

What to do with pt with suspected rapidly progressive dementia?

A

refer to neuro with access to tests (including cerebrospinal fluid examination) for Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease and similar conditions.

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245
Q

Specialist Ix for suspected dementia?

A
  • MRI
  • Alzheimer’s= examine CSF for tau protiens and amyloid beta plaques
  • Lewy body= can use single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) (aka DaTscan)
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246
Q

Specialist Mx for dementia?

A

Non-pharmacological= cognitive stimulation therapy eg. activities and discussions aimed at improvement of cognitive and social functioning

Medical:
- Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors= donepezil, galantamine or rivastigmine (mild to moderate)
- Memantine (N-methyl-D aspartic acid receptor antagonist) for severe- only to be used in Alzheimer’s

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247
Q

Drug for mild-moderate Alzheimer’s?

A

Donepezil, galantamine or rivastigmine

(Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors)

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248
Q

2nd line drug Tx/severe Alzheimers?

A

memantine
(NMDA receptor antagonist)

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249
Q

Managing non-cognitive symptoms in dementia?

A

antidepressants NOT recommended

antipsychotics for distress, agitation, hallucinations, risk of harming themselves/others (AVOID in Lewy bodys as may get irrevserible parkinsonism)

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250
Q

Donepezil (for demenita) contraindicated in who?

A

pts with bradycardia

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251
Q

Donepezil (for dementia) adverse effect?

A

insomnia

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252
Q

What is Alzheimers?

A

progressive degenerative disease of brain & most common type of dementia

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253
Q

RFs for Alzheimers?

A
  • ageing
  • FHx
  • inherited
  • Caucasian ethnicity
  • Down’s syndrome
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254
Q

Inheritance of Alzheimers?

A

5% of cases are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait

mutations in the amyloid precursor protein (chromosome 21), presenilin 1 (chromosome 14) and presenilin 2 (chromosome 1) genes are thought to cause the inherited form

apoprotein E allele E4 - encodes a cholesterol transport protein

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255
Q

Macroscopic pathological changes in Alzheimers?

A

widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly involving cortex and hippocampus

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256
Q

Microscopic pathological changes in Alzheimer’s?

A

cortical plaques due to deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein

hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to AD

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257
Q

Biochemical pathological changes in Alzheimers?

A

there is a deficit of acetylcholine from damage to an ascending forebrain projection

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258
Q

Neurofibrillary tangles?

A

seen in Alzheimers

paired helical filaments are partly made from a protein called tau

tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules

in AD are tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing its function

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259
Q

MMSE score of what suggests dementia?

A

24 or less out of 30

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260
Q

What tests can be done to rule out reversible causes of dementia?

A

bloods= FBC, U&E, FLTs, Ca, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vit B12, folate

neuroimaging to exclude subdural haematoma, normal pressure hydrocephalus ect and to provide info on aetiology for prognosis and Mx

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261
Q

What is FTLD?

A

frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD)

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262
Q

3 types of frontotemporal lobar degeneration?

A
  • Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease)
  • Progressive non fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA)
  • semantic dementia
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263
Q

Main common features of frontotemporal lobar demenita?

A

onset <65yrs

insidious onset

relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills

personality change and social conduct problems

hallucinations, hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, perseveration behaviours

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264
Q

Another name for frontotemporal dementia?

A

Pick’s disease

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265
Q

What is characteristic finding of Pick’s disease (frontotemporal dementia)?

A

focal gyral atrophy with knife-blade appearance

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266
Q

Macroscopic changes seen in Pick’s disease (frontotemporal dementia)?

A

atrophy of frontal and temporal lobes

(focal gyral atrophy with knife-blade appearance)

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267
Q

Microscopic changes seen in Pick’s disease (frontotemporal dementia)?

A

Pick bodies - spherical aggregations of tau protein (silver-staining)

Gliosis

Neurofibrillary tangles

Senile plaques

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268
Q

Mx of frontotemporal dementia?

A

DO NOT recommend AChE inhibitors or memantine

SSRIs or antipsychotics

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269
Q

CPA?

A

(Posterior cortical atrophy)

non fluent speech

short utterances that are agrammatic

comprehension preserved

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270
Q

Semantic dementia?

A

Fluent progressive aphasia.

The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning.

Unlike in Alzheimer’s memory is better for recent rather than remote events.

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271
Q

Characteristic pathological feature in Lewy body dementia?

A

alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions (Lewy bodies) in the substantia nigra, paralimbic and neocortical areas.

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272
Q

Up to 40% of pts with Alzheimers also have?

A

lewy bodies

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273
Q

Relationship between Parkinsons and Lewy body dementia?

A

LB= cognitive impairment before parkinsonism but usually occur within a yr of each other

P= motor symptoms present at least 1yr before cognitive symptoms

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274
Q

Main features of Lewy body dementia?

A
  • progressive cognitive impairment 1st
  • followed by parkinsonism symptoms (within 1 yr)
  • cognition may be fluctuating (different to other dementias)
  • visual hallucinations
  • may have delusions and non-visual hallucinations
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275
Q

How is Alzheimer’s different to Lewy body dementia?

A

A= early impairment is in attention and executive function rather than just memory loss

LB= mainly memory loss

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276
Q

Diagnosis of Lewy body dementia?

A

usually clinical

can use single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) (aka DaTscan) (90% sensitivity and 100% specificity)

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277
Q

Mx of Lewy body dementia?

A

same as Alzheimer’s

AVOID neuroleptics ( eg. antipsychotics) as pts v sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism

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278
Q

Pt with Lewy body dementia deteriorated and with irreversible parkinsonism- why?

A

been given neuroleptic drug eg. antipsychotic (eg. 1st gen)

MUST AVOID IN LEWY BODY DEMENTIA

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279
Q

What is vascular dementia?

A

not a single disease but group of syndromes of cognitive impairment caused by different mechanisms causing ischaemia or haemorrhage secondary to cerebrovascular disease

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280
Q

Most severe form of the spectrum of deficits encompassed by the term vascular cognitive impairment (VCI)?

A

vascular dementia

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281
Q

What is important in the prevention of vascular dementia?

A

early detection and accurate diagnosis

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282
Q

Prevalence of dementia in vascular dementia following a stroke?

A

Prevalence of dementia following a first stroke varies depending on location and size of the infarct, definition of dementia, interval after stroke and age among other variables. Overall, stroke doubles the risk of developing dementia.

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283
Q

RFs for vascuclar dementia?

A
  • ageing
  • stroke doubles risk
  • History of stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA)
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Hypertension
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Hyperlipidaemia
  • Smoking
  • Obesity
  • Coronary heart disease
  • A family history of stroke or cardiovascular
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284
Q

Subtypes of vascular dementia?

A

stroke-related VD

subcortical VD

mixed dementia

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285
Q

Subtypes of vascular dementia: stroke-related VD?

A

multi infarct or single infarct dementia

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286
Q

Subtypes of vascular dementia: subcortical VD?

A

caused by small vessel disease

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287
Q

Subtypes of vascular dementia: caused by small vessel disease?

A

subcortical VD

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288
Q

Subtypes of vascular dementia: mixed dementia?

A

presence of both VD and Alzheimers

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289
Q

Mixed dementia?

A

presence of both VD and Alzheimers

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290
Q

Example of vascular dementia being inherited (rare)?

A

CADASIL (cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy)

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291
Q

Pts with vascular dementia typically present with what?

A

Several months or several years of a history of a sudden or stepwise deterioration of cognitive function.

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292
Q

Symptoms and speed of progression in vascular dementia vary but may include what?

A

Focal neurological abnormalities e.g. visual disturbance, sensory or motor symptoms

The difficulty with attention and concentration

Seizures

Memory disturbance

Gait disturbance

Speech disturbance

Emotional disturbance

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293
Q

Diagnosis of vascular dementia?

A
  • clinical
  • formal screen for cognitive impairment
  • exclude medication cause of cognitive decline
  • MRI= may show infarcts and extensive white matter changes
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294
Q

What criteria can be used to diagnose probable vascular dementia?

A

NINDS-AIREN

1) Presence of cognitive decline that interferes with activities of daily living, not due to secondary effects of the cerebrovascular event
- established using clinical examination and neuropsychological testing

2) Cerebrovascular disease
- defined by neurological signs and/or brain imaging

3) A relationship between the above two disorders inferred by:
- the onset of dementia within three months following a recognised stroke
- an abrupt deterioration in cognitive functions
- fluctuating, stepwise progression of cognitive deficits

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295
Q

General Mx for vascular dementia?

A
  • symptomatic: adress pts problems and provide support
  • detect and address CV risk factors for slowing down progression
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296
Q

Non-pharmacological Mx for vascular dementia?

A

Tailored to the individual

Include: cognitive stimulation programmes, multisensory stimulation, music and art therapy, animal-assisted therapy

Managing challenging behaviours e.g. address pain, avoid overcrowding, clear communication

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297
Q

Pharmacological Mx for vascular dementia?

A

There is no specific pharmacological treatment approved for cognitive symptoms

ONLY consider AChE inhibitors or memantine for people with vascular dementia if they have suspected comorbid Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease dementia or dementia with Lewy bodies.

There is no evidence that aspirin is effective in treating patients with a diagnosis of vascular dementia.
No randomized trials found evaluating statins for vascular dementia

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298
Q

Possible MRI findings in vascular dementia?

A

infarcts and extensive white matter changes

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299
Q

Example of a temporal lobe sign

A

aphasia

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300
Q

In herpes simplex encephalitis, where does the virus characteristically affect?

A

temporal lobes

inferior frontal lobes

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301
Q

Features of herpes simplex encephalitis?

A
  • fever, headache, psychiatric symptoms, seizures, vomiting
  • focal features eg. aphasia
  • peripheral lesions (eg. cold sores) have to relation to presence of HSV encephalitis
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302
Q

Are cold sores related to HSV encephalitis?

A

no

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303
Q

Pathophysiology of herpes simplex encephalitis?

A

HSV-1 responsible for 95% cases

typically affects temporal and inferior frontal lobes

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304
Q

Ix for herpes simplex encephalitis?

A
  • CSF= lymphocytosis, elevated protein
  • PCR for HSV
  • CT (MRI better)
  • EEG
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305
Q

What would CT show in herpes simplex encephalitis (MRI better)?

A

medial temporal and inferior frontal changes eg. petechial haemorrhages

normal in 1/3

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306
Q

EEG pattern in herpes simplex encephalitis?

A

lateralised periodic discharges at 2Hz

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307
Q

What would CSF show in herpes simplex encephalitis?

A

lymphocytosis, elevated protein

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308
Q

MRI findings in herpes simplex encephalitis?

A

hyperintensity of affected white matter and cortex in the medial temporal lobes and insular cortex

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309
Q

Tx for herpes simplex encephalitis?

A

IV aciclovir

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310
Q

Prognosis for herpes simplex encephalitis?

A

dependent on whether aciclovir is commenced early

if Tx prompt then mortality 10-20%

untreated= 80%

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311
Q

Seizure?

A

transient occurence of signs or symptoms due to abnormal XS or synchronous neuronal activity in the brain

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312
Q

Epilepsy?

A

disease of brain defined by any of the following:

  • at least 2 unprovoked seizures occurring >24hrs apart
  • 1 unprovoked seizure and probability of further seizures similar to general recurrence risk after 2 unprovoked seizures, occurring over next 10yrs
  • diagnosis of epilepsy syndrome
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313
Q

Convulsive status epilepticus?

A

prolonged convulsive seizure for 5mins or longer, or recurrent seizures one after the other without recovery in between

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314
Q

Causes of epilepsy?

A

only identified in 1/3 pts

structural, genetic, infectious, metabolic, immune

more common in people with learning disabilities

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315
Q

Clinical features of epilepsy are specific to what?

A

type of seizure

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316
Q

Features of epilepsy: tonic seizure?

A

Short-lived (less than 1 minute), abrupt, generalised muscle stiffening (may cause fall) with rapid recovery

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317
Q

Features of epilepsy: generalised tonic-clonic seizure?

A

generalised stiffening and subsequent rhythmic jerking of the limbs, urinary incontinence, tongue biting

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318
Q

Features of epilepsy: absence seizure?

A

behavioural arrest

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319
Q

Features of epilepsy: atonic seizure?

A

sudden onset of loss of muscle tone

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320
Q

Features of epilepsy: myoclonic seizure?

A

brief, shock-like involuntary single or multiple jerks

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321
Q

Immediate Mx of pt having a seizure?

A
  • protect pt from injury, check airway, place them in recovery position until seizure stops
  • if tonic-clonic is prolonged or recurrent= emergency buccal midazolam 1st line in community if prescribed
  • emergency admission to hospital if seizures don’t respond prompt to Tx
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322
Q

All pts suspected of having 1st epileptic seizure should be?

A

urgently referred to specialist to confirm diagnosis

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323
Q

How often should all pt with epilepsy be routinely reviewed?

A

yearly

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324
Q

All people with epilepsy should have a routine review at least once a year to assess what?

A
  • seizure control, adverse effects, compliance with Tx
  • impact on work, education, leisure activities and how to manage risks
  • entitlement to drive
  • carers’ skills in managing seizures
  • contraception needs and preg planning info if needed
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325
Q

Specialist advice should be sought for a person with confirmed epilepsy with what?

A
  • poor seizure control or poorly tolerated Tx
  • previous prolonged or recurrent seizures, who have not been prescribed emergency Tx for us in community
  • possible cognitive impairment
  • seizure-free history for at least 2yrs who would like to consider tapering or withdrawl from drug Tx
  • plans for pregnancy
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326
Q

RFs causing a predisposition for epilepsy?

A
  • Premature birth.
  • Complicated febrile seizures.
  • A genetic condition that is known to be associated with epilepsy, eg. tuberous sclerosis or neurofibromatosis.
  • Brain development malformations – usually associated with epilepsy developing before adulthood.
  • FHx of epilepsy or neurologic illness.
  • Head trauma, infections (for example meningitis, encephalitis), or tumours — can occur at any age.
  • Comorbid conditions such as cerebrovascular disease or stroke — more common in older people.
  • Dementia and neurodegenerative disorders (people with Alzheimer’s disease are up to ten times more likely to develop epilepsy than the general population).
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327
Q

What genetic conditions are known to be associated with epilepsy?

A

tuberous sclerosis

neurofibromatosis

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328
Q

What to ask pt presenting with first seizure?

A
  • symptoms at start of seziure (aura)= may suggest focal epilepsy

-potential triggers

  • features of seizure= what type?
  • residual symptoms after the attack (post-ictal)
  • exam oral mucosa for lateral tongue bites
  • incontinence?
  • anyone wittnessed
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329
Q

Epilepsy: potential triggers of a seziure?

A

sleep deprivation, stress, light sensitivity, alcohol use

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330
Q

Epilepsy: post-ictal symptoms?

A

drowsiness, headaches, amnesia, confusion

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331
Q

In epilepsy, after what type of seizures do you get post-ictal symptoms after?

A

only after generalised tonic and/or clonic seizures

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332
Q

What type of seizure is sometimes associated with urinary incontinence and tongue biting?

A

generalised tonic clonic

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333
Q

Initial Ix when pt presents with 1st seizure?

A
  • REFER
  • cardiac neuro, mental state and developmental assessment if appropriate
  • examine for tongue biting
  • any injuries sustained
  • 12-lead ECG= ?cardiac related conditions that could mimic epileptic seizure
  • baseline tests eg. bloods= FBC, U&E, LFTs, glucose and Ca
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334
Q

Differential diagnosis for epilepsy?

A
  • Vasovagal syncope.
  • Cardiac arrhythmias.
  • Panic attacks with hyperventilation.
  • Non-epileptic attack disorders (psychogenic non-epileptic seizures, dissociative seizures, or pseudoseizures).
  • TIA
  • Migraine.
  • Medication, alcohol, or drug intoxication.
  • Sleep disorders.
  • Movement disorders.
  • Hypoglycaemia and metabolic disorders.
  • Transient global amnesia.
  • Delirium or dementia — altered awareness may be mistaken for seizure activity.
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335
Q

Differential diagnosis for epilepsy in children?

A
  • febrile convulsions
  • breath-holding attacks
  • night terrors
  • stereotyped/ritualistic behaviour eg. those with learning disability
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336
Q

What to advise a pt with suspected epilepsy before had their referral appointment?

A
  • epilepsy used to describe condition where people have tendency to have seizures but there are other possible causes for seizures
  • stop driving whilst waiting to see specialist, avoid dangerous work, heights, swimming, shower not baths
  • lifestyle factors that may lower seizure threshold eg. sleep deprivation, alcohol, social drugs
  • take witness of seizure to 1st appointment if possible
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337
Q

Mx of pt having tonic clonic seizure and note time, if lasts less than 5 mins…

A
  • look for epilepsy identity card/jewellery
  • protect from injury= cushion head, remove glasses and harmful objects
  • do not restrain or put anything in mouth
  • when stops= check airway and put in recovery position
  • observe until recovered
  • examine and manage any injuries
  • arrange emergency admission if= 1st seizure; another reoccurs shortly after 1st one; if pt is injured, trouble breathing or difficult to wake
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338
Q

Additional measures to Mx tonic-clonic seizure lasting more than 5 mins or who have >3 seizures in 1 hr?

A
  • Tx with either= buccal midazolam; rectal diazepam if buccal midazolam not available; IV lorazepam if IV access already established
  • call ambulance if don’t respond to Tx or if= prolonged or recurrent Tx given; high risk of recurrence (Hx of status epilepticus or repeated seizures); difficulty monitoring condition; 1st seizure
  • arrange for specialist review to consider buccal midazolam
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339
Q

Mx for pt with epilepsy having a focal seizure eg. unusual movements or behaviour, wandering?

A
  • protect them from injury= remove harmful objects or if not possible remove pt from immediate danger
  • do not restrain
  • observe until fully recovered- do not give anything to eat or drink until fully recovered
  • reassure and explain
  • examine for injury
  • if 1st seizure, >5mins or need urgent medical attention then emergency admission
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340
Q

Tx in epilepsy for pt having seizure >5mins or recurrent seizure without recovery in between or >3 in 1hr?

A

community= buccal midazolam; (2nd line: rectal diazepam)

hospital= IV lorazepam

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341
Q

Advise for women with epilepsy taking lamotrigine?

A

Oestrogen-containing contraceptives may reduce the effectiveness of lamotrigine because of a reduction in circulating lamotrigine levels which may result in increased seizure activity.

Progestogen-only contraceptives can be used without restriction, but the woman should report any symptoms or signs of lamotrigine toxicity.

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342
Q

What antieplieptic should not be given to women of child-bearing age/sexually active?

A

valproate
topiramate

contraceptive advice should be given to women and girls before they become sexually active

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343
Q

What conditions are associated with epilepsy?

A

cerebral palsy (30% have epilepsy)

tuberous sclerosis

mitochondrial disease

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344
Q

Causes of seizures?

A

infection
trauma
metabolic disturbance
epilepsy
febrile convulsions
alcohol withdrawl
psychogenic non-epileptic seizures

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345
Q

Summary of febrile convulsions?

A

6m-5yrs

usually early in a viral infection as temp rises

brief and generalised tonic/tonic-clonic

3% of all children will have at least 1

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346
Q

When does alcohol withdrawl seizures occur?

A

when pt with history of alcohol XS suddenly stops drinking eg. admitted to hospital

around 36hrs after cessation of drinking

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347
Q

What is usually given to pts with history of alcohol XS following cessation of drinking to reduce risk of withdrawl seizures?

A

benzodiazepines

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348
Q

Pathophysiology behind seizures following alcohol withdrawl?

A

chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA mediated inhibition in the CNS (similar to benzodiazepines) and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors.Alcohol withdrawal is thought to be lead to the opposite (decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission)

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349
Q

Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures / psuedoseizures?

A

pts who present with epileptic like seizures but do not have characteristic electrical discharges

may have Hx of mental health problems or personality disorder

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350
Q

Classification of seizures?

A

1) where seizure begin in brain
2) level of awareness during seizure (can affect safety)
3) other features

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351
Q

Focal seizures (partial seizures) start where?

A

in a specific area, on one side of the brain

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352
Q

Level of awareness in focal seizures?

A

can vary

focal aware; focal impaired awareness and awareness unknown

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353
Q

How to classify focal seizures?

A

where in the brain they start

awareness

motor, non-motor or other features eg. aura

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354
Q

Are focal seizures motor?

A

can be motor eg. Jacksonian march; non motor eg. deja vu, jamais vu; or other features eg. aura

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355
Q

Jacksonian march typically in what seizure type?

A

focal

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356
Q

Generalised seizures involve what area of brain?

A

networks on both sides of the brain at the onset

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357
Q

Awareness in generalised seizures?

A

consciousness lost immediatley

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358
Q

Are generalised seizures motor?

A

motor eg. tonic clonic and non-motor eg. absence

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359
Q

Specific types of generalised seizure?

A
  • tonic-clonic (grand mal)
  • tonic
  • clonic
  • typical absence (petit mal)
  • myoclonic= brief rapid muscle jerks
  • atonic
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360
Q

Seizure: brief rapid muscle jerks?

A

myoclonic

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361
Q

Seizure of unknown onset?

A

when origin of seizure is unknown

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362
Q

Focal to bilateral seizure?

A

starts on one side of brain in specific area before spreading to both lobes

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363
Q

Special forms of epilepsy in children?

A
  • infantile spasms (West’s syndrome)
  • Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
  • Benign rolandic epilepsy
  • Juvenile mycoclonic epilepsy (Janz syndrome)
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364
Q

Infantile spasms (West’s syndrome)?

A

Brief spasms beginning in first few months of life

  1. Flexion of head, trunk, limbs → extension of arms (Salaam attack); last 1-2 secs, repeat up to 50 times
  2. Progressive mental handicap
  3. EEG: hypsarrhythmia
    usually 2nd to serious neurological abnormality (e.g. TS, encephalitis, birth asphyxia) or may be cryptogenic

poor prognosis

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365
Q

Lennox-Gastaut syndrome?

A

Special form of epilepsy in children.

May be extension of infantile spasms (50% have hx)

onset 1-5 yrs

atypical absences, falls, jerks

90% moderate-severe mental handicap

EEG: slow spike

ketogenic diet may help

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366
Q

Benign rolandic epilepsy?

A

paraesthesia (e.g. unilateral face), seizures characteristically occur at night in children

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367
Q

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (Janz syndrome)?

A

Typical onset in the teens, more common in girls

  1. Infrequent generalized seizures, often in morning eg. after poor night sleep
  2. Daytime absences
  3. Sudden, shock-like myoclonic seizure

usually good response to sodium valproate

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368
Q

Postictal phase following seizure?

A

feel drowsy and tired for around 15mins

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369
Q

Ix for epilepsy?

A

EEG and MRI

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370
Q

Most neurologists start antiepileptics when?

A

following a second epileptic seizure

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371
Q

Why do we prescribe antiepileptics by brand rather than generically?

A

due to risk of slightly different bioavailability resulting in a lower seizure threshold

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372
Q

What are important things to think about when starting Mx for epilepsy?

A
  • pts who drive
  • pts taking other meds eg. warfarin
  • women wishing to get pregnant
  • women taking contraception due to possible interactions
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373
Q

Pts can’t drive for how long following seizure?

A

6m

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374
Q

Pts with established epilepsy must be fit free for how long before able to drive?

A

12m

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375
Q

What meds are important to look for before starting pt on antiepileptic?

A

can induce/inhibit the P450 system resulting in varied metabolism of other meds eg. warfarin

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376
Q

Name 4 antiepileptics?

A

sodium valproate

carbamazepine

lamotrigine

phenytoin

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377
Q

MOA of sodium valproate?

A

increases GABA activity

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378
Q

Adverse effects for sodium valproate?

A

increased appetite and weight gain

alopecia: regrowth may be curly

P450 enzyme inhibitor
ataxia

tremor

hepatitis

pancreatitis

thrombocytopaenia

teratogenic (neural tube defects) - should not be used in females of a reproductive age

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379
Q

Why is sodium valproate teratogenic?

A

can cause neural tube defects

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380
Q

MOA of carbamazepine?

A

binds to sodium channels increasing their refractory period

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381
Q

Adverse effects of carbamazepine (antiepileptic)?

A

P450 enzyme inducer

dizziness and ataxia

drowsiness

leucopenia and agranulocytosis

syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

visual disturbances (especially diplopia)

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382
Q

MOA of lamotrigine?

A

sodium channel blocker

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383
Q

Adverse effect of lamotrigine?

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

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384
Q

MOA of phenytoin?

A

binds to sodium channels increasing their refractory period

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385
Q

Adverse effects of phenytoin?

A

no longer used 1st line due to side effect profile

P450 enzyme inducer

dizziness and ataxia

drowsiness

gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features

megaloblastic anaemia

peripheral neuropathy

enhanced vitamin D
metabolism causing osteomalacia

lymphadenopathy

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386
Q

What antiepileptics are P450 enzyme inducers and inhibitors?

A

Inhibitors= sodium valproate

Inducers= phenytoin, carbamazepine

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387
Q

Most seizures terminate spontaneously, but if don’t terminate after how long it is appropriate to administer medication?

A

5-10mins

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388
Q

What class of medication can be used as a ‘rescue med’ to terminate seizures lasting >5mins that can be given to family members?

A

benzodiazepines

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389
Q

Contraception whilst on antiepileptics?

A

consistent use of condoms + other method

If a COCP is chosen then it should contain a minimum of 30 µg of ethinylestradiol.

For women taking phenytoin,carbamazepine, barbiturates, primidone, topiramate, oxcarbazepine:
UKMEC 3: the COCP and POP
UKMEC 2: implant
UKMEC 1: Depo-Provera, IUD, IUS

For lamotrigine:
UKMEC 3: the COCP
UKMEC 1: POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, IUS

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390
Q

Focal seizure= head/leg movements, posturing, post-ictal weakness, Jacksonian march?

A

frontal lobe (motor) focal seizure

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391
Q

Focal seizure= paraesthesia?

A

parietal lobe (sensory) focal seizure

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392
Q

Focal seizure= floaters/flashes?

A

occipital lobe (visual)

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393
Q

Focal seizures= rising epigastric sensation, deja vu and lip smacking?

A

temporal lobe

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394
Q

Signs and symptoms of temporal lobe focal seizure?

A

May occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness

An aura occurs in most patients
typically a rising epigastric sensation
also psychic or experiential phenomena, such as dejà vu, jamais vu
less commonly hallucinations (auditory/gustatory/olfactory)

Seizures typically last around one minute

automatisms (e.g. lip smacking/grabbing/plucking) are common

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395
Q

All women thinking about becoming pregnant and they have epilepsy should take what?

A

folic acid 5mg a day well before pregnancy to reduce risk of neural tube defects

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396
Q

Uncontrolled epilepsy during pregnancy?

A

The risks of uncontrolled epilepsy during pregnancy generally outweigh the risks of medication to the fetus

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397
Q

Antiepileptics in pregnancy?

A

aim for monotherapy

there is no indication to monitor antiepileptic drug levels

sodium valproate: associated with neural tube defects

carbamazepine: often considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics

phenytoin: associated with cleft palate

lamotrigine: studies to date suggest the rate of
congenital malformations may be low. The dose of lamotrigine may need to be increased in pregnancy

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398
Q

Is breast feeding safe if mother takes antiepileptics?

A

yes but with the exception of the barbiturates

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399
Q

Pregnant women taking phenytoin are given what in the last month of pregnancy?

A

vit K to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn

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400
Q

Antiepileptics should be started after the first seizure if any of the following are present…

A
  • pt have neuro deficit
  • brain imaging shows structural abnormality
  • EEG shows unequivocal epileptic activity
  • pt or family consider risk of further seizure unacceptable
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401
Q

Maternal use of sodium valporate is associated with what?

A

significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children and neural tube defects

DO NOT USE in preg or women of childbearing age unless necessary

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402
Q

Drug Tx in epilepsy: generalised tonic-clonic seizures?

A

males: sodium valproate

females: lamotrigine or levetiracetam

girls aged under 10 years and who are unlikely to need treatment when they are old enough to have children or women who are unable to have children may be offered sodium valproate first-line

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403
Q

Drug Tx in epilepsy: focal seizures?

A

first line: lamotrigine or levetiracetam

second line: carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine or zonisamide

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404
Q

Drug Tx in epilepsy: absence seziures (Petit mal)?

A

first line: ethosuximide

second line:
male: sodium valproate
female: lamotrigine or levetiracetam

carbamazepine may exacerbate absence seizures

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405
Q

What antiepileptic may exacerbate absence seizures?

A

carbamazepine so avoid in absence

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406
Q

Drug Tx in epilepsy: myoclonic seizures?

A

males: sodium valproate

females: levetiracetam

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407
Q

Drug Tx in epilepsy: tonic or atonic?

A

males: sodium valproate

females: lamotrigine

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408
Q

Essential tremor (benign essential tremor)?

A

autosomal dominant condition which usually affects both upper and lower limbs

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409
Q

Features of essential tremor?

A

postural tremor: worse if arms outstretched

improved by alcohol and rest

most common cause of titubation (head tremor)

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410
Q

Mx for essential tremor?

A

1st line= propranolol

primidone sometimes used

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411
Q

Type of tremor in essential tremor?

A

postural tremor: worse if arms outstretched/intention movement

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412
Q

What improves essential tremor?

A

alcohol and rest

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413
Q

Febrile seizure (febrile convulsion)?

A

seizure accompanied by fever (temp >38) without CNS infection, infants and children aged 6m-5yrs

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414
Q

Type of seizure in simple febrile convulsion?

A

isolated generalised tonic-clinic seizures lasting <15mins that do not recur within 24hrs or within the same febrile illness, with complete recovery within 1hr

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415
Q

Features of complex febrile convulsion?

A

1 or more of:
- partial (focal) seizure (movement limited to 1 side of body or one limb)
- >15mins
- recurrence within 24hrs or within same febrile illness
- incomplete recovery within 1hr

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416
Q

Risk of recurrent seizures in a child following first febrile convulsion?

A

1/3

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417
Q

‘Complex’ febrile convulsion vs epilepsy?

A

FC complex= seizure >15mins complex

Febrile status epilepticus= >30mins

Epilepsy= >5mins is status epilepticus

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418
Q

Assessment of child with suspect febrile convulsions?

A
  • red flags
  • serious cause ? meningitis/meningococcal disease or encephalitis
  • underlying cause of fever
  • fever onset, peak temp, duration and relationship to seizure
  • seizure and any post ictal drowsiness
  • previous episodes and FHx of FC or epilepsy
  • child’s temp, consciousness level, focal neuro deficit, fluid status, signs of alternative cause
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419
Q

Febrile convulsions: when should immediate hospital assessment by paediatrican be arranged?

A
  • for first febrile seizure
  • <18m age
  • complex febrile seizure
  • uncertainty
  • unexplained fever
  • focal neuro deficit, recent Abx use or parental anxiety
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420
Q

Refer to paeds/paeds neurologist should be arranged if child has febrile convulsion and…

A

has neurodevelopmenta delay and/or signs of neurocutaneous syndrome or metabolic disorder

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421
Q

Advice to parent/carer of child with Hx of febrile seizures?

A
  • generally benign
  • info and support
  • prompt recognition and Mx of future seizures

-prophylactic antiepileptics or antipyretics NOT routinely prescribed unless speicalist advises

  • ensure complete all childhood immunisations
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422
Q

What happens during febrile convulsion?

A

usually <5mins, rarely >10mins

eneralized tonic-clonic type (muscle stiffening followed by rhythmical jerking or shaking of the limbs, which may be asymmetrical); twitching of the face, rolling back of the eyes, staring and losing consciousness.

May be foaming at the mouth, difficulty breathing, pallor, or cyanosis.

A brief post-ictal period of drowsiness, irritability, or confusion, with complete recovery within 1 hour.

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423
Q

Fever in febrile convulsions may occur when?

A

any time during or after a seizure

majority febrile seizures occur within 24hrs of fever onset

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424
Q

Febrile convulsions differential diagnosis?

A
  • CNS infection= bacterial or viral meningitis or encephalitis
  • rigors or delirium (acute confusional state)
  • shivering (may occur with or without fever)
  • febrile myoclonus
  • syncope
  • breath-holding spells or reflex anoxic seizures
  • head injury
  • hypoglycaemia or metabolic disorders eg. mitochondrial cytopathy
  • drug withdrawl or use
  • epilepsy
  • epilsepy syndromes eg. Dravet syndrome (severe myoclonic epilepsy of infancy); Genetic epilepsy with febrile seizures plus (GEFS+)
  • other neuro conditions eg. cerebral palsy; Sturge-Weber syndrome; tuberous sclerosis; neurofibromatosis
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425
Q

Febrile myoclonus?

A

a benign disorder causing myoclonic jerks usually involving the upper limbs during fever. They may last from 15 minutes to several hours.

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426
Q

Breath-holding spells or reflex anoxic seizures?

A

brief, involuntary cessation of breathing often triggered by sudden, unexpected fright, fear, or pain. May present with pallor or cyanosis and low tone, with possible loss of consciousness and transient tonic clonic movements if the apnoea is prolonged.

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427
Q

Acute Mx for febrile convulsions?

A
  • monitor duration
  • protect from injury= cushion head, remove harmful objects from nearby
  • do not restrain child
  • once stopped, put on side in recovery position
  • observe until recovered
  • don’t give food or drink until fully recovered
  • check for injuries
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428
Q

Acute Mx for febrile convulsions if tonic-clonic movements last for >5mins?

A
  • call ambulance or
  • give emergency benzo rescue med if advised by specialist= buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam
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429
Q

Is the intermittent use of antipyretics eg. paracetamol and/or ibuprofen at onset of fever advised to prevent febrile convulsions?

A

not recommended as does not reduce or prevent febrile seizure recurrence

only give to reduce fever if child uncomfortable or distressed and to prevent dehydration

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430
Q

Febrile convulsions typically occur in children of what age?

A

6m-5yrs

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431
Q

Simple vs complex febrile convulsion vs febrile status epilepticus?

A

simple= <15mins; generalised seizure; no recurrence within 24hrs; complete recovery within 1hr

complex= 15-30mins; focal seizure; may have repeat seizures within 24hrs

FSE= >30mins

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432
Q

Mx for febrile convulsions?

A

admit to paeds if 1st seizure or any features of complex seizure

phone ambulance if >5mins

recurrent= buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam

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433
Q

RFs for further seizures in febrile convulsions?

A

the overall risk of further febrile convulsion = 1 in 3.

  • age of onset < 18 months
  • fever < 39ºC
  • shorter duration of fever before the seizure
  • a family history of febrile convulsions
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434
Q

Febrile convulsions link to epilepsy?

A

risk factors for developing epilepsy include a family history of epilepsy, having complex febrile seizures and a background of neurodevelopmental disorder

children with no risk factors have a 2.5% risk of
developing epilepsy

if children have all 3 features the risk of developing epilepsy is much higher (e.g. 50%)

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435
Q

Migraine?

A

common primary headache disorder characterised by attacks of moderate or severe headache and associated symptoms eg. photophobia, phonophobia, nausea, vomiting

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436
Q

Migraine features?

A
  • unilateral headache, pulsating or throbbing
  • lasts 4-72hrs
  • photophobia, phonophobia, N & V
  • with or without aura
  • episodic or chronic
  • aggravated by or cause avoidance of routine activities of daily life eg. walking
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437
Q

Aura in migraine?

A

transient focal neuro symptoms eg. visual: fortification spectra and/or scotoma, speach disturbance or sensory symptoms: paraesthesia

usually precede or accompany the headache

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438
Q

Episodic migraine?

A

migraine occurs on fewer than 15d per m

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439
Q

Chronic migraine?

A

headache occurring at least 15d per m (features of headache on at least 8d per m) for more than 3m

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440
Q

Migraine more common in women or men?

A

women

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441
Q

Prognosis of migraine?

A

usually improves with increasing age

pregnancy= improvement in freq and severity of attacks

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442
Q

What may be useful to do to identify potential triggers and monitor effectiveness of Tx in migraines?

A

headache diary

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443
Q

Triggers of migraine?

A

Cheese
Chocolate
Oral contraceptive pill
Caffiene
Alcohol
Anxiety
Travel
Exercise
Stress
Dehydration
Missed meals
Disturbed sleep

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444
Q

Mx of acute migraines?

A
  • trigger avoidance and lifestyle changes: hydration, sleep, stress Mx, exercise, regular meals
  • headache diary
  • simple analgesia: paracetamol, NSAIDs
  • triptan
  • NSAID + triptan
  • may add anti-emetic (prochlorperazine or metoclopramide) even in absence of N or V
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445
Q

Preventative Tx of migraine if not pregnant or breastfeeding?

A

propranolol (80-160mg daily divided doses)

or topiramate (50-100mg daily in divided doses- CONTRAINDICATED in PREG)

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446
Q

When may preventative Tx be needed for migraines?

A
  • frequent or prolonged and severe despite acute Tx
  • risk of medication overuse headache

do NOT initiate in primary care if child, pregnant or breastfeeding

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447
Q

Admission or referral is indicated for migraines when?

A
  • serious cause suspected
  • severe, uncontrolled status migrainosus (>72hrs)
  • Cx has developed
  • atypical symptoms
  • uncertain
  • Tx failed
  • considering preventative Tx in children or pregnant/breastfeeding
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448
Q

How long does the headache of migraines last?

A

4-72hrs adults
2-72hrs adolescents

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449
Q

Migraine is a headache with what?

A

at least 2 of:
- unilateral (bilateral in children)
- pulsating, throbbing or banging
- moderate/severe pain
- aggravated by routine ADLs eg. walking, climbing stairs

Headache with associated symptoms, at least one of:
- N +/or V
- photophobia and phonophobia

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450
Q

Migraine without aura can be diagnosed in pt with what? (diagnostic criteria)

A

at least 5 attacks fulfilling criteria:
- lasts 4-72hrs

at least 2 of:
- unilateral (bilateral in children)
- pulsating, throbbing or banging
- moderate/severe pain
- aggravated by routine ADLs eg. walking, climbing stairs

Headache with associated symptoms, at least one of:
- N +/or V
- photophobia and phonophobia

Not attributed to another disorder

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451
Q

Headache with aura can be diagnosed in pt with what? (diagnostic criteria)

A

at least 2 attacks fulfilling criteria:

1 or more fully reversible aura symptoms:
- visual (most common)= fortification spectra
- sensory= unilateral paraesthesia or numbness
- speach/language= dysphasia

at least 3 of:
- at least 1 aura symptoms spreads gradually over at least 5 mins
- 2+ aura occur in succession
- each aura symptom lasts 5-60mins
- one aura symptom unilateral
- one aura symptom is positive (eg. scintillations or paraesthesia)
- aura accompanied or followed within 60mins by headache

Not attributed to another disorder

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452
Q

Aura in migraines types?

A
  • visual (most common)= fortification spectra
  • sensory= unilateral paraesthesia or numbness
  • speach/language= dysphasia
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453
Q

Aura in migraine features?

A

at least 2 attacks fulfilling criteria:

1 or more fully reversible aura symptoms:
- visual (most common)= fortification spectra
- sensory= unilateral paraesthesia or numbness
- speach/language= dysphasia

at least 3 of:
- at least 1 aura symptoms spreads gradually over at least 5 mins
- 2+ aura occur in succession
- each aura symptom lasts 5-60mins
- one aura symptom unilateral
- one aura symptom is positive (eg. scintillations or paraesthesia)
- aura accompanied or followed within 60mins by headache

Not attributed to another disorder

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454
Q

Atypical aura in migraine?

A
  • motor, brainstem or retinal aura
  • admission or urgent specialist advice for atypical aura= motor weakness, double vision, vision symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, decreased level of consciousness
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455
Q

Migraine: aura without headache?

A

can occur particularly in older people.

The absence of headache makes the exclusion of other causes (such as transient ischaemic attack) difficult.

Ix is often indicated, especially if aura without migraine headache occurs for the first time after 40 years of age and symptoms are exclusively negative (for example, hemianopia) or if aura is prolonged or very short.

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456
Q

Prodromal and postdromal symptoms of migraine?

A
  • prodromal= fatigue, poor conc, neck stiffness, yawning; may occur hrs or 1-2d before onset of other migraine symptoms
  • postdromal= fatigue, elevated or depressed mood; may occur after resolution of headache and last up to 48hrs
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457
Q

Suspect mestrual-related migraine in who?

A

Women/girls with migraine occurring predominantly between 2 days before and 3 days after the start of menstruation for at least 2 out of 3 consecutive menstrual cycles.

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458
Q

Types of migraine? (7)

A
  • episodic or chonic
  • with aura
  • without aura
  • atypical aura
  • aura without headache
  • ?prodromal and postdromal symptoms
  • mentrual-related migraine
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459
Q

Migraine differential diagnosis?

A
  • tension type headache
  • trigeminal autonomic cephaligias eg. cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicranias
  • other primary headache disorders: primary cough headache, cold-stimulus headache
  • trauma or injury to head/neck
  • intracerebral haemorrhage
  • central venous thrombosis
  • GCA
  • TIA
  • idiopathic intracranial HTN
  • cerebral neoplasm
  • exposure or withdrawl from CO, alcohol, cocaine
  • infection: meningitis, encephalitis
  • hypoxia, HTN, pre-eclampsia
  • somatisation disorder
  • trigeminal neuralgia
  • post-herpetic neuralgia
  • optic neuritis
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460
Q

Medication overuse headache (MOH) common in people with what?

A

migraine

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461
Q

How to avoid medication overuse headache?

A

restrict acute medication to max of 2d per week

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462
Q

When can medication overuse headache (MOH) occur?

A

with 15 or more days per month use of simple analgesics (such as aspirin, ibuprofen and paracetamol) or 10 or more days use per month of triptans or combination analgesics.

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463
Q

How to manage medication overuse headache?

A

advise abrupt cessation of all overused simple analgesics and triptans for at least 1 month, and explain the potential for headache symptoms to worsen in the short term before they improve.

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464
Q

Ensure women who have migraine with aura are not using what?

A

COCP

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465
Q

Medication for migraines?

A
  • ibuprofen (400mg) or paracetamol (1000mg)

or

  • triptan= sumatriptan oral 50-100mg

or

  • triptan + NSAID with long half life (naproxen)

condisider:
+ metoclopramide 10mg or prochlorperazine 10mg even in absence N&V

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466
Q

Advise for pt taking medication for migraine?

A

Acute medication should be taken early while pain is mild.

If they have aura, triptans should be taken at the start of the headache and not at the start of the aura (unless the aura and headache start simultaneously).

Treatments which have not been effective 2 hours after use are unlikely to be effective for treating the attack, in such cases higher doses, where appropriate, or alternative simple analgesics or combination treatments should be considered.

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467
Q

Can u offer opioids for migraine?

A

NO

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468
Q

Follow up for pt with migraine?

A

2-8w after starting Tx

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469
Q

Consider what Tx to prevent menstrual-related migraine?

A

Frovatriptan (2.5 mg twice daily) on the days migraine is expected or from two days before until three days after bleeding starts.

Zolmitriptan (2.5 mg twice or three times daily) on the days migraine is expected or from two days before until three days after bleeding starts.

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470
Q

Tx for migraine in children?

A
  • NSAIDs or paracetamol
  • NOT ASPIRIN
  • nasal triptans if uneffective as oral contraindicated in <18yrs
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471
Q

Tx for migraines in pregnant or breastfeeding women?

A

paracetamol 1st line

consider ibuprofen if <20w gestation

sumatriptan but seek specialist advice if unsure

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472
Q

Why should NSAIDs be avoided after 20w gestational age in pregnant women (eg. for migraine Mx)?

A

risk of premature closure of ductus arteriosus and oligohydramnios

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473
Q

Primary headache?

A

not associated with an underlying condition, includes migraine, tension-type headache, and trigeminal autonomic cephalgias (including cluster headache).

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474
Q

Secondary headache?

A

precipitated by another condition or disorder (local or systemic), such as head or neck trauma; cranial or cervical vascular disorders including stroke and temporal arteritis; central nervous system (CNS) malignancy; exposure to or withdrawal from a substance including medication overuse headache; infection (intracranial or systemic); disorders of facial or cranial structures, such as the eyes, ears, sinuses, or teeth; and psychiatric disorders.

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475
Q

Categorisation of headaches?

A

1) primary

2) secondary

3) Painful cranial neuropathies, other facial pains, and other headaches including trigeminal neuralgia and post-herpetic neuralgia.

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476
Q

Red flags in headaches?

A
  • new severe or unexpected headache= thunderclap reaching max intensity within 5mins may be subarachnoid haermorrhae
  • progressive or persitent headache, or changed dramatically
  • new onset headache in pt >50= temporal arteritis or space occupying lesion
  • associated features= neck pain/stiffness; fever; impaired consciousness; papilloedema; new onset focal neuro deficit; atypical aura; dizziness; V; visual disturbances
  • contacts with similar symptoms eg. CO poisoning
  • precipitating factors eg. recent trauma; triggered by valsalva maneouvre; worse on standing; worse lying down
  • immunocompromised
  • malignancy
  • current or recent preg= ?pre-eclampsia
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477
Q

Diagnostic criteria for headaches?

A

ICHD

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478
Q

Diagnostic criteria for tension-type headache?

A

Recurrent episodes of headache lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days which are not associated with nausea or vomiting. The headache may also be associated with no more than one of photophobia or phonophobia, and

The headache has at least two of:
- Bilateral location.
- Pressing, tightening, non-pulsating quality.
- Mild or moderate intensity.
- Not aggravated by routine physical activity (such as walking or climbing stairs).

Not attributed to another disorder

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479
Q

Diagnostic criteria for cluster headache?

A

At least five attacks of severe or very severe unilateral orbital, supraorbital, and/or temporal pain lasting 15–180 minutes (untreated), and

The headache is associated with a sense of restlessness or agitation and/or at least one of the following ipsilateral to the headache:
- Conjunctival injection and/or lacrimation.
- Nasal congestion and/or rhinorrhoea.
- Eyelid swelling.
- Forehead and facial sweating.
- Forehead and facial flushing.
- Sensation of fullness in the ear.
- Miosis (excessive pupillary constriction) and/or ptosis.

Attacks occur between one every other day and eight per day for more than half of the time when the disorder is active. Note: the British Association for the Study of Headache (BASH) guideline states a frequency of 1–3 attacks per day (up to 8) and usually occur daily for 2–3 months at a time

Not attributed to another disorder

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480
Q

Diagnostic criteria for medication overuse headache?

A

Headache occurring on at least 15 days per month for at least 3 months, with a pre-existing headache disorder (typically a predisposition to migraine and/or tension-type headache).

Regularly overused, for more than 3 months, one or more drugs that can be taken for acute and/or symptomatic treatment of headache such as ergotamines, triptans, simple analgesics, or opioids.

The BASH guideline states ergotamines, triptans, combination analgesics, or opioids taken on 10 or more days per month, or 15 days for simple analgesics such as paracetamol, aspirin, or a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), for more than 3 months

Not attributed to another disorder

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481
Q

Headache triggered by Valsalva manoeuvre eg. coughing, sneezing, bending, exertion?

A

consider a Chiari malformation type 1 (a herniation of the cerebellar tonsils), a posterior fossa lesion, or other space-occupying lesions.

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482
Q

Headache worsens on standing?

A

?CSF leak

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483
Q

Headache worsens on lying down?

A

consider a space-occupying lesion or cerebral venous sinus thrombosis.

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484
Q

Headache preceding recent head trauma (within past 3m)?

A

consider subacute or chronic subdural haematoma.

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485
Q

Patients characteristically do what when they experience migraine?

A

go to dark quiet room

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486
Q

Summary of typical aura in migraine?

A

are visual, progressive, last 5-60 minutes and are characterised by transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma

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487
Q

Hemiplegic migraine?

A

a variant of migraine in which motor weakness is a manifestation of aura in at least some attacks

around half of patients have a strong family history

very rare - estimated prevalence is 0.01% (i.e. around only 1 in 1,000 migraine patients), more common in adolescent females

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488
Q

How are migraines typically different in children?

A

commonly bilateral, shorter lasting, GI disturbance more prominent

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489
Q

Migraine: auras may occur with or without headache and…

A

1) are fully reversible
2) develop over at least 5 minutes
3) last 5-60 minutes

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490
Q

Migraine with motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, decreased level of consciousness?

A

aura symptoms are atypical and may prompt further investigation/referral

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491
Q

Why should caution be used when prescribing metoclopramide to young pts with migraines?

A

as acute dystonic reactions may develop

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492
Q

General rule for migraine Tx? (in terms of drug class used)

A

5-HT receptor agonists are used in the acute treatment of migraine whilst 5-HT receptor antagonists are used in prophylaxis.

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493
Q

1st line Tx of acute migraine?

A

oral triptan and NSAID

nasal triptan if 12-17yrs

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494
Q

Motor neurone disease?

A

neuro condition of unknown cause which can present with both UMN and LMN signs

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495
Q

Age MND commonly presents?

A

rare before 40yrs

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496
Q

Patterns of MND?

A
  • amytrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) (50% pts)
  • progressive muscular atrophy
  • progressive bulbar palsy
  • primary lateral sclerosis

sometimes a combination of patterns in pts

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497
Q

Features of MND?

A
  • LMN AND UMN signs
  • asymmetric limb weakness
  • fasiculations
  • wasting of small hand muscles/tibialis anterior
  • absence of sensory signs/symptoms= vague sensory symptoms may occur early in disease (eg. limb pain) but never sensory signs
  • does not affect external ocular muscles
  • no cerebellar signs
  • abdominal reflexes usually preserved and sphincter dysfunction if present is late feature
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498
Q

What is not affected in MND?

A
  • absence of sensory signs/symptoms= vague sensory symptoms may occur early in disease (eg. limb pain) but never sensory signs
  • does not affect external ocular muscles
  • no cerebellar signs
  • abdominal reflexes usually preserved and sphincter dysfunction if present is late feature
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499
Q

LMN and UMN signs, fasiculations, asymmetric limb weakness and wasting of tibialis anterior/small hand muscles?

A

MND

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500
Q

most common presentation of ALS (MND)?

A

asymmetric limb weakness

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501
Q

Motor neurones affected in MND?

A

UMN AND LMN

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502
Q

Diagnosis of MND?

A
  • clinical
  • nerve conduction studies show normal motor conduction and exclude neuropathy
  • Electromyography= reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude
  • MRI= excludes cervical cord compression and myelopathy
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503
Q

What does electromyography in MND show?

A

reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude

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504
Q

Mx of MND?

A
  • Riluzole
  • non-invasive ventilation (BIPAP) at night (survival benefit of 7m)
  • PEG tube to support nutrition
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505
Q

Prognosis for MND?

A

poor, 50% die within 3yrs

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506
Q

What does PEG tube stand for?

A

percutaneous gastrostomy tube

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507
Q

Riluzole for MND?

A

prevents stimulation of glutamate receptors

used mainly in ALS

prolongs life by about 3m

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508
Q

Drug used in MND?

A

riluzole

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509
Q

MND types: what does ALS stand for?

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

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510
Q

Most common type of MND?

A

ALS

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511
Q

MND types: amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?

A

typically LMN signs in arms and UMN signs in legs

in familial cases the gene responsible lies on chromosome 21 and codes for superoxide dismutase

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512
Q

MND types: primary lateral sclerosis?

A

UMN signs only

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513
Q

MND types: progressive muscular atrophy?

A

LMN signs only

affects distal muscles before proximal

carries best prognosis

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514
Q

MND types: progressive bulbar palsy?

A

palsy of the tongue, muscles of chewing/swallowing and facial muscles due to loss of function of brainstem motor nuclei

carries worst prognosis

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515
Q

What type of MND has worst prognosis?

A

progressive bulbar palsy

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516
Q

What type of MND has best prognosis?

A

progressive muscular atrophy

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517
Q

What type of MND has typically LMN signs in arms and UMN signs in legs?

A

ALS

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518
Q

What type of MND has UMN signs only?

A

primary lateral sclerosis

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519
Q

What type of MND has LMN signs only and affects distal muscles before proximal?

A

progressive muscular atrophy

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520
Q

Multiple sclerosis (MS)?

A

acquired immune-mediated inflam condition of the CNS resulting in areas of demyelination, gliosis and secondary neuronal damage throughout the CNS

lesions disseminated in time and space

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521
Q

When does MS first develop?

A

young adults

most common non-traumatic cause of signif neuro disability in people <40yrs

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522
Q

3 Main patterns of disease in MS?

A
  • relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS)
  • secondary progressive MS (SPMS)
  • primary progressive MS (PPMS)
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523
Q

Most common pattern of MS?

A

relapsing remitting

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524
Q

MS disease patterns: relapsing-remitting?

A

Episodes of symptoms (relapses) are followed by recovery (remissions) and periods of stability. Typically, after several relapses residual damage to parts of the CNS remains resulting in only partial recovery during remissions.

most common pattern.

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525
Q

MS disease patterns: secondary progressive?

A

occurs when there is a gradual accumulation of disability unrelated to relapses, which become less frequent or stop completely. About two thirds of people with RRMS progress to SPMS.

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526
Q

MS disease patterns: primary progressive?

A

in PPMS there is a steady gradual worsening of the disease from the onset, without remissions. This occurs in about 10–15% of people with MS.

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527
Q

Cause of MS?

A

unknown

though that acute then chronic immune-mediated inflammation is precipitated by an abnormal response to environmental triggers in people who are genetically predisposed.

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528
Q

RFs that may contribute to MS development?

A

genetic factors, vitamin D deficiency, infection, geographical location (extremes of latitude), smoking, obesity during adolescence, and female gender.

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529
Q

4 most common presentations of MS?

A

1) optic neuritis
2) transverse myelitis
3) cerebellar-related symptoms
4) brainstem syndromes

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530
Q

History of relapsing remitting MS?

A

unpredictable
severity and freq of relapses vary greatly, can take time to progress to SPMS and to signif permanent diability

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531
Q

What may reduce the number and severity of relapses and delay disability progression in MS?

A

disease-modifying therapies (DMTs)

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532
Q

Ix if suspect MS?

A
  • prompt referral to neuro consultant
  • bloods to exclude alternative cause
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533
Q

What to do if pt with MS is suspected of having a relapse?

A
  • rule out infection: UTI and resp
  • fluctuations in disease, progression and other conditions unrelated to MS that may present with similar features should be considered
  • contact MS team to discuss Mx
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534
Q

Mx of MS relapse?

A

oral methylprednisolone 0.5g daily for 5d

may shorten the length and severity of relapse

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535
Q

How often should pt with MS be reviewed in secondary care?

A

at least once per yr

536
Q

Cx of MS?

A

fatigue, spasticity, ataxia, tremor, mobility problems, visual problems, pain, bladder problems, sexual problems, and mental health problems

537
Q

Where do MS lesions develop?

A

almost anywhere in CNS so can get various Cx

538
Q

Age MS typically presents?

A

20-50yrs

older age at onset is associated with progressive course

539
Q

How long may MS symptoms last?

A

may evolve over more than 24hrs, may persist over several days or weeks then improve

540
Q

Optic neuritis in MS?

A

partial or total unilateral visual loss developing over a few days, pain behind the eye (in particular on eye movement) and/or loss of colour discrimination (particularly reds)

541
Q

Bilateral optic neuritis in MS?

A

may occur but if it does need to rule out neuromyelitis optica which needs urgent Tx and is confused with MS

542
Q

Examination of optic neuritis in MS?

A

Fundoscopy is often normal but the disc may appear pale or swollen. There may be paradoxical dilation of the pupil when light is rapidly shifted from the unaffected eye to the affected eye (relative afferent pupillary defect).

543
Q

What is transverse myelitis in MS?

A

focal inflam within spinal cord

544
Q

How may transverse myelitis present in MS?

A

sensory symptoms (such as paraesthesia) or motor symptoms (such as weakness) below the level of the inflammation that typically develop over hours or days.

Some people describe a tight band sensation around the trunk at the level of the inflammation, or a shock-like sensation radiating down the spine induced by neck flexion (Lhermitte’s phenomena).

There may be urinary symptoms such as urgency, frequency, or retention.

symmetrical or asymmetrical= reflect a partial myelitis that only affects part of spinal cord; full spinal cord transection affected is rare

545
Q

What may examination reveal in pt with MS with transverse myelitis?

A

focal muscle weakness and reduced sensation below the affected spinal level. Muscle tone is initially reduced.

546
Q

Cerebellar-related symptoms in MS?

A

ataxia, vertigo, clumsiness, and dysmetria (as demonstrated by abnormalities with finger-to-nose testing and walking heel to toe).

547
Q

Brainstem syndromes in MS?

A

Ataxia.

Eye movement abnormalities that can cause diplopia, oscillopsia (a sensation of movement of the vision), nystagmus, and internuclear ophthalmoplegia (inability to adduct one eye and nystagmus in the abducting eye on oculomotor examination).

Bulbar muscle problems resulting in dysarthria or dysphagia.

548
Q

Signs and symptoms of MS vary greatly and may include?

A

Loss or reduction of vision in one eye with painful eye movements.

Diplopia.

Ascending sensory disturbance and/or weakness.

Balance or gait problems, unsteadiness, or clumsiness.

Altered sensation radiating down the back and sometimes into the limbs on neck flexion (Lhermitte’s symptom).

549
Q

2 phenomenon in MS?

A

Uhthoff’s= worsening of symptoms when body’s core temp increases eg. hot shower, hot weather, exercise, fever, sauna

L’hermitte’s= shock like sensation radiating down spine induced by neck flexion

550
Q

Uhthoff’s phenomenon?

A

seen in MS

worsening of symptoms when body’s core temp increases eg. hot shower, hot weather, exercise, fever, sauna

551
Q

L’hermitte’s sign?

A

seen in MS

shock like sensation radiating down spine induced by neck flexion

552
Q

Criteria used to diagnose MS?

A

McDonald criteria

553
Q

Diagnosing MS?

A
  • Confirm that episodes are consistent with an inflammatory process.
  • Excluding alternative diagnoses.
  • Establishing that lesions have developed at different times and are in different anatomical locations for a diagnosis of relapsing-remitting MS.
  • Establishing progressive neurological deterioration over at least 1 year for a diagnosis of primary progressive MS.
554
Q

What type of disease is MS?

A

demyelinating

555
Q

Differential diagnosis for MS?

A
  • other demyelinating disease= neuromyelitis optica; idiopathic transverse myelitis; acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
  • Metabolic disorders= B12 def; diabetic peripheral neuropathy, hypocalcaemia, hypothyoridism; copper def; zinc toxicity; adult onset leukodystrophies
  • Infection= lyme disease; tertiary syphilis; HIV
  • Vascular= primary CNS vasculitis; ischaemic stroke
  • systemic inflam disorders= SLE; Behcet’s; sarcoidosis
  • neoplasia= primary or metastatic brain lesions; paraneoplastic syndromes
556
Q

MS in pregnancy?

A
  • relapse rates may reduce during preg and may increase 3-6m postpartum before back to normal
  • doesn’t increase risk of progression
  • vit D before conception and during preg
  • some DMTs contraindicated in preg and breastfeeding
  • UTI more frequent in preg
  • increased risk of postpartum depression
557
Q

When to consider hospital admission for MS relapse?

A
  • severe
  • DM or mental health needs monitoring
  • oral steroids failed
  • difficult to meet care needs
558
Q

Does pt with MS have supply of steroids at home to manage future relapses?

A

no
each relapse needs discussed with specialist team and may need change in therapy

559
Q

Info to tell pt with MS about relapses?

A

A relapse may have short-term effects on cognitive function.

Significant recovery can be expected within 2–3 months, but improvement can continue for up to 12 months.

Some residual disability occurs following 30–50% of all relapses, and is more likely to occur if the relapse is severe.

560
Q

Drug to manage spasticity in MS?

A

baclofen

also physio important

561
Q

Drug to manage oscillopsia (visual fields appear to oscillate) in MS?

A

gabapentin (off-label)

562
Q

Chronic cell-mediated autoimmune disorder characterised by demyleination in CNS?

A

MS

563
Q

Genetics in MS?

A

monozygotic twin concordance = 30%
dizygotic twin concordance = 2%

564
Q

How long do acute attacks typically last in relapsing-remitting MS?

A

1-2m

565
Q

around 65% of patients with relapsing-remitting MS go on to develop what within 15 years of diagnosis

A

secondary progressive disease

566
Q

Gait and bladder disorders generally seen in what type of MS?

A

Secondary progressive disease

567
Q

What type of MS is more common in older pts?

A

Primary progressive disease

568
Q

75% pts with MS have what symptom?

A

significant lethergy

569
Q

How can diagnosis of MS be made?

A

on the basis of two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion together with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.

570
Q

Visual features of MS?

A

optic neuritis: common presenting feature

optic atrophy

Uhthoff’s phenomenon: worsening of vision following rise in body temperature
internuclear (usually just worsening of fatigue, pain, vision, wekaness)

ophthalmoplegia

571
Q

Sensory features of MS?

A

pins/needles

numbness

trigeminal neuralgia

Lhermitte’s syndrome: paraesthesiae in limbs on neck flexion

572
Q

Motor features of MS?

A

spastic weakness: most commonly seen in the legs

573
Q

Cerebellar features of MS?

A

ataxia: more often seen during an acute relapse than as a presenting symptom

tremor

574
Q

Other features of MS?

A

urinary incontinence

sexual dysfunction

intellectual deterioration

575
Q

What does diagnosis of MS require?

A

demonstration of lesions disseminated in time and space

576
Q

Specialist Ix for MS?

A
  • MRI
  • CSF
  • Visual evoked potentials- delayed but well preserved waveform
577
Q

What does MRI in MS show?

A

high signal T2 lesions

periventricular plaques

Dawson fingers: often seen on FLAIR images - hyperintense lesions penpendicular to the corpus callosum

578
Q

MRI finding= Dawson fingers: often seen on FLAIR images - hyperintense lesions penpendicular to the corpus callosum?

A

MS

579
Q

What does CSF in MS show?

A

oligoclonal bands (and not in serum)

increased intrathecal synthesis of IgG

580
Q

Oligoclonal bands in CSF?

A

MS

581
Q

What does Tx of MS focus on?

A

reducing frequency and duration of relapses, there is no cure

582
Q

Acute relapse of MS Mx?

A

high dose steroids= oral or IV methylprednisolone 0.5g daily 5d to shorten length of relapse

don’t alter degree of recovery (whether pt returns to baseline)

583
Q

Indications for disease modifying drugs in MS?

A

relapsing-remitting disease + 2 relapses in past 2 years + able to walk 100m unaided

secondary progressive disease + 2 relapses in past 2 years + able to walk 10m (aided or unaided)

584
Q

Role of disease modifying drugs in MS?

A

reduce risk of relapse

585
Q

Drug used to reduce risk of relapse in MS?

A

natalizumab

586
Q

Natalizumab for MS?

A

a recombinant monoclonal antibody that antagonises alpha-4 beta-1-integrin found on the surface of leucocytes

inhibit migration of leucocytes across the endothelium across the blood-brain barrier

generally considered to have the strongest evidence base for preventing relapse of the disease-modifying and hence is often used first-line

given IV

587
Q

Summary of Mx of MS?

A

Acute relapse= oral or IV methylprednisolone 0.5g daily 5d to shorten relapse

Disease modifying drugs to reduce risk of relapse= natalizumab

588
Q

Becker muscular dystrophy?

A

x-linked recessive dystrophinopathy

‘less severe’ version of Duchenne muscular dystrophy

589
Q

Dystrophinopathy? (muscular dystrophy)

A

group of X-linked muscle diseases caused by mutations in the DMD gene, which encodes the dystrophin protein found in muscle

gradually cause the muscles to weaken, leading to an increasing level of disability.

mainly inherited by males

590
Q

Types of dystrophinopathy? (muscular dystrophy)

A
  • Becker muscular dystrophy
  • Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  • Myotonic dystrophy
591
Q

Genetics of muscular dystrophy?

A

due to mutation in the gene encoding dystrophin, dystrophin gene on Xp21

dystrophin is part of a large membrane associated protein in muscle which connects the muscle membrane to actin, part of the muscle cytoskeleton

in Duchenne muscular dystrophy there is a frameshift mutation resulting in one or both of the binding sites are lost leading to a severe form

in Becker muscular dystrophy there is a non-frameshift insertion in the dystrophin gene resulting in both binding sites being preserved leading to a milder form

592
Q

Features of Becker muscular dystrophy?

A

develops after the age of 10 years

less common than Duchenne and less severe

difficulty walking, climbing stairs, and getting up from the floor, muscle cramps during exercise, and learning to walk later than usual. Other symptoms include breathing problems, fatigue, loss of balance and coordination, and cognitive problems

intellectual impairment much less common than in Duchenne

593
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

X-linked recessive inherited disorder in the dystrophin genes required for normal muscular function.

594
Q

Gower’s sign?

A

child uses arms to stand up from a squatted position

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

595
Q

Features of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

progressive proximal muscle weakness from 5 years

calf pseudohypertrophy

Gower’s sign: child uses arms to stand up from a squatted position

30% of patients have intellectual impairment

596
Q

More severe type of muscular dystrophy?

A

Duchenne

597
Q

Ix for Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A
  • raised creatinine kinase
  • genetic testing has now replaced muscle biopsy as the way to obtain a definitive diagnosis
598
Q

Mx for Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

largely supportive as unfortunately there is currently no effective treatment

599
Q

Prognosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

most children cannot walk by the age of 12 years

patients typically survive to around the age of 25-30 years

600
Q

What condition is Duchenne muscular dystrophy associated with?

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

601
Q

Muscular dystrophy (MD)?

A

a group of genetic diseases that cause progressive weakness and degeneration of skeletal muscles

602
Q

Myotonic dystrophy (dystrophia myotonica)?

A

inherited myopathy with features developing at around 20-30 years old. It affects skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle.

603
Q

2 main types of Myotonic dystrophy?

A

DM1 and DM2

604
Q

Differences between the 2 types of myotonic dystrophy= DM1 and DM2?

A

DM1= DMPK gene on chromosome 19; Distal weakness more prominent

DM2= ZNF9 gene on chromosome 3; Proximal weakness more prominent; Severe congenital form not seen

605
Q

Genetics of myotonic dystrophy?

A

autosomal dominant

a trinucleotide repeat disorder

DM1 is caused by a CTG repeat at the end of the DMPK (Dystrophia Myotonica-Protein Kinase) gene on chromosome 19

DM2 is caused by a repeat expansion of the ZNF9 gene on chromosome 3

606
Q

Main features of myotonic dystrophy?

A

myotonic facies (long, ‘haggard’ appearance)
frontal balding
bilateral ptosis
cataracts
dysarthria

607
Q

myotonic facies (long, ‘haggard’ appearance)
frontal balding
bilateral ptosis
cataracts
dysarthria

A

Myotonic dystrophy

608
Q

Features of myotonic dystrophy?

A

myotonic facies (long, ‘haggard’ appearance)
frontal balding
bilateral ptosis
cataracts
dysarthria

myotonia (tonic spasm of muscle)
weakness of arms and legs (distal initially)
mild mental impairment
diabetes mellitus
testicular atrophy
cardiac involvement: heart block, cardiomyopathy
dysphagia

609
Q

Myasthenia gravis?

A

autoimmune disorder resulting in insufficient functioning acetylcholine receptors

610
Q

What gender is myasthenia gravis more common in?

A

women

611
Q

85-90% cases of myasthenia gravis have what antibodies?

A

antibodies to acetylcholine receptors

less common to have antibodies in disease limited to ocular muscles

612
Q

Key features of myasthenia gravis?

A

muscle fatigability= muscles become progressively weaker during periods of activity and slowly improve after periods of rest

extraocular muscle weakness: diplopia

proximal muscle weakness: face, neck, limb girdle

ptosis

dysphagia

613
Q

In myasthenia gravis, when does muscle fatigability (and so weakness) worsen and improve?

A

worsens during periods of activity and slowly improves after periods of rest

614
Q

Extraocular and proximal muscle weakness, dysphagia and ptosis?

A

myasthenia gravis

615
Q

Association with myasthenia gravis?

A

thymomas in 15%

autoimmune disorders= pernicious anaemia, thyroid disorder, SLE, rheymatoid

thymic hyperplasia in 50-70%

616
Q

What neuro condition is associated with thymoma?

A

myasthenia gravis

617
Q

Ix for myasthenia gravis?

A
  • single fibre electromyography
  • CT thorax to exclude thymoma
  • CK normal
  • antibodies to acetylcholine receptors (85-90%); if negative then half +ve for anti-muscle-specific tyrosine kinase antibodies
618
Q

Mx for myasthenia gravis?

A

1st line= pyridostigmine

eventually need immunosupression= pred initially then azathioprine, cyclosporine, mycophenolate mofetil may also be used

thymectomy

619
Q

Mx of myasthenic crisis?

A

plasmapheresis
IVIG
may need BiPAP (non-invasive ventilation) or mechanical ventilation

620
Q

Thymoma?

A

thymus gland tumour

621
Q

Pathophysiology in myasthenia gravis?

A

normal= axon release neurotransmitter acetylcholine from presynaptic membrane, this attaches to receptors on postsynaptic membrane stimulating muscle contraction

MG= acetylecholine receptor (AChR) antibodies block to postsynaptic receptors, blocking them and preventing stimulation by acetylcholine. The more the receptors are used during muscle activity, the more they become blocked. Less effective stumulation of muscles with increased activity. With rest, receptors are cleared so symptoms improve.

Antibodies can also activate the complement system within neuromusc junction, leading to cell damage at postsynaptic membrane, worsening symptoms.

622
Q

Antibodies that can cause myasthenia gravis?

A

1) acetylcholine receptor antibodies

2) muscle-specific kinase (MuSK) antibodies
3) low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 4 (LRP4) antibodies

MuSK and LPR4 important proteins to create acetylcholine receptor so destruction of these proteins with antibodies leads to inadequate receptors.

623
Q

Symptoms in MG affect where most commonly?

A

proximal limb mucles

small muscles of head and neck

624
Q

CP of MG?

A
  • fatigue in jaw when chewing
  • slurred speech
  • diff climbing stairs, standing from seat or raising hands above head
  • diplopioa (extraocular weakness)
  • ptosis (eyelid weakness)
  • weakness in facial movements
  • difficulty swallowing
625
Q

Examinations in MG to elicit fatiguability in muscles?

A
  • repeated blinking= exacerbate ptosis
  • prolonged upward gaze= exacerbate diplopia
  • repeated abduction of one arm 20x= unilateral weakness
  • thymectomy scar?
  • test FVC
626
Q

Myasthenic crisis?

A

potentially life-threatening Cx of MG. Causes acute worsening of symptoms, often triggered by another illness eg. resp tract infection.

Resp muscle weakness can lead to resp failure

627
Q

Drug for MG, its class and MOA?

A

pyroidostigmine

(long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)

prolongs the action of acetylcholine and improves symptoms

628
Q

Hallmark feature in MG?

A

exertion resulting in muscle fatigability

629
Q

What drugs may exacerbate myasthenia gravis?

A

penicillamine

quinidine, procainamide

beta-blockers

lithium

phenytoin

antibiotics: gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, tetracyclines

630
Q

Parkinson’s disease?

A

chronic, progressive neurodegenerative condition resulting from loss of dopamine-containing cells of substantia nigra pars compacta

631
Q

Parkinsonism?

A

umbrella term for clinical syndrome invl bradykinesia and at least 1 of: tremor, rigidity and/or postural instability

632
Q

Bradykinesia?

A

slowness of movement and speed

633
Q

Most common form of parkinsonism?

A

parkinson’s disease

634
Q

Are parkinson’s disease features unilateral or bilateral?

A

unilateral initially, may become bilateral as disease progresses

635
Q

Causes of parkinsonism?

A
  • parkinson’s disease
  • drug-induced
  • cerebrovascular disease
  • Lewy body dementia
  • multiple system atrophy
  • progressive supranuclear palsy
636
Q

Prognosis of Parkinson’s disease?

A

slowly progressive

pts with early-onset disease may have later onset of motor Cx and cognitive impairment

637
Q

Cx of parkinson’s disease?

A

motor (usually related to use of anti-parkinsonism meds)= immobility, slowness, freezing of gait, motor fluctuations, falls, dyskinesia, communication difficulties

non-motor= depression, anxiety, impulse control disorders, psychotic symptoms, dementia, sleep disturbance, constipation, orthostatic hypotension and pain

638
Q

Why should pt not suddenly stop anti-parkinsonian meds/miss a dose if they have parkinson’s disease?

A

may precipitate acute akinesia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome

639
Q

Akinesia vs dyskinesia?

A

Akinesia= absence of movement; can present as no movement at all, delayed response or freezing mid action

Dyskinesia= involuntary muscle movement eg. tremor, sudden jerking (spastic movements)

640
Q

Diagnosis of parkinson’s?

A

clinical

641
Q

CP of parkinson’s disease?

A

gradual onset progressive…

1) bradykinesia OR
2) hypokinesia (poverty of movement

plus one of…

1) cogwheel rigidity or lead-pipe rigidity
2) resting tremor
3) postural instability and/or gait disorders

May have non-motor symptoms that precede motor by yrs= depression, anxiety, anosmia, cog impairment, sleep disturbance, constupation

642
Q

Hypokinesia (poverty of movement) in parkinson’s disease?

A

reduced facial expression, reduced arm swing or blinking; difficulty with fine movements eg. buttoning clothes, slow/small handwritting (micrographia); slow shuffling, festinating gait (invol gait acceleration to regain balance), freezing gait

643
Q

Bradykinesia in parkinsons disease?

A

slowness in initiation of voluntary movement with progressive reduction in speed and amplitude of sustained repetitive actions, such as finger or foot tapping

644
Q

Cogwheel rigidity or lead-pipe rigidity in parkinson’s disease?

A

lead-pipe= constant resistance felt when a limb is passively flexed in the presence of increased tone without tremor

cogwheel= regular intermittent relaxation of tension felt when a limb is passively flexed in the presence of tremor and increased tone.

645
Q

Tremor in parkinson’s?

A
  • resting tremor
  • 3-5 Hz
  • worse when stressed or tired
  • improves with voluntary movement, mental concentration and during sleep
  • may affect distal muscles of thumb and index finger= pin-rolling; wrist or leg
  • may affect lips, chin, jaw but rarely head, neck or voice
646
Q

Tremor is absent in what % of pts with parkinson’s?

A

20% no tremor

647
Q

Balance problems and/or gait disorders in parkinson’s disease?

A

postural instability= pull test (tendency to fall back after a sharp pull from examiner)

stooped posture

648
Q

Non-motor symptoms of parkinsons?

A

depression, anxiety, fatigue, cognitive impairment, reduced sense of smell (anosmia), sleep disturbance, constipation

649
Q

Summary of the main features in parkinson’s disease?

A

bradykinesia (slow initiation of movement) or hypokinesia (poverty of movement eg. reduced facial expression, micrographia, slow shuffling festinating gait, reduced arm swing, diff with fine movements like opening jars)

plus at least 1 of= cogwheel/lead-pipe rigidity; resting pin-rolling tremor improves on moving; postural instability

non-motor symptoms

650
Q

What drugs may cause parkinsonism?

A

antispychotics (within 10w) esp 1st gen eg. haloperidol

  • metoclopramide and prochloperazine
  • SSRIs
  • CCB
  • amiodarone
  • lithium
  • cholinesterase inhibitors eg. donepezil or memantine
  • sodium valproate
  • methyldopa
651
Q

Drug induced parkinsonism vs parkinson’s disease?

A

drug induced= rapid onset, bilateral motor symptoms; often no rigidity or resting tremor, may be action tremor

652
Q

How is essential tremor different to parkinson’s tremor?

A

common; onset is at any age, and often there is a family history. Typically, the tremor is bilateral and symmetrical; may involve the whole hand; may worsen with stress, caffeine, and sleep deprivation; typically involves the head, neck, voice, and limbs; and often improves with alcohol and beta-blockers.

653
Q

Differential diagnosis of parkinson’s?

A
  • drug induced
  • stroke, TIA
  • alzheimers or dementia with lewy bodies
  • progressive supranuclear palsy
  • multiple system atrophy
  • corticobasal degeneration
  • Wilson’s disease
  • repeated head injury
  • essential tremor
  • exaggerated physiological tremor
  • dystonic tremor
  • hyperthyroidism
  • beta-2 agonisits
  • cerebellar disorders= intention tremor
654
Q

Progressive supranuclear palsy?

A

early dysphagia, gaze palsy, or recurrent falls

655
Q

Multiple system atrophy?

A

severe early autonomic involvement such as postural hypotension or cerebellar ataxia

656
Q

Corticobasal degeneration?

A

asymmetric rigidity and dystonia, with apraxia, progressive aphasia, and cognitive impairment

657
Q

What to do if suspect parkinson’s disease?

A

urgent referral to neuro untreated

658
Q

What if parkinson’s disease is suspected but pt is taking a drug known to induce parkinsonism?

A

reduce or stop drug in primary care if possible and appropriate

do not delay referral by waiting to assess symptom response

659
Q

Who may be involved in care of pt with Parkinson’s?

A

DMT
SALT, physio, occupational, dietician, adult social care, bowel and bladder continence team, psych, community nursing

660
Q

How often should pt with parkinson’s be reviewed?

A

every 6-12m

661
Q

Motor symptoms/Cx related to use of anti-parkinsonian meds?

A
  • deteriorating function
  • loss of drug effect
  • motor fluctuations: end-of-dose fading, on-off phenomenon
  • dyskinesia
  • freezing of gait
  • falls
662
Q

Mx of Parkinson’s disease?

A

(all 1st line Tx)

1) Levodopa, usually given with dopa decarboxylase inhibitor, as co-beneldopa or co-careldopa

or

2) oral monoamine oxidase-B (MOA-B) inhibitors= rasagiline, selegiline

or

3) oral dopamine agonists= ropinirole; or transdermal dopamine agonsit= rotigotine

May + adjuvant treatments

663
Q

Co-careldopa for parkinson’s disease?

A

usually given in early stages

more improvement on motor symptoms, less adverse effects but may cause more motor Cx eg. dyskinesia than other drug classes

664
Q

MOA-B inhibitors for parkinson’s disease eg. rasagiline?

A

less improvement in motor symptoms but fewer motor Cx and fewer adverse effects

665
Q

Oral (ropinirole) or transdermal dopamine agonists (rotigotine) for parkinson’s disease?

A

less improvement in motor symptoms; fewer motor Cx but more adverse effects= XS sleepiness, hallucinations, impulse control disorders

transdermal good if swallowing problems

666
Q

name 3 drugs that can be used 1st line to manage parkinson’s disease

A

Co-careldopa= levodopa + dopa decarboxylase inhibitor

Rasagiline= oral MOA-B inhibitor

Ropinirole= oral dopamine agonist (or rotigotine which is transdermal)

667
Q

Adjuvant treatments in parkinson’s disease?

A

oral catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) inhibitors eg. antacapone= eg. if have dyskinesia depsite optimal levodopa therapy; adverse effects

oral amantadine= if dyskinesia still not managed adequately; adverse effects

subcut apomorphine (potent dopamine agonist)= advanced disease; adverse effects (N&V, ortho hypot)

Deep-brain stimulation surgery of the subthalamic nucleus= if advanced disease with motor Cx but fit and levodopa responsive.

668
Q

How to manage N&V in parkinson’s?

A

take meds with food, often settles if due to meds (levodopa or dopamine agonist)

low-dose domperidone

DO NOT USE metoclopramide or prochlorperazine as can exacerbate parkinsonism

669
Q

What causes Parkinson’s disease?

A

degeneration of dopaminergic neurones in the substantia nigra pars compacta

670
Q

Triad of parkinsons?

A

bradykinesia, tremor, rigidity

671
Q

Type of sleep disorder in parkinson’s?

A

REM sleep behaviour disorder

672
Q

Example of autonomic dysfunction in parkinson’s?

A

postural hypotension

673
Q

What test may be done if there is difficulty in differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease?

A

SPECT (I-FP-CIT single photon emission computed tomography)

674
Q

How to decide what 1st line meds to give pt with parkinson’s disease?

A

of motor symptoms affecting pts QOL= levodopa

not affecting QOL= dopamine agonist (non-ergot derived), levodopa or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitor

675
Q

Parkinson’s disease= Levodopa:
1) motor symptoms
2) ADLs
3) motor Cx
4) adverse effects

A

1) more improvement on motor symptoms

2) more improvement in ADLs

3) more motor Cx

4) fewer adverse effects

676
Q

Parkinson’s disease= dopamine agonists:
1) motor symptoms
2) ADLs
3) motor Cx
4) adverse effects

A

1) less improvement in motor symptoms

2) less improvement in ADLs

3) fewer motor Cx

4) more adverse effects= XS sleepiness, hallucinations and impulse control disorders

677
Q

Parkinson’s disease= MAO-B inhibitors:
1) motor symptoms
2) ADLs
3) motor Cx
4) adverse effects

A

1) less improvement in motor symptoms

2) less improvement in ADLs

3) fewer motor Cx

4) less adverse effects

678
Q

What parkinson’s meds have lower risk or higher risk of hallucinations?

A

higher risk= dopamine agonists

lower= MOA-B inhibitors, COMT inhibitors

679
Q

What if pt with Parkinson’s continues to have symptoms despite optimal levodopa treatment or has developed dyskinesia?

A

adjuvant Tx: addition of a dopamine agonist, MAO-B inhibitor or catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) inhibitor

680
Q

When is there a risk of acute akinesia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome in parkinson’s?

A

abruptly stop or miss dose of meds

or if not absorbed eg. hastroenteritis

681
Q

What drugs for parkinson’s have an increased risk of impulse control disorders?

A

dopamine agonist therapy eg. ropinirole

Hx of previous impulsive behaviour

Hx of alcohol and/or smoking

682
Q

XS daytime sleepiness in parkinson’s?

A

do not drive

adjust meds

if fail then consider Modafinil

683
Q

Orthostatic hypotension in parkinson’s?

A

med review looking at potential causes

if persist then consider midodrine (acts on peripheral alpha-adrenergic receptors to increase arterial resistance)

684
Q

How to manage drooling of saliva in parkinson’s?

A

consider glycopyrronium bromide

685
Q

Parkinson’s: what should levodopa be combined with and why?

A

decraboxylase inhibitor (carbidopa or benserazide)= co-careldopa or co-beneldopa

prevents the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and hence can reduce side effects

686
Q

Common adverse effects of levodopa in parkinsons?

A

dry mouth
anorexia
palpitations
postural hypotension
psychosis

687
Q

What are some adverse effects of levodopa due to in parkinsons?

A

end-of-dose wearing off= symptoms often worsen towards the end of dosage interval. This results in a decline of motor activity

‘on-off’ phenomenon= large variations in motor performance, with normal function during the ‘on’ period, and weakness and restricted mobility during the ‘off’ period

dyskinesias at peak dose= dystonia, chorea and athetosis (involuntary writhing movements)

these effects may worsen over time with - clinicians therefore may limit doses until necessary

688
Q

Pt with parkinsons admitted to hospital, unable to take oral levodopa?

A

give dopamine agonist patch as rescue med to prevent acute dystonia

689
Q

Adverse effects of dopamine receptor agonists?

A

impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence

more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. Nasal congestion and postural hypotension are also seen in some patients

690
Q

Mechanism of action of monoamine oxidase-B inhibitors eg. selegiline for parkinsons?

A

inhibits the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons

691
Q

Amantadine in parkinsons?

A

increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses

side-effects include ataxia, slurred speech, confusion, dizziness and livedo reticularis

692
Q

COMT inhibitors in parkinsons?

A

e.g. entacapone, tolcapone

COMT is an enzyme involved in the breakdown of dopamine, and hence may be used as an adjunct to levodopa therapy

used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD

693
Q

Antimuscarinics in parkinsons?

A

block cholinergic receptors

now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease

help tremor and rigidity

e.g. procyclidine, benzotropine, trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol)

694
Q

2 examples of brachial plexus injuries?

A

Erb-Duchenne paralysis

Klumpke’s paralysis

695
Q

Erb-Duchenne paralysis?

A

brachial plexus injury

damage to C5, 6 roots

winged scapula

may be caused by breech presentation

696
Q

Klumpke’s paralysis?

A

brachial plexus injury

damage to T1

loss of intrinsic hand muscles

due to traction

697
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)?

A

entrapment neuropathy caused by compression of median nerve in the carpal tunnel at the wrist

698
Q

Most common entrapment neuropathy of upper limb?

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

699
Q

Pathophysiology behind carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Reduction in the dimensions of the carpal tunnel or increase in the volume of its contents produce an intermittent or sustained high pressure in the tunnel, which causes ischaemia of the median nerve and impairs nerve conduction, leading to pain and paraesthesia in the distribution of the median nerve.

700
Q

RFs for carpal tunnel?

A

majority idiopathic

  • activities with high hand/wrist repetition rate
  • obesity
  • pregnancy
  • osteoarthritis of MCP joint of thumb
  • RA
  • hypothyroidism
  • DM
  • lunate fracture
  • oedema eg. HF
701
Q

Signs of severe disease in carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • wasting of thenar mesucles
  • sensory loss of median nerve distribution
  • reduced hand grip and pinch grip strength
702
Q

Median nerve distribution?

A

thumb, index finger, middle finger, radial half of ring finger

703
Q

Mx for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • may resolve spontaneously
  • lifestyle= avoid repetitive hand/wrist movements; work-place assessment if appropriate, driving safety
  • 6w trial of conservative Tx= nocturnal wrist splint (in neutral position); corticosteroid injection; hand exersises
  • review after 6w if persistent

Specialist:
- nerve conduction studies (only if uncertain or considering surgery)
- surgical decompression

704
Q

When should specialist referral be made for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • uncertain
  • persistent symptoms
  • progressive or severe (impacting daily function)
  • recurrent or persistent following surgery
705
Q

Nerve conduction studies for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

specialist Mx

measure the strength and speed of impulses propagated down the length of a peripheral nerve, and may be useful to detect impaired median nerve conduction across the carpal tunnel, quantify the severity of disease, and provide a baseline for assessment of recovery

may also help to exclude other conditions, such as polyneuropathy and radiculopathy

706
Q

CP for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • intermittent paraesthesia, numbness or altered sensation, and burning or pain in the distribution of the median nerve (the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and radial half of the ring finger)
  • one or both hands
  • worse at night, can wake from sleep
  • loss of grip strength, weakness or reduced manual dexterity eg. when doing up buttons
  • severe= persistent and neuro deficit (constant sensory deficit, or thenar muscle wasting and weakness)
707
Q

Atypical symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

sensory changes in all fingers, or with pain in the hand radiating up into the wrist, forearm, or shoulder.

708
Q

Relieving factors for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

changing hand posture or shaking the wrist (‘the flick sign’)

709
Q

Signs in carpal tunnel syndrome which are more likely with prolonged or severe symptoms?

A

Trophic ulceration at the tips of the digits (rare, indicating loss of protective sensation).

Wasting of the thenar eminence muscles.

Sensory loss in the distribution of the median nerve.

Weakness of thumb abduction and opposition; reduced hand grip and pinch grip strength; reduced hand co-ordination.

710
Q

Hand examination manoevures which may support diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Phalen’s test — positive if flexing the wrist for 60 seconds causes pain and paraesthesia in the median nerve distribution.

Tinel’s test — positive if tapping lightly over the median nerve at the volar surface of the wrist produces paraesthesia or pain in the median nerve distribution.

Durkan’s test (carpal tunnel compression test) — positive if direct pressure over the proximal edge of the transverse carpal ligament (proximal wrist crease) with the thumbs produces or worsens paraesthesia in the median nerve distribution.

711
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome caused by compression of what nerve in the carpal tunnel?

A

median

712
Q

pain/pins and needles in thumb, index, middle finger
unusually the symptoms may ‘ascend’ proximally
patient shakes his hand to obtain relief, classically at night

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

713
Q

Examination findings in carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

weakness of thumb abduction (abductor pollicis brevis)
wasting of thenar eminence (NOT hypothenar)
Tinel’s sign: tapping causes paraesthesia
Phalen’s sign: flexion of wrist causes symptoms

714
Q

Electrophysiology in carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

motor + sensory: prolongation of the action potential

715
Q

Severe symptoms or symptoms persist with conservative Mx in carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division)

716
Q

Sciatic nerve divides into what?

A

tibial and common peroneal nerves

717
Q

Common peroneal nerve lesion: injury often occurs where?

A

neck of fibula

718
Q

Most characteristic feature of common peroneal nerve lesion?

A

foot drop

719
Q

Features of common peroneal nerve lesion?

A
  • foot drop
  • weakness of foot dorsiflexion
  • weakness of foot eversion
  • weakness of extensor hallucis longus
  • sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg
  • wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles
720
Q

Injury at neck of fibula
Foot drop
Weakness of foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion
Weakness of extensor hallucis long

A

common peroneal nerve lesion

721
Q

Meralgia paraesthetica?

A

syndrome of paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN).

It is an entrapment mononeuropathy of the LFCN, but can also be iatrogenic after a surgical procedure, or result from a neuroma.

Although uncommon, meralgia paraesthetica is not rare and is hence probably underdiagnosed.

722
Q

lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN)?

A

The LFCN is primarily a sensory nerve, carrying no motor fibres.

It most commonly originates from the L2/3 segments.
After passing behind the psoas muscle, it runs beneath the iliac fascia as it crosses the surface of the iliac muscle and eventually exits through or under the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament.

As the nerve curves medially and inferiorly around the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS), it may be subject to repetitive trauma or pressure.

Compression of this nerve anywhere along its course can lead to the development of meralgia paraesthetica.

723
Q

Epidemiology of meralgia paraesthetica?

A
  • 30-40yrs
  • sometimes both legs affected
  • men more common
  • more common in those with DM
724
Q

RFs for meralgia paraesthetica?

A

Obesity
DM
Pregnancy
Tense ascites
Trauma

Iatrogenic, such as pelvic osteotomy, spinal surgeries, laparoscopic hernia repair and bariatric surgery. In some cases, may result from abduction splints used in the management of Perthe’s disease.

Various sports have been implicated, including gymnastics, football,
bodybuilding and strenuous exercise.

Some cases are idiopathic.

725
Q

Symptoms of meralgia paraesthetica?

A

upper lateral aspect of the thigh:
Burning, tingling, coldness, or shooting pain
Numbness
Deep muscle ache

Aggravated by standing, and relieved by sitting
They can be mild and resolve spontaneously or may severely restrict the patient for many years.

726
Q

Signs of meralgia paraesthetica?

A

Symptoms may be reproduced by deep palpation just below the ASIS (pelvic compression) and also by extension of the hip.

There is altered sensation over the upper lateral aspect of the thigh.

There is no motor weakness.

727
Q

Ix for meralgia paraesthetica?

A

The pelvic compression test is highly sensitive, and often, meralgia paraesthetica can be diagnosed based on this test alone.

Injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic will abolish the pain. Using ultrasound is effective both for diagnosis and guiding injection therapy in meralgia paraesthetica
Nerve conduction studies may be useful.

728
Q

Mx for meralgia paraesthetica?

A

Physical therapy to strengthen the muscles of the legs and buttocks, and reduce injury to the hips. Wearing less restrictive clothing. Weight loss management. Corticosteroid injection to reduce swelling.

729
Q

Radial nerve is a continuation of what?

A

posterior cord of the brachial plexus (root values C5 to T1)

730
Q

Path of the radial nerve?

A

In the axilla: lies posterior to the axillary artery on subscapularis, latissimus dorsi and teres major.

Enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps (medial to humerus).

Spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve.

At the distal third of the lateral border of the humerus it then pierces the intermuscular septum and descends in front of the lateral epicondyle.

At the lateral epicondyle it lies deeply between brachialis and brachioradialis where it then divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch.

Deep branch crosses the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

731
Q

Radial nerve: motor innervation (main nerve)?

A

Triceps
Anconeus
Brachioradialis
Extensor carpi radialis

732
Q

Radial nerve: motor innervation (posterior interosseous branch)?

A

Supinator
Extensor carpi ulnaris
Extensor digitorum
Extensor indicis
Extensor digiti minimi
Extensor pollicis longus and brevis
Abductor pollicis longus

733
Q

Radial nerve: sensory innervation?

A

The area of skin supplying the proximal phalanges on the dorsal aspect of the hand is supplied by the radial nerve (this does not apply to the little finger and part of the ring finger)

734
Q

Radial nerve:
- anatomical location= shoulder
- muscle affected?
- effect of paralysis?

A

Long head of triceps

Minor effects on shoulder stability in abduction

735
Q

Radial nerve:
- anatomical location= arm
- muscle affected?
- effect of paralysis?

A
  • triceps
  • loss of elbow extension
736
Q

Radial nerve:
- anatomical location= forearm
- muscle affected?
- effect of paralysis?

A

Supinator
Brachioradialis
Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis

Weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position

737
Q

Patterns of damage of radial nerve?

A

wrist drop

sensory loss to small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals

738
Q

Radial nerve: axillary damage?

A

paralysis of triceps

739
Q

Wrist drop?

A

radial nerve damage

740
Q

Foot drop?

A

common peroneal nerve damage

741
Q

Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS)?

A

disorder involving compression of brachial plexus, subclavian artery or vein at the site of the thoracic outlet.

TOS can be neurogenic or vascular; the former accounts for 90% of the cases.

742
Q

Thoracic outlet?

A

the space between the collarbone, known as the clavicle, and the first rib.

This narrow passageway is crowded with blood vessels, nerves and muscles.

743
Q

Typical pts affected with thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

young thin women possessing long neck and drooping shoulders

peak onset in 4th decade

744
Q

Causes of thoracic outlet syndrome?

A
  • neck trauma in pts with anatomical predispositions
  • neck trauma can be single acute or repeated stresses
  • anatomical anomalies can be in form of soft tissue eg. scalene muscle hypertrophy and anomalous bands
  • or osseous structures eg. presence of cervical rib
745
Q

Cervical rib?

A

extra rib that forms above 1st rib growing from base of neck just above collarbone

may cause thoracic outlet syndrome if compresses nearby nerves and blood vessels

746
Q

2 types of thoracic outlet syndrome

A

neurogenic TOS
vascular TOS

747
Q

CP of neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

painless muscle wasting of hand muscles, with patients complaining of hand weakness e.g. grasping

sensory symptoms such as numbness and tingling may be present

if autonomic nerves are involved, the patient may experience cold hands, blanching or swelling

748
Q

CP of vascular thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

subclavian vein compression leads to painful diffuse arm swelling with distended veins

subclavian artery compression leads to painful arm claudication and in severe cases, ulceration and gangrene

749
Q

Examination findings in thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

neurological examination and musculoskeletal examination are necessary

stress manoeuvres such as Adson’s manoeuvres may be attempted although they have limited utility

careful examinations should aim to rule out other pathologies of the cervical spine, the shoulder or peripheral nerves. For instance, cervical radiculopathy, shoulder injuries and carpal tunnel syndrome

750
Q

Ix for thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

chest and cervical spine plain radiographs to check for any obvious osseous abnormalities e.g. cervical ribs, exclude malignant tumours or other differentials e.g. cervical spine degenerative changes

other imaging modalities may be helpful e.g. CT or MRI to rule out cervical root lesions

venography or angiography may be helpful in vascular TOS

an anterior scalene block may be used to confirm neurogenic TOS and check the likelihood of successful surgical treatment

751
Q

Tx for thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

there is a limited evidence base

conservative management with education, rehabilitation, physiotherapy, or taping is typically the first-line management for neurogenic TOS

surgical decompression is warranted where conservative management has failed especially if there is a physical anomaly. Early intervention may prevent brachial plexus degeneration

in vascular TOS, surgical treatment may be preferred

other therapies being investigated include botox injection

752
Q

Where does the ulnar nerve arise?

A

from medial cord of brachial plexus (C8, T1)

753
Q

Ulnar nerve: motor innervation to?

A

medial two lumbricals
aDductor pollicis
interossei
hypothenar muscles: abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi
flexor carpi ulnaris

754
Q

Ulnar nerve: sensory innervation to?

A

medial 1 1/2 fingers (palmar and dorsal aspects)

755
Q

Path of the ulnar nerve?

A

the ulnar nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm to the flexor compartment of the forearm

it then enters the palm of the hand via the Guyon’s canal, superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone

756
Q

Branches of the ulnar nerve?

A

1) muscular branch
2) palmar cutaneous branch (Arises near the middle of the forearm)
3) dorsal cutaneous branch
4) superficial branch
5) deep branch

757
Q

Branches of the ulnar nerve: muscular branch supplies what?

A

Flexor carpi ulnaris
Medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus

758
Q

Branches of the ulnar nerve: Palmar cutaneous branch (Arises near the middle of the forearm) supplies what?

A

skin on medial part of the palm

759
Q

Branches of the ulnar nerve: dorsal cutaneous branch supplies what?

A

dorsal surface of medial part of hand

760
Q

Branches of the ulnar nerve: superficial branch supplies what?

A

Cutaneous fibres to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits

761
Q

Branches of the ulnar nerve: deep branch supplies what?

A

Hypothenar muscles
All the interosseous muscles
Third and fourth lumbricals
Adductor pollicis
Medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis

762
Q

Ulnar nerve: 2 patterns of damage?

A

damage at the wrist

damage at elbow

763
Q

Ulnar nerve: damage at the wrist?

A

‘claw hand’ - hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits

wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals)

wasting and paralysis of hypothenar muscles

sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers (palmar and dorsal aspects)

764
Q

Ulnar nerve: damage at elbow?

A

like at wrist (however, ulnar paradox - clawing is more severe in distal lesions)
radial deviation of wrist

765
Q

Claw hand?

A

damage of ulnar nerve at wrist

hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits

766
Q

Another name for sciatica?

A

lumbar radiculopathy

767
Q

Sciatica (lumbar radiculopathy)?

A

describes radiating leg pain caused by inflam or compression of the lumbosacral nerve roots (L4-S1) forming the sciatic nerve

768
Q

Pain in sciatica (lumbar radiculopathy)?

A
  • sudden or slow onset
  • vary in severity
  • felt in back or buttock and radiates down leg below the knee into the foot and toes in the distribution of the sciatic nerve
  • tingling, numbness, loss of muscle strength in same leg
769
Q

In sciatica (lumbar radiculopathy), nerve root compression may be caused by what?

A
  • herniated intervertebral disc (90%)
  • spondylolisthesis
  • spinal stenosis
  • infection
  • cancer
770
Q

Modifiable RFs which be be associated with a first onset of sciatica (lumbar radiculopathy)?

A
  • smoking
  • obesity
  • general health
  • occupational factors eg. whole body vibration, strenuous exercise

other RFs= older age, genetic influences

771
Q

How long do episodes of sciatica (lumbar radiculopathy) last?

A

usually transient, with rapid improvements in pain and disability seen within a few weeks to a few months, but recurrence of symptoms is common.

772
Q

S&S sciatica (lumbar radiculopathy)?

A

Unilateral leg pain radiating below the knee to the foot or toes.

Low back pain — if present, which is less severe than any leg pain.

Numbness, tingling (paraesthesia) in the distribution of a nerve root.

Weakness or reflex changes, or both in a myotomal distribution.

A positive result in a straight leg raise test.

773
Q

Red flags for pts with sciatica include?

A

Bowel/bladder dysfunction (most commonly urinary retention).

Progressive neurological weakness.

Saddle anaesthesia.

Bilateral radiculopathy.

Localised tenderness.
Incapacitating or progressive pain.

Unrelenting night pain.

Use of steroids or intravenous drugs.

774
Q

Serious conditions whose signs and symptoms may overlap with sciatica?

A

Cauda equina syndrome.
Spinal fracture.
Cancer.
Infection.

775
Q

What does Mx of sciatica involve?

A
  • admit or urgent refer if red flags
  • STarT Back risk assessment tool to inform shared decision-making about stratified management for people who do not have red flag signs or symptoms.
  • self-Mx advice
  • follow up if worsen, persist >2w, severe pain not subsided within 1w, new symptoms or recur
  • consider referal to group exercise programme, physio, psychological therapy
  • promote return to work or ADLs
776
Q

Mx if symptoms of sciatica persist, worsen or recur?

A

reassessment

Considering offering a combined physical and psychological programme incorporating a cognitive behavioural approach.

Referring where appropriate.

777
Q

Sciatica Mx?

A
  • NSAIDs +/- PPI for lower back pain NOT neuropathic analgesia eg. duloxetine
  • physio, exercises, CBT esp if higher risk of poor outcome
  • if persist (>4-6w) refer for consideration of MRI
  • do not recommend prolonged best rest
  • local heat, work adjustments, keep active and exercise to reduce risk of recurrence (modest increase in pain on resuming activities does not indicate damage)
778
Q

Specialist referral for people with sciatica and?

A

Severe radicular pain at 2–6 weeks (depending on severity and improvement).

Non-tolerable radicular pain at 6 weeks.

Acute and severe sciatica — for consideration for an epidural corticosteroid/local anaesthetic injection.

Sciatica when non-surgical treatment has not improved pain or function — for consideration for spinal decompression.

779
Q

Positive result in straight leg raise test in sciatica meaning?

A

person lying supine, the hip is flexed gradually with the knee extended. Pain reproduced below 60 degrees of hip flexion on the ipsilateral side indicates a positive test.

780
Q

A prolapsed lumbar disc usually produces what?

A

clear dermatomal leg pain associated with neuro deficits

781
Q

Prolapsed lumbar disc features?

A
  • leg pain usually worse than back
  • pain often worse when sitting
782
Q

L3 nerve root compression?

A

Sensory loss over anterior thigh

Weak hip flexion, knee extension and hip adduction

Reduced knee reflex

Positive femoral stretch test

783
Q

L4 nerve root compression?

A

Sensory loss anterior aspect of knee and medial malleolus

Weak knee extension and hip adduction

Reduced knee reflex

Positive femoral stretch test

784
Q

L5 nerve root compression?

A

Sensory loss dorsum of foot

Weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion

Reflexes intact

Positive sciatic nerve stretch test

785
Q

S1 nerve root compression?

A

Sensory loss posterolateral aspect of leg and lateral aspect of foot

Weakness in plantar flexion of foot

Reduced ankle reflex

Positive sciatic nerve stretch test

786
Q

Prolapsed lumbar disc producing clear dermatomal leg pain eg. L3, L4, L5 or S1 compression Mx?

A

similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain and sciatica: analgesia, physiotherapy, exercises

using the same drugs as for back pain without sciatica symptoms i.e. first-line is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors rather than using neuropathic analgesia (e.g. duloxetine)

if symptoms persist e.g. after 4-6 weeks) then referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate

787
Q

Low back pain?

A

refers to pain in the lumbosacral area, from the 12th ribs to the iliac crest, and sometimes the buttocks and gluteal folds.

788
Q

Non-specific low back pain?

A

describes pain not attributable to an underlying cause. It is also referred to as ‘mechanical’, ‘musculoskeletal’, or ‘simple’ low back pain in the literature.

Acute low back pain typically lasts less than 3 months.

Chronic low back pain typically lasts 3 months or more.

789
Q

Low back pain RFs?

A

obesity, physical inactivity, heavy lifting, and stress or depression.

790
Q

Low back pain- resolves when?

A

self-limiting condition for the majority of people, and usually resolves within a few weeks.

791
Q

Cx of low back pain?

A

impact on daily activities including work, study, leisures, and sleep; depression and anxiety; increased risk of falls and chronic pain.

792
Q

Stroke site of lesion: anterior cerebral artery?

A

contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss

lower extremity > upper

793
Q

Stroke site of lesion: middle cerebral artery?

A

contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss

upper extremity > lower

contralateral homonymous hemianopia

aphasia

794
Q

Stroke site of lesion: posterior cerebral artery?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

Visual agnosia

795
Q

Stroke site of lesion: Weber’s syndrome (branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain?

A

Ipsilateral CN III palsy

Contralateral weakness of upper and lower extremity

796
Q

Stroke site of lesion: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (lateral medullary syndrome, Wallenberg syndrome)?

A

Ipsilateral= facial pain and temp loss

Contralateral= limb/torso pain and temp loss

Horner’s (ipsilateral), dysphagia, ataxia and nystagmus

797
Q

Stroke site of lesion: Anterior inferior cerebellar artery (lateral pontine syndrome)?

A

Similar to Wallenberg’s but…

ipsilateral= facial paralysis and deafness

798
Q

Stroke site of lesion: retinal/opthalmic artery?

A

amaurosis fugax

799
Q

Stroke site of lesion: basilar artery?

A

‘locked in’ syndrome

800
Q

Stroke site of lesion: Lacunar strokes?

A

either isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss or hemiparesis with limb ataxia

strong association with HTN

common sites include= basal ganglia, internal capsule, pons and thalamus

801
Q

What is a lacunar stroke?

A

stroke that occurs in a deep area of brain eg. basal ganglia, thalamus, pons or internal capsule

802
Q

Stroke site of lesion: what vessel is affected in lateral pontine syndrome?

A

anterior inferior cerebellar artery

803
Q

Another name for lateral medullary syndrome?

A

Wallenberg syndrome

804
Q

Stroke site of lesion: what vessel is affected in Wallenberg syndrome/lateral medullary syndrome?

A

posterior inferior cerebellar artery

805
Q

Stroke site of lesion: what vessel is affected in Weber’s syndrome?

A

branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain

806
Q

Stroke?

A

clinical syndrome of presumed vascular origin characterised by rapidly developing signs of focal or global disturbance of cerebral functions which lasts >24hrs or leads to death

807
Q

What does TIA stand for?

A

transient ischaemic attack

808
Q

What is a TIA?

A

transient (<24hrs) neuro dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord or retinal ischaemia, without evidence of acute infarction

809
Q

What % of strokes are ischaemic and haemorrhagic?

A

85% ischaemia
15% haemorrhagic

810
Q

Once pt has had a stroke or TIA they are at high risk of…

A

further vascular event

811
Q

Cx of stroke?

A

neuro problems, depression, anxiety, communication difficulties, difficulties with ADLs

812
Q

Stroke and TIA present with what typically?

A

sudden onset of focal neuro symptoms= numbness, weakness, slurred speech or visual disturbance

can’t be explained by another condition eg. hypoglycaemia

widespread cerebral hypoperfusion may present with non-focal or global deficits

813
Q

TIA vs stroke?

A

both present with sudden onset neuro deficit but

TIA= completely resolved within 24hrs of onset

stroke= ongoing or has persisted for longer than 24hrs

814
Q

Mx of suspected acute stroke (or emergent TIA) in primary care?

A
  • immediate emergency admission to stroke unit
  • avoid antiplatelets until exclude haemorrhagic stroke
815
Q

When should follow up in primary care happen following a stroke?

A

on discharge from hospital, at 6m then annually to:
optimise lifestyle measures and drug Tx for secondary prevention

816
Q

Mx of suspected TIA in primary care?

A

aspirin 300mg immediately
arrange specialist

assessment within 24hrs if suspected TIA occured within last week

if it occurred >1w ago then within 7 days

do not drive until see specialist

817
Q

What in a stroke may present with non-focal or global neuro deficits?

A

widespread cerebral hypoperfusion eg. subarachnoid/intracranial haemorrhage or massive infarct

818
Q

How long do TIAs typically take to resolve?

A

within 1hr but can persist up to 24hrs

819
Q

Examples of focal neuro deficits in TIA?

A

unilateral weakness or sensory loss

dysphasia

ataxia, vertigo or loss of balance

syncope

amaurosis fugax, diplopia or homonymous hemianopia

cranial nerve defects

820
Q

Amaruosis fugax?

A

sudden transient loss of vision in one eye eg. in TIA

821
Q

Clinical features of stroke?

A

depend on cause and area affected

  • confusion, altered consciousness, coma
  • headache
  • unilateral weakness/paralysis in face, arm or leg
  • sensory loss= paraesthesia or numbness
  • ataxia
  • dysphasia
  • dysarthria
  • visual disturbance= homonymous hemianopia, diplopia
  • gaze paresis
  • photophobia
  • dizziness, vertigo or loss of balance (isolated dizziness not usually TIA)
  • N +/or V
  • Specific cranial nerve deficits: unilateral tongue weakness, Horner’s
  • difficulty with fine motor coordination & gait
  • neck or facial pain
822
Q

What may neck or facial pain in stroke be associated with?

A

arterial dissection

823
Q

Type of headache pt may get with stroke?

A

usually of insidious onset and gradually increasing intensity in intracranial haemorrhage, and sudden, severe headache in subarachnoid haemorrhage which may be associated with neck stiffness. Sentinel headache(s) may occur in the preceding weeks.

824
Q

Specific cranial nerve deficits pt may get when having a stroke?

A

unilateral tongue weakness or Horner’s syndrome (miosis, ptosis, and facial anhidrosis).

825
Q

Horner’s triad?

A

miosis, ptosis, facial anhidrosis

826
Q

What is gaze paresis eg. in stroke?

A

(conjugate gaze palsy) is inability to move both eyes together in a single horizontal (most commonly) or vertical direction

827
Q

Posterior circulation strokes may be difficult to diagnose and should be suspected if pt presents with what?

A

Symptoms of acute vestibular syndrome — acute, persistent, continuous vertigo or dizziness with nystagmus, nausea or vomiting, head motion intolerance, and new gait unsteadiness.

828
Q

Examine pt with suspected stroke/TIA?

A
  • Consciousness: Glasgow
    coma scale
  • ABC
  • BP, HR, O2, T
  • focused neuro exam= FAST
  • cvd= AF, murmur, pulmonary oedema or HF present?
  • blood glucose to rule out hypoglycaemia (<3.3)
  • ECG to exclude arrhythmias
829
Q

Tool to use to carry out rapid assessment of neuro function if suspect pt is having a stroke/TIA?

A

FAST

830
Q

What does the FAST tool stand for?

A

Face Arm Speech Test

831
Q

When to suspect a stroke when using FAST?

A

one or more of the following are present: new facial weakness (asymmetry such as the mouth or eye drooping), arm or leg weakness, or speech disturbance (such as slurring or difficulty in finding names for commonplace objects).

832
Q

What is it really important to do if suspect a pt is having a stroke?

A

DO NOT start anticoag (eg. in AF) or antiplatelet until haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded by brain imaging

833
Q

Mx for suspected acute stroke?

A
  • immediate emergency admission to acute stroke unit
  • whilst awaiting transfer= ABCs, give O2 if sats <95%
  • do not start antiplatelet/anticoag
  • exclude hypoglycaemia
  • immediate CT head
834
Q

Because transient ischaemic attack (TIA) cannot be confidently diagnosed unless the symptoms have resolved within 24 hours, people with ongoing neurological symptoms and signs suggestive of acute stroke or TIA should be treated as if they have

A

stroke

835
Q

Mx if pt has had a TIA within the last week?

A

1) aspirin 300mg immediately
2) refer for specialist assessment to be seen within 24hrs

pt may have ongoing neuro deficits despite a negative FAST so these pts must be managed as acute stroke rather than TIA

836
Q

Mx for pt who had a suspected TIA more than 7 days ago?

A

1) aspirin 300mg immediately
2) refer for specialist assessment to be seen within 7 days

837
Q

Pt who had suspected TIA within the last week but have a bleeding disorder or taking an anticoag?

A

have urgent CT to exclude haemorrhage

838
Q

Lifestyle advice for pt following stroke/TIA?

A
  • physical activity every day
  • stop smoking
  • healthy diet
  • limit alcohol to 14 units a week spread over at least 3 days
839
Q

Secondary prevention following stroke or TIA without paroxysmal or permanent AF?

A

1) Antiplatelet therapy:

Dual therapy= aspirin + clopidogrel (for up to 90 days) or aspirin + ticagrelor (for 30 days)

then= clopidogrel 75mg daily long term

2nd line= Aspirin 75 mg daily with modified-release dipyridamole 200 mg twice daily (long term)

2) AND atorvastatin 20-80mg daily= if cholesterol >3.5mmol/l

3) do they need Tx for HTN?

840
Q

Aim of statin therapy used following stroke/TIA in secondary prevention?

A

reduce non-HDL cholesterol by more than 40%.

If this reduction is not achieved within 3 months, consider adherence, diet, lifestyle, and increasing dose

841
Q

How is secondary prevention following stroke or TIA WITH paroxysmal or permanent AF different to without?

A

if AF then need anticoag not antiplatelet

TIA= will start immediately on diagnosis once imaging has excluded haemorrhage.

Stroke= delayed but within 14d

adjusted-dose warfarin (target INR 2.5, range 2.0 to 3.0) or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor (for people with non-valvular atrial fibrillation).

842
Q

What is a stroke?

A

(aka cerebrovascular accident, CVA) represents a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain.

Neural tissue is completely dependent on aerobic metabolism so any problem with oxygen supply can quickly lead to irreversible damage.

843
Q

2 main types of stroke?

A

1) ischaemic= subtype is TIA- due to transient decrease in blood flow
2) haemorrhagic

844
Q

Essential problem in ischaemic stroke?

A

‘Blockage’ in the blood vessel stops blood flow

845
Q

Subtypes of ischaemic stroke?

A

Thrombotic stroke= thrombosis from large vessels e.g. carotid

Embolic stroke= usually a blood clot but fat, air or clumps of bacteria may act as an embolus. Atrial fibrillation is an important cause of emboli forming in the heart

846
Q

General RFs for CVD and therefore stroke?

A

age
HTN
smoking
hyperlipidaemia
DM

847
Q

RFs for cardioembolism causing ischaemic stroke?

A

AF

848
Q

Essential problem in haemorrhagic stroke?

A

blood vessel ‘bursts’ leading to reduction in blood flow

849
Q

Subtypes of hameorrhagic stroke?

A

Intracerebral haemorrhage= bleeding within the brain

Subarachnoid haemorrhage= bleeding on the surface of the brain

850
Q

RFs for haemorrhagic stroke?

A

age
HTN
anticoag therapy
arteriovenous malformation

851
Q

Cerebral hemisphere infarct stroke may have what symptoms?

A

contralateral hemiplegia: initially flaccid then spastic

contralateral sensory loss

homonymous hemianopia
dysphasia

852
Q

Brainstem infarct stroke may result in what symptoms?

A

more severe symptoms including quadriplegia and lock-in-syndrome

853
Q

What classification system can be used to classify strokes based on initial symptoms?

A

Oxford Stroke Classification (also known as the Bamford Classification)

854
Q

Oxford Stroke Classification (also known as the Bamford Classification) criteria?

A

The following criteria should be assessed:
1. unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm & leg
2. homonymous hemianopia
3. higher cognitive dysfunction e.g. dysphasia

855
Q

Oxford Stroke Classification (also known as the Bamford Classification): total anterior circulation infarcts (TACI, 15%)?

A
  • invl middle and anterior cerebral arteries
  • all 3 of the criteria are present
856
Q

Oxford Stroke Classification (also known as the Bamford Classification): partial anterior circulation infarcts (PACI, 25%)?

A
  • involves smaller arteries of anterior circulation e.g. upper or lower division of middle cerebral artery
  • 2 of criteria present
857
Q

Oxford Stroke Classification (also known as the Bamford Classification): lacunar infarcts (LACI, 25%)?

A

involves perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus and basal ganglia
presents with 1 of the following:
1. unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face and arm, arm and leg or all three.
2. pure sensory stroke.
3. ataxic hemiparesis

858
Q

Oxford Stroke Classification (also known as the Bamford Classification): posterior circulation infarcts (POCI, 25%)?

A

involves vertebrobasilar arteries
presents with 1 of the following:
1. cerebellar or brainstem syndromes
2. loss of consciousness
3. isolated homonymous hemianopia

859
Q

How to differentiate between haemorrhage stroke vs ischaemia?

A

symptoms alone can’t need imaging but pts with haemorrhages more likely to have:
- decreased level consciousness
- headache much more common
- N&V common
- seizures in 25%

860
Q

What does the FAST mneumonic for stroke stand for and mean?

A

Face - ‘Has their face fallen on one side? Can they smile?’

Arms - ‘Can they raise both arms and keep them there?’

Speech - ‘Is their speech slurred?’

Time - ‘Time to call 999 if you see any single one of these signs.’

861
Q

Ix for stroke?

A
  • emergency neuroimaging= non-contrast head CT
862
Q

Main Mx of stroke once it has been classified as ischaemic following imaging?

A

aspirin 300mg

present <4.5hrs of onset of stroke symptoms= thrombolysis with alteplase

<6hr and confirmed occlusion of proximal anterior circulation confirmed on CTA= thrombectomy and IV thrombolysis (if within 4.5hrs)

6-24hrs (incl wake up strokes) and confirmed occlusion of proximal anterior circulation or potential to salvage brain tissue shown on diffusion weight MRI or CT perfusion showing limited infarct core volume= thrombectomy

Confirmed occlusion of the proximal posterior circulation (that is, basilar or posterior cerebral artery) demonstrated by CTA or MRA and
if there is the potential to salvage brain tissue= thrombectomy with IV thrombolysis (if within 48hrs)

863
Q

How does alteplase work in stroke Mx?

A

tissue plasminogen activator that rapidly breaks down clots

864
Q

What if pt has HTN and ischaemic stroke?

A

lowering the blood pressure can worsen the ischaemia.

High blood pressure treatment is only indicated in hypertensive emergency or to reduce the risks when giving intravenous thrombolysis.

Blood pressure is aggressively treated in patients with a haemorrhagic stroke.

865
Q

Criteria for thrombolysis with alteplase in Mx of ischaemic stroke?

A

present <4.5hrs of onset of symptoms

and has not had previous intracranial haemorrhage, uncontrolled HTN, pregnant ect

866
Q

Crescendo TIA?

A

more than 1 TIA within a week- high risk of stroke

867
Q

Symptoms of stroke are typically what?

A

asymmetrical

868
Q

What tool is used to identify stroke in hospital?

A

The ROSIER tool (Recognition Of Stroke In the Emergency Room) gives a score based on the clinical features and duration. Stroke is possible in patients scoring one or more.

869
Q

Tool to identify stroke in community vs hospital?

A

community= FAST

hospital= ROSIER

870
Q

Ix for TIA?

A

Diffusion weighted MRI scan

871
Q

Assessment for underlying causes of TIA or stroke?

A

Ix for carotid artery stenosis and AF

CAS= confirmed with carotid US/CT/MRI angiogram; carotid endarterectomy is Mx

AF= ECG or ambulatory ECG monitoring; anticoag

872
Q

Drugs for stroke secondary prevention?

A

clopidogrel 75mg od
and
atorvastatin 20-80mg (started after 48hrs not immediately)

if AF then give anticoag instead of antiplatelet

873
Q

Stroke rehab may involve who?

A

Stroke physicians
Nurses
Speech and language (SALT) to assess swallowing
Dieticians in those at risk of malnutrition
Physiotherapy
Occupational therapy
Social services
Optometry and ophthalmology
Psychology
Orthotics

874
Q

Mx of haemorrhagic stroke?

A

neurosurgical consult, majority not fit for surgery.

Mx is supportive= stop anticoag and antiplatelet meds

875
Q

What is it important to exclude first when suspect stroke?

A

hypoglycaemia

876
Q

ROSIER score?

A

Exclude hypoglycaemia first, then assess the following:

Loss of consciousness or syncope= - 1 point

Seizure activity= - 1 point

New, acute onset of:
* asymmetric facial weakness + 1 point
* asymmetric arm weakness + 1 point
* asymmetric leg weakness + 1 point
* speech disturbance + 1 point
* visual field defect + 1 point

A stroke is likely if > 0.

877
Q

What may acute ischaemic stroke show on non-contrast CT head?

A

may show areas of low density in the grey and white matter of the territory. These changes may take time to develop

other signs include the ‘hyperdense artery’ sign corresponding with the responsible arterial clot - this tends to visible immediately

878
Q

What may acute haemorrhagic stroke show on non-contrast CT head?

A

typically show areas of hyperdense material (blood) surrounded by low density (oedema)

879
Q

When should BP control be considered for pts who present with acute ischaemic stroke?

A

if present within 6hrs and S BP of >150

there are Cx eg. hypertensive encephalopathy

or being considered for thrombolysis

ANY OTHER CASE DO NOT LOWER BP in acute phase of ischaemic stroke

880
Q

Why is statin Tx delayed at least 48hrs after Tx for ischaemic stroke?

A

due to risk of haemorrhagic transformation

881
Q

When to start pt on statin following ischaemic stroke?

A

if cholesterol >3.5mmol/l

882
Q

patients with an acute ischaemic stroke, regardless of age or stroke severity, who were last known to be well more than 4.5 hours earlier, should be considered for thrombolysis with alteplase if:

A

treatment can be started between 4.5 and 9 hours of known onset, or within 9 hours of the midpoint of sleep when they have woken with symptoms, AND
they have evidence from CT/MR perfusion (core-perfusion mismatch) or MRI (DWI-FLAIR mismatch) of the potential to salvage brain tissue

883
Q

What should be done before thombolysis Tx for stroke?

A

lower BP to 185/110

884
Q

Absolute contraindications for thrombolysis?

A
  • Previous intracranial haemorrhage
  • Seizure at onset of stroke
  • Intracranial neoplasm
  • Suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage
  • Stroke or traumatic brain injury in preceding 3 months
  • Lumbar puncture in preceding 7 days
  • Gastrointestinal haemorrhage in preceding 3 weeks
  • Active bleeding
  • Oesophageal varices
  • Uncontrolled hypertension >200/120mmHg
885
Q

Relative contraindications for thrombolysis?

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Concurrent anticoagulation (INR >1.7)
  • Haemorrhagic diathesis
  • Active diabetic haemorrhagic retinopathy
  • Suspected intracardiac thrombus
  • Major surgery / trauma in the preceding 2 weeks
886
Q

When is carotid endarterectomy recommended?

A

pt suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled

if >50% stenosis and within 7d

887
Q

Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH)?

A

intracranial haemorrhage defined as the presence of blood within the subarachnoid space i.e. deep to subarachnoid layer of the meninges

888
Q

Where is the subarachnoid space?

A

deep to the subarachnoid layer of the meninges

889
Q

Most common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

head injury= traumatic SAH

890
Q

What is a spontaneous subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

occurs in the absence of trauma

891
Q

Traumatic SAH?

A

subarachnoid haemorrhage occurring due to trauma

892
Q

2 types of subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

spontaneous and traumatic

893
Q

Most common cause of spontaneous subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

intracranial aneurysm (saccular ‘berry’ aneurysms) 85%

894
Q

Conditions associated with berry aneurysms (most common cause of spontaneous subarachnoid haemorrhage)?

A

HTN
adult polycystic kidney disease
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Coarctation of aorta

895
Q

Causes of spontaneous subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • intracranial aneurysm (berry)
  • arteriovenous malformation
  • pituitary apoplexy
  • mycotic (infective) aneurysms
896
Q

Features of subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • headache= sudden, ‘thunderclap’, severe, occipital, peaks in intensity in 1-5mins, may be Hx of less severe ‘sentinel’ headache weeks prior
  • N&V
  • meningism (photophobia, neck stiffness)
  • coma
  • seizures
897
Q

What ECG changes may be seen in subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

ST elevation may be seen

2 to either autonomic neural stimulation from hypothalamus or elevated levels of circulating catecholamines

898
Q

Headache in subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • sudden-onset
  • ‘thunderclap or hit with baseball bat’
  • severe: ‘worst of my life’
  • occipital
  • peaks in intensity within 1-5mins
  • may be history of a less-severe ‘sentinel’ headache in the weeks prior to presentation
899
Q

Meningism in subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

photophobia, neck stiffness

900
Q

Thunderclap headache and meningism?

A

subarachnoid haemorrhage

901
Q

Ix for subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

1st line= non-contrast CT head

if shows evidence of SAH then refer to neurosurgery urgent

902
Q

What would non-contrast head CT show in subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

acute blood (hyperdense/bright on CT) typically distributed in basal cisterns, sulci and in severe cases the ventricular system

903
Q

What does acute bleeding look like on head CT eg. in subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

hyperdense/bright

904
Q

What if suspect subarachnoid haemorrhage but CT head is done >6hrs after symptom onset and is normal?

A

do lumbar puncture

if within 6hrs and normal consider different diagnosis

905
Q

When should an LP done if subarachnoid haemorrhage is suspected?

A

if CT head is done >6hrs after symptom onset do a LP

LP needs to be done at least 12hrs following the onset of symptoms

906
Q

If CT head normal and has been >6hrs since symptom onset & suspect subarachnoid haemorrhage, why does the LP need to be done at least 12hrs after symptom onset?

A

to allow the development of xanthochromia (result of RBC breakdown)

xanthochromia helps distinguish true SAH from a ‘traumatic tap’ (blood introduced by the LP procedure)

907
Q

If LP is indicated in suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage, what would the findings be?

A

xanthocrhomia in CSF and normal or raised opening pressure

908
Q

LP CSF: xanthochromia and normal or raised opening pressure?

A

subarachnoid haemorrhage

909
Q

What to do after confirming subarachnoid haemorrhage (with CT or LP) and it is a spontaneous SAH (no trauma)?

A

Ix to find causative pathology that needs urgent Tx:
- CT intracranial angiogram= identify vascular lesion eg. aneurysm or AVM
- /- digital subtraction angiogram (catheter angiogram)

910
Q

Causes of thunderclap headache?

A

SAH
migraine
cough
coitus
exertion

911
Q

When should non-contrast head CT be done in suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage to diagnose?

A

diagnostic accuracy highest within 6hrs of symptom onset

if >6hrs then do LP

912
Q

Mx of confirmed aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • supportive= best rest, analgesia, VTE prophy, discontinuation of antithrombotics (reverse anticoag if present)
  • oral nimodipine= present vasospasm
  • risk of rebleeding so need intervention within 24hrs= Tx with coil by interventional neuroradiologists, minority need craniotomy and clipping by surgeon
913
Q

Prevent vasospasm in subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

oral nimodipine: increases BP and blood volume

914
Q

What is vasospasm in subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Cx that may occur 7-14 days after SAH

narrowing of brain’s arteries that reduces blood flow to brain

weakness, confusion, restlessness

915
Q

Cx of aneurysmal SAH?

A
  • re-bleeding
  • hydrocephalus
  • vasospasm (delayed blood volume)
  • hyponatraemia
  • seizures
916
Q

Cx of aneurysmal SAH: re-bleeding?

A

happens in 10%

most common in 1st 12hrs

if suspected (sudden worsening of neuro symptoms) then repeat CT

up to 70% mortality

917
Q

Cx of aneurysmal SAH: hydorcephalus?

A

temp treated with external ventricular drain (CSF diverted into a bad at the bedside) or if required, long-term ventriculoperitoneal shunt

XS CSF in brain due to disruption to drainage and production

918
Q

Cx of aneurysmal SAH: vasospasm (delayed cerebral ischaemia)?

A

typically 7-14d after onset

ensure euvolaemia (normal blood volume)

consider vasopressor if persists

919
Q

Cx of aneurysmal SAH: hyponatraemia?

A

most typically due to SIADH

920
Q

What electrolyte abnormality may be a Cx of SAH?

A

hyponatraemia

921
Q

Important predictive factors in SAH?

A

conscious level on admission
age
amount of blood visible on CT head

922
Q

Why is DAPT (dual antiplatelet therapy) not currently recommended for ‘major’ ischaemic stroke?

A

risk of haemorrhagic transformation is too high

923
Q

Definition of TIA?

A

a transient episode of neurologic dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischaemia, without acute infarction.

lasting <24hrs

924
Q

Clinical features in TIA?

A

focal neurological deficit but, rather than persisting, the features resolve, typically within 1 hour.

unilateral weakness or sensory loss.

aphasia or dysarthria

ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance
visual problems= sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, homonymous hemianopia

925
Q

Examples of TIA mimics that REQUIRE exclusion?

A

hypoglycaemia

intracranial haemorrhage

926
Q

Pt had TIA and is on anticoag or has similar RFs?

A

admit for urgent non-contrast head CT to exclude haemorrhage

927
Q

Ix in TIA?

A
  • MRI (diffusion weighted and blood sensitive sequences) to determine territory of ischaemia on same day as specialist assesment
  • only do CT unless clinical suspicion of other diagnosis eg. haemorrhage as pt is taking anticoag
928
Q

When would you do CT over an MRI in TIA?

A

if pt is on anticoag so suspect haemorrhage

all other cases do MRI

929
Q

Pt who has had a TIA are at high risk for what?

A

further vascular events, esp in 1st few days

930
Q

Antithrombotic medication following TIA?

A

1) resolved TIA, awaiting specialist review within 24hrs, low risk of bleeding= aspirin 300mg

2) been reviewed, now inital 21days when high risk for further events= aspirin + clopidogrel (both inital dose 300mg then 75mg od)

3) then long term secondary prevention after 21d= clopidogrel 75mg od

if not appropriate for DAPT then 300mg clopi loading dose then 75mg od

consider PPI with DAPT

ticagrelor + clopidogrel is an alternative

931
Q

Medication following TIA?

A

1) 300mg aspirin immediately
2) DAPT for 21days after seen specialist
3) long term clopi 75mg od

4) atorvastatin 20-80mg daily

if have AF anticoag immediately after haemorrhage excluded

consider PPI with DAPT

DAPT= aspirin + clopidogrel (both loading dose of 300mg then 75mg od)

932
Q

atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients

patients who are considered candidates for carotid intervention should have carotid imaging performed within 24 hours of assessment

what is this?

A

carotid duplex ultrasound or either CT angiography or MR angiography

933
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia occurs in what nerve?

A

in the distribution of one or more branches of the 5th (trigeminal) cranial nerve

934
Q

How frequent does pain in trigeminal neuralgia occur?

A

may be infrequent (periods of remission may last yrs) or hundreds of times a day

935
Q

In over 90% of cases, what is trigeminal neuralgia thought to be caused by?

A

vascular compression of the trigeminal nerve

936
Q

What gender and age group is trigeminal neuralgia more common in?

A

women

increasing age, rare in <40yrs

937
Q

Cx of trigeminal neuralgia?

A

depression
inability to eat and so weight loss

938
Q

Features of trigeminal neuralgia?

A

paroxysmal attacks of pain which may be precipitated by trigger factors

  • pain in trigeminal nerve distribution (cheek or lower jaw)
  • severe= electric shock like, shap, shotting
  • unilateral
  • few secs-2mins and stops suddenly
  • recurrent, refractory period between attacks
  • episodic- may be remission for weeks or months, pain free periods shorten between episodes gradually
  • provoked by light touch to face, eating, talking, exposure to cold air
  • may have lacrimation, nasal congestion, ptosis, facial sweating (autonomic features)
939
Q

‘Atypical’ or ‘mixed’ trigeminal neuralgia?

A

when there is persitent discomfort between episodes/paroxysms

940
Q

Mx for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

carbamazepine= titrated until pain relieved, start at 100mg 2x d then titrate up in steps of 100-200mg every 2w until pain relieved;
typically 200mg 3/4x a day to prevent paroxysms of pain

when pain is in remission then reduce and gradually withdraw dose

if ineffective or contraindicated then specialsit advice

941
Q

When is specialist referral needed in trigeminal neuralgia?

A
  • severe pain or pain that limits ADLs (neuro or pain Mx clinic)
  • atypical CP
  • features suggestive of serious underlying cause
942
Q

Serious conditions that can lead to compression of the trigeminal nerve or cause symptoms similar to those of trigeminal neuralgia?

A
  • tumours= posterior fossa tumours, cavernous sinus masses, extracranial masses
  • MS
  • epidermoid, dermoid, or arachnoid cysts
  • aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation
943
Q

Red flag symptoms and signs in trigeminal neuralgia that may suggest more serious underlying cause?

A

Sensory changes.

Deafness or other ear problems.

History of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally.

Pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (eye socket, forehead, and nose), or bilaterally.

Optic neuritis.

Family history of multiple sclerosis.

Age of onset before 40 years.

944
Q

Drug used for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

carbamazepine

start 100mg bd and titrate up

945
Q

Describe trigeminal neuralgia?

A

unilateral disorder

brief electric shock-like pains, abrupt in onset and termination, limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve

evoked by light touch: washing, shaving, smoking, talking, and brushing the teeth (trigger factors), and frequently occurs spontaneously

small areas in the nasolabial fold or chin may be particularly susceptible to the precipitation of pain (trigger areas)

the pains usually remit for variable periods

946
Q

Trigger ares for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

nasolabial fold or chin

947
Q

Trigger factors for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

light touch:
- shaving
- brushing teeth
- washing
- smoking
- talking

can occur spontaneously

948
Q

Suspected trigeminal neuralgia but failure to respond to treatment or atypical features (e.g. < 50 years old)?

A

refer to neurology

949
Q

unilateral brief electric shock like pains in cheek/lower jaw

triggered by shaving or brushing teeth

lasts few secs then stops suddenly

few attacks a day then none for few weeks and then repeat

A

trigeminal neuralgia

950
Q

Drug for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

carbamazepine (anticonvulsant so think electric shock pain use this)

951
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

neuropsychiatric disorder caused by thiamine deficiency which is most commonly seen in alcoholics

952
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy caused by def in what?

A

thiamine

953
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy commonly seen in who?

A

alcoholics

954
Q

Causes of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

thiamine def in…

  • alcoholics (common)

rare:
- persistent vomiting
- stomach ca
- dietary def

955
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy triad?

A

ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus, ataxia and encephalopathy

956
Q

What occurs in Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

petechial haemorrhages occur in a variety of structures in the brain including the mamillary bodies and ventricle walls.

957
Q

Features of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A
  • oculomotor dysfunction= nystagmus (most common), opthalmoplegia (lateral rectus palsy, conjugate gaze palsy)
  • gait ataxia
  • encephalopathy= confusion, disorientation, indifference and inattentiveness
  • peripheral sensory neuropathy
958
Q

In Wernicke’s encephalopathy triad, what is encephalopathy?

A

confusion, disorientation, indifference, and inattentiveness

959
Q

In Wernicke’s encephalopathy triad, what is included in oculomotor dysfunction (nystagmus/opthalmoplegia)?

A

nystagmus (the most common ocular sign)

ophthalmoplegia: lateral rectus palsy, conjugate gaze palsy

960
Q

Ix for Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A
  • decreased red cell transketolase
  • MRI
961
Q

Mx for Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

urgent replacement of thiamine

962
Q

What if Wernicke’s encephalopathy is not treated?

A

Korsakoff’s syndrome may develop as well= called Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

963
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A
  • antero and retrograde amnesia
  • confabulation
964
Q

What is the difference between confabulation and confusion?

A

Confabulation is a memory error that involves creating false memories, while confusion is a state of being uncertain

confusion=wernickes
confab= korsakoff

965
Q

Relationship between Wernicke’s encephalopathy and Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Wernicke’s:
- ataxia
- nystagmus, opthalmoplegia
- encephalopathy (confusion, disorientation)

Korsakoff’s:
- amnesia (antero and retrograde)
- confabulation)

If Wernicke’s is not treated with thiamine you get Wernicke’s + Korsakoff’s, called= Wernicke-Korsakoff

966
Q

Delirium tremens, Wernicke’s and Korsakoff’s?

A

DT= >72hrs of alcohol withdrawl, confusion, Lulliputain hallucinations, paranoid delusions and tremor

W= acute thiamine def (eg. in alcoholics); triad= opthalmoplegia and nystagmus, ataxia and confusion

K= untreated WE; confabulation, irreversible ST memory loss, time disorientation

967
Q

Chorea?

A

involuntary, rapid, jerky movements which often move from one part of the body to another.

968
Q

Pathophysiology cause of chorea?

A

chorea caused by damage to basal ganglia, esp the caudate nucleus

969
Q

Athetosis?

A

slow sinuous movements of the limbs

970
Q

Chorea vs athetosis

A

C= rapid jerky movements

A= slower sinuous movements

971
Q

Causes of chorea?

A

Huntington’s disease, Wilson’s disease, ataxic telangiectasia

SLE, anti-phospholipid syndrome

rheumatic fever: Sydenham’s chorea

drugs: oral contraceptive pill, L-dopa, antipsychotics
neuroacanthocytosis

pregnancy: chorea gravidarum

thyrotoxicosis

polycythaemia rubra vera

carbon monoxide poisoning

cerebrovascular disease

972
Q

What drugs may cause chorea?

A

oral contraceptive pill, L-dopa, antipsychotics

973
Q

Hemiballism?

A

Ballisic movements are involuntary, sudden, jerking movements which occur contralateral to the side of the lesion.

The ballisic movements primarily affect the proximal limb musculature whilst the distal muscles may display more choreiform-like movements

974
Q

Hemiballism occurs when?

A

following damage to the subthalamic nucleus

975
Q

Symptoms in Hemiballism decrease when?

A

when the pt is asleep

976
Q

Treatment of Hemiballism?

A

antidopaminergic agents eg. haloperidol

977
Q

Example of an antidopaminergic agent?

A

haloperidol

978
Q

Huntington’s disease?

A

inherited neurodegenerative condition

progressive and incurable condition that typically results in death 20 years after the initial symptoms develop.

979
Q

Type of inheritance in Huntingtons?

A

autosomal dominant

980
Q

Genetics in Huntingtons?

A

trinucleotide repeat disorder: repeat expansion of CAG

there is a defect in the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4

autosomal dominant

anticipation

981
Q

As Huntigton’s is a trinucleotide repeat disorder, what phenomenon may be seen?

A

anticipation

982
Q

What is anticipation in Huntingtons?

A

where the disease is present at an earlier age and more severe in successive generations

983
Q

Pathophysiology of Huntingtons?

A

trinucleotide repeat disorder: repeat expansion of CAG

results in degeneration of cholinergic and GABAergic neurons in the striatum of the basal ganglia

due to the defect in the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4

984
Q

When do features of Huntingtons typically develop?

A

after 35yrs

985
Q

Features of Huntingtons?

A

chorea

personality changes (e.g. irritability, apathy, depression) and intellectual impairment

dystonia

saccadic eye movements

dysarthria (speech difficulties)

rigidity

dysphagia

986
Q

Saccadic eye movements, personality change (more irritable) and chorea?

A

Huntingtons

987
Q

Gene mutation in huntingtons?

A

Trinucleotide repeat disorder invl a mutation in HTT gene on chromosome 4 which codes for huntingtin (HTT) protein.

988
Q

What does trinucleotide repeats mean in Huntingtons?

A

repetitions of a sequence of three nucleotides (e.g., CAGCAGCAGCAGCAG).

989
Q

Examples of trinucleotide repeat disorders?

A
  • huntingtons
  • fragile X syndrome
  • Spinocerebellar ataxia
  • Myotonic dystrophy
  • Friedrich ataxia
990
Q

Anticipation is a feature of what disorders?

A

Trinucleotide repeat disorders

991
Q

Anticipation is where successive generations have more repeats in the gene resulting in what?

A

earlier age of onset
increased severity of disease

992
Q

Dystonia?

A

abnormal muscle tone, leading to abnormal postures eg. Huntingtons

993
Q

Rigidity?

A

increased resistance to passive movement of a joint

994
Q

Diagnosis of Huntingtons?

A

genetic testing via a specialist genetic centre and involves pre and post-test counselling.

eg. The child of someone with the disease has a 50% chance of inheriting the faulty gene (it is autosomal dominant). They need to be 18 before they can decide whether to get tested. Your job is to provide information for the patient to make an informed decision for themselves, not to advise them whether to have a test or not. The outcome is usually that the patient will think about it further and return if they have further questions.

995
Q

Mx for Huntingtons?

A

no Tx for slowing or stopping progression of disease

  • genetic counselling
  • breaking bad news effectively
  • MDT
  • physio
  • SALT: if speech and swallowing difficulties
  • SSRIs for depression
  • Advanced care directives
  • End of life care
996
Q

What drug may be used for chorea in Huntingtons?

A

tetrabenazine

997
Q

Role of physiotherapy in Huntingtons?

A

improve mobility, maintain joint function and prevent contractures

998
Q

Contractures?

A

permanent or temporary shortening and stiffening of muscles, tendons, skin, and nearby tissues that limits normal movement in a joint or body part. Contractures can be caused by injury, nerve damage, scarring, or disuse of the muscles

999
Q

Prognosis of Huntingtons?

A

progressive condition

life expectancy is around 10-20yrs after onset of symptoms

1000
Q

Typical cause of death in Huntingtons?

A

aspiration pneumonia or suicide

as disease progresses they become more frail andf susceptible to illness eg. infections, weight loss, falls, pressure ulcers

1001
Q

Dysarthria?

A

speech disorder that makes it difficult to form and pronounce words

1002
Q

Oculogyric crisis?

A

dystonic reaction to certain drugs or medical conditions

1003
Q

Features of Oculogyric crisis?

A

restlessness

agitation

involuntary upward deviation of the eyes

1004
Q

Oculopgyric crisis causes?

A

antipsychotics

metoclopramide

postencephalitic Parkinson’s disease

1005
Q

Oculopgyric crisis Mx?

A

cessation of causative medication if possible

IV antimuscarinic: benztropine or procyclidine

1006
Q

Restless leg syndrome (RLS)?

A

neuro disorder characterised by irresistible urge to move the limbs (usually legs) accompanied by uncomfotable sensations

1007
Q

Symptoms of restless leg syndrome typically worse when?

A

in the evenings, and often associated with sleep disturbance

1008
Q

Pathophysiology of RLS?

A

likely there is a dysfunction of the dopaminergic system

1009
Q

Causes of RLS (restless leg syndrome)?

A

idiopathic

may be secondary to:
- preg
- iron def
- stage 5 CKD
- drugs= some antidepressants, some antipsychotics, lithium

1010
Q

In idiopathic RLS the severity and frequency of symptoms typically…

A

increases over time

1011
Q

Diagnosis of RLS?

A

criteria must all be met:

1) urge to move the legs, usually accompanied by, or felt to be caused by, unpleasant sensations.

2) Symptoms begin or worsen during periods of rest or inactivity such as lying down or sitting.

3) Symptoms are partially or totally relieved by movement, such as walking or stretching, at least as long as the activity continues.

4) Symptoms during rest or inactivity only occur, or are worse, in the evening or night.

5) not primarily caused by another medical or behavioural condition (for example, leg cramps or habitual foot tapping).

1012
Q

Differential diagnosis of RLS?

A

nocturnal leg cramps, peripheral neuropathy, akathisia, intermittent claudication

1013
Q

Ix for RLS?

A

Clinical diagnosis criteria.
No specific to confirm, Ix may help identify underlying cause.

  • serum ferritin (?iron def)
  • renal function, FBC, thyroid function, blood glucose, vit B12
1014
Q

Mx for RLS?

A
  • if underlying condition, treat this
    if not…
  • self help advice
  • reassurance and explanation
  • moderate-severe= drug Tx
  • neuro referral or sleep specialist is Tx unsuccessful or uncertain
1015
Q

Self help advice for RLS?

A

prevent attack= good sleep hygiene, reduce caffeine and alcohol, stop smoking, regular exercise

relieve attack= walking, stretching, apply heat with heat pads or hot bath, relaxation exercises, mental distraction at times of rest, massage affected limbs

1016
Q

Drug Tx for RLS if needed?

A

non-ergot dopamine agonist eg. ropinirole

or

alpha-2-delta ligan (pregabalin or gabapentin) off label

if painful, can use weak opioid instead eg. codeine

1017
Q

spontaneous, continuous lower limb movements that may be associated with paraesthesia

common

FHx may be present

akathisia

worse at night

A

RLS

1018
Q

Clinical features of RLS?

A

uncontrollable urge to move legs (akathisia). Symptoms initially occur at night but as condition progresses may occur during the day.
Symptoms are worse at rest

paraesthesias e.g. ‘crawling’ or ‘throbbing’ sensations

movements during sleep may be noted by the partner - periodic limb movements of sleeps (PLMS)

1019
Q

Akathisia?

A

uncontrollable urge to move legs/be still

1020
Q

Causes and associations of RLS?

A

there is a positive family history in 50% of patients with idiopathic RLS

iron deficiency anaemia
uraemia
diabetes mellitus
pregnancy

1021
Q

1st line drug Tx for RLS?

A

ropinirole

1022
Q

Ropinirole drug class?

A

dopamine agonist

1023
Q

Tics?

A

intermittent, stereotypical, repetitive, involuntary movements.

Around 15% of primary school age children have tics such as blinking and shrugging

1024
Q

Tx options for tics?

A

clonidine

atypical antipsychotics

1025
Q

Innervation of the face?

A

face is innervated by the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V), which has three main branches: the ophthalmic (V1), maxillary (V2), and mandibular (V3) nerves. Pain sensation from the face travels via these nerves to the trigeminal nucleus in the brainstem before being relayed to higher cortical centres. Various structures in the face can give rise to pain including skin, muscles, sinuses, teeth, eyes and neural tissue.

1026
Q

Differential diagnosis for facial pain?

A
  • trigeminal neuralgia= severe electric shock like pain along one or more branches of trigeminal nerve
  • sinusitis= accompanied by nasal discharge or congestion
  • dental problems= dental caries or abscesses- localised facial pain
  • tension-type headache= band like pressure around forehead, can extend into facial regions
  • migraine= unilateral throbbing head and face pain associated with N, V or photophobia
  • giant cell arteritis= older pts, new onset facial pain, can threaten vision
1027
Q

Head injury?

A

trauma to head other than superficial injuries to the face

traumatic brain injury- when head injury results in disturbance of normal brain function; can be classes as mild (aka concussion), moderate or severe

1028
Q

Cx of head injury?

A

death, disability, intracranial lesions (extradural or subdural haematoma, SAH), skull fracture, seizures, hypopituitarism, mood disorders, cognitive impairment

1029
Q

Aim of initial assessment of head injury?

A

rapidly identify RFs for intracranial Cx or cervical spine injury

1030
Q

Immediate admission to hospital following head injury when?

A
  • GCS <15
  • shock or signif injury
  • dangerous cause of injury
  • Hx of bleeding, coag disorders or current anticoag med
  • current alcohol/drug intoxication
  • any loss of consciousness after injury (even if fully alert now)
  • post-traumatic seizure
  • previous brain injury
  • amnesia lasting >5mins
  • persistent headache since injury
  • suspected open or depressed skull fracture or tense fontanelle in child
  • suspected basal skull fracture
  • sigh of penetrating injury or visible trauma to scalp/skull
  • <1yrs: bruise, swelling or laceration >5cm on head
  • suspected cervical spine injury (full spine immobilisation arranged)
  • irritability or altered behaviour, esp <5yrs
  • clinical concern/concern from pt/relatives
  • adult unable to stay with pt for 1st 24hrs after injury
  • possible non-accidential injury, safeguarding concerns, vulnerable person affected
1031
Q

Mx for adults and children who are at low risk of intracranial Cx or cervical spine injury following head injury?

A
  • responsible adult needs to stay with pt for 1st 24hrs following injury, alert for worrying S&S
  • self-care advice
1032
Q

When to refer to appropriate specialist following head injury?

A
  • persistent non-specific symptoms >3m
  • another Cx or cause of head injury suspected
  • concerns or uncertain about the nature or severity of symptoms
1033
Q

What is classed as a dangerous mechanism of head injury?

A

Fall from a height of greater than 1 metre or 5 stairs.

High-speed motor vehicle collision either as a pedestrian, cyclist, or vehicle occupant.

Rollover motor accident or ejection from a motor vehicle.

Accident involving motorized recreational vehicles or bicycle collision.

Diving accident.

1034
Q

Examine pt after head injury?

A
  • Glasgow coma scale
  • vital signs
  • inspect for visible trauma
  • cranial nerve exam incl pupil size and reactivity (fundoscopy: ?retinal haemorrhage or papulloedema)
  • signs of focal neuro deficit
  • signs of basal skull fracture
  • neck tenderness= midline cervical spine tenderness may indicate cervical spine injury
  • range of neck movements
1035
Q

Signs of basal skull fracture?

A
  • clear fluid (?CSF) leaking from ear(s) or nose
  • periorbital haematoma(s) with no damage around eyes= panda eyes
  • bleeding from ear(s), blood behind the ear drum (haemotympanium), new deafness
  • battle’s sign
1036
Q

Battle’s sign?

A

sign of basal skull fracture

bruising behind one or both ears over mastoid process- suggests fracture of the middle cranial fossa

1037
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale?

A

assesses level of consciousness of pt

15 highest (fully awake)
3 lowest (deep coma or death)

1038
Q

What makes up the GCS?

A

Eyes= max 4
Verbal= 5
Motor= 6

so best is E4, V5, M6 = 15

1039
Q

GCS: eyes?

A

open spontaneously= 4

open in response to voice= 3

open to pressure (finger tip stimulus)= 2

doesn’t open= 1

1040
Q

GCS: verbal?

A

orientated and converses normal= 5

confused & disorientated= 4

inappropriate words= 3

incomprehensible sounds= 2

makes no sounds= 1

1041
Q

GCS: motor?

A

obeys simple commands= 6

localises to stimulus= 5

flexion or withdrawl in response to painful stimulus= 4

abnormal flexion in response to painful stimulus= 3

extension in response to painful stimulus= 2

makes no movement in response to pain= 1

1042
Q

GCS: how to assess verbal response in pre-verbal infant?

A

coos & babbles= 5

irritable cries= 4

cries to pain= 3

moans to pain= 2

no response= 1

1043
Q

Full cervical spine immobilisation should be attempted for pt with head injury and any RFs for cervical spinal injury including:

A
  • GCS <15 on initial assessment
  • neck pain/tenderness
  • focal neuro deficit
  • paraesthesia in extremities
1044
Q

Why is it important to manage head injury initially with advanced life support?

A

as inadequate cardiac output will compromise CNS perfusion irrespective of the nature of cranial injury

1045
Q

Extradural haematoma?

A

bleeding into space between dura mater and skull

1046
Q

Extradural haematoma often results from what?

A

acceleration-deceleration trauma or blow to the side of the head

1047
Q

Where do extradural haematomas typically happen?

A

temporal region (pterion region where all skull bones join- thin and weak)

skull fractures cause a rupture of middle meningeal artery

1048
Q

Features of extradural haematoma?

A

raised ICP and some pts may exhibit a lucid interval

1049
Q

Subdural haematoma?

A

bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer

may be acute or chronic

1050
Q

Where do subdural haematomas commonly occur?

A

around frontal and parietal lobes

bridging veins rupture

1051
Q

RFs for subdural haematoma?

A

old age (bridging veins stretched) and alcoholism (bridging veins thin)

1052
Q

Features of subdural haematoma?

A

slower onset of symptoms than extradural

1053
Q

Why do subdural haematomas have slower onset than extradural?

A

bridging veins have lower pressure so delayed onset of symptoms (days-weeks)

1054
Q

Primary brain injury may be what?

A

focal (contusion/ haematoma) or diffuse (diffuse axonal injury)

Diffuse axonal injury occurs as a result of mechanical shearing following deceleration, causing disruption and tearing of axons

1055
Q

Intra-cranial haematomas can be what?

A

extradural, subdural or intracerebral

contusions may occur adjacent to (coup) or contralateral (contre-coup) to the side of impact

1056
Q

When does secondary brain injury?

A

when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury.

The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia

1057
Q

Cushings reflex?

A

physiological response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that can be a sign of impending brain herniation or death (often occurs late)

1058
Q

Cushing’s reflex triad?

A

Widened pulse pressure (increasing systolic, decreasing diastolic)

Bradycardia (decreased heart rate)

Irregular respirations (Cheyne-Stokes breathing)

1059
Q

What can be used when there is life threatening rising ICP eg. following head injury, extradural haematoma?

A

IV mannitol

diffuse cerebral oedema= decompressive craniotomy

1060
Q

Mx of depressed skull fractures that are open?

A

require formal surgical reduction and debridement, closed injuries may be managed nonoperatively if there is minimal displacement

1061
Q

Head injury: when is ICP monitoring appropriate?

A

in those with GCS 3-8 and normal CT scan

1062
Q

Head injury: when is ICP monitoring mandatory?

A

in those with GCS 3-8 and normal CT scan

1063
Q

Head injury: what may hyponatraemia most likely be due to?

A

SIADH

1064
Q

Minimum of cerebral perfusion pressure in adults?

A

70mmHg

1065
Q

Minimum cerebral perfusion pressure in children?

A

40-70mmHg

1066
Q

Pupil size= unilaterally dilated

Light response= sluggish or fixed

Interpretation?

A

3rd nerve compression secondary to tentorial herniation

1067
Q

Pupil size= bilaterally dilated

Light response= sluggish or fixed

Interpretation?

A

poor CNS perfusion

bilateral 3rd nerve palsy

1068
Q

Pupil size= unilaterally dilated or equal

Light response= cross reactive (Marcus-Gunn)

Interpretation?

A

optic nerve injury

1069
Q

Pupil size= bilaterally constricted

Light response= may be difficult to assess

Interpretation?

A

opiates

pontine lesions

metabolic encephalopathy

1070
Q

Pupil size= unilaterally constricted

Light response= preserved

Interpretation?

A

sympathetic pathway disruption

1071
Q

Following head injury, what pts need a CT head within 1hr?

A

GCS < 13 on initial assessment

GCS < 15 at 2 hours post-injury

suspected open or depressed skull fracture
any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign).

post-traumatic seizure.

focal neurological deficit.

more than 1 episode of vomiting

1072
Q

Following head injury, what pts need CT head within 8hrs?

A

for adults with any of the following risk factors who have experienced some loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury:

  • age 65 years or older
    any history of bleeding or clotting disorders including anticogulants
  • dangerous mechanism of injury (a pedestrian or cyclist struck by a motor vehicle, an occupant ejected from a motor vehicle or a fall from a height of greater than 1 metre or 5 stairs)
  • more than 30 minutes’ retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury
1073
Q

Pt on warfarin sustained a head injury with no indications for a CT head?

A

perform CT head within 8hrs of injury

1074
Q

Intracerebral (or intraparenchymal haemorrhage)?

A

collection of blood within the parenchyma of the brain

1075
Q

Causes/RFs of intracerebral haematoma (haemorrhage)?

A

hypertension, vascular lesion (e.g. aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation), cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour or infarct (particularly in stroke patients undergoing thrombolysis).

1076
Q

Features of intracerebral haematoma?

A

present similarly to ischaemic stroke (which is why it is crucial to get CT head in all stroke pts prior to thrombolysis)

or present with decrease in consciousness

1077
Q

Ix for intracerebral haematoma?

A

contrast CT head= hyperdensity (bright lesion) within the substance of the brain

1078
Q

Mx of intracerebral haematoma?

A

often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

1079
Q

What does extradural (epidural) haematoma look like on CT head?

A

lemon shape (biconvex)

hyperdense

between dura and skull

CONFINED to suture lines

associated features- skull fractures

1080
Q

What does subdural haematoma look like on head CT?

A

banana shape (cresent)

hyperdense if acute, hypodense if chronic

between dura and arachnoid

associated features= trauma, anticoag, elderly, alcoholics

1081
Q

What does SAH look like on CT head?

A

irregular shape

hyperdense

location- sulci, cisterns

associated features- aneurysms, trauma

1082
Q

What does intracerebral haematoma look like on head CT?

A

round/irregular shape

hyperdense (acute), may be surrounded by hypodense oedema in more chronic stages

brain parenchyma

associated features- HTN, trauma, tumour ect

1083
Q

What haematoma is confined by suture lines?

A

extradural

1084
Q

What haematoma may be more chronic, more common in elderly pts & on anticoags?

A

subdural

1085
Q

Hemotympanum?

A

blood visible behind tympanic membrane in ear eg. in basal skull fracture

1086
Q

What should you NOT do in basal skull fractures?

A

insert NG or nasotracheal tube as risk of tube entering the cranial cavity if fracture involves cribriform plate or ethmoid bone (anterior cranial fossa); can lead to brain injury or infection

1087
Q

Pneumochephalus?

A

presence of air within cranial cavity, can be caused by basal skull fracture allowing air to enter intracranial space (Cx of basal skull fracture)

1088
Q

Cluster headaches?

A

most common ‘trigeminal autonomic cephalalgia’ and characterised by frequently recurring, localised short lasting but severe headache, usually accompanied by autonomic symptoms

1089
Q

What type of symptoms can accompany headache in cluster headaches?

A

autonomic symptoms

1090
Q

Cluster headaches frequency of attacks?

A

usually last between 2w and 3m (clusters or bouts)

  • Episodic (90%)= occur in periods lasting from 7d to 1yr and separated by pain free periods lasting at least 3m
  • Chronic= occur for 1yr or longer without remission, or with remission periods lasting <3m
1091
Q

What may cluster headaches be due to?

A

nuerovascular, genetic and environmental factors (alcohol, smoking, exposure to volatile substances)

1092
Q

Cx of cluster headaches?

A

signif impact of QOL: work, home, relationships

prolonged and severe= suicidal ideation

1093
Q

Cluster headaches with increasing age?

A

may be less frequent bouts and longer periods of remission between bouts with increasing age

1094
Q

ICHD classifies cluster headaches as what?

A

at least 5 attacks of severe or very severe unilateral orbital, supraorbital and/or temporal pain lasting 15mins-3hrs (untreated) & either or both of:

  • sense of restlessness or agitiation
  • 1 of ipsilateral= lacrimation or conjunctival injection; nasal congestion/rhinorrhea; eyelid swelling; forehead and facial sweating or flushing; sensation of fullness in ear; miosis and/or ptosis
1095
Q

Misosis?

A

XS pupillary constriction

1096
Q

Suspected cluster headaches?

A

specialist advice or arrange urgent neuro referral for 1st suspected bout to confirm diagnosis

1097
Q

When to refer to neuro/specialist advice for cluster headaches?

A
  • uncertain
  • atypical symptoms
  • ?managing acute attacks
  • verapamil being considered for preventative Tx
  • symptoms persist despite Tx
  • needs Tx and is pregnant
1098
Q

What should pts avoid in acute attacks of cluster headaches?

A

oral triptans or other oral analgesia

1099
Q

Mx for cluster headaches?

A
  • assess triggers
  • acute attacks= sumcut sumatriptan or intranasal sumatriptan/zolmitriptan
  • short burst high flow 100% O2 for acute attacks
1100
Q

Average amount of cluster headaches per ‘bout’?

A

may experience 1–3 attacks per day (up to 8) and they usually occur daily for 2–3 months at a time. They usually last 2 weeks to 3 months, and most often occur every 1–2 years.

1101
Q

Potential triggers for cluster headaches?

A

alcohol, smoking, diet, stress, anxiety, mood disorders

1102
Q

Drug Tx for acute attacks of cluster headaches?

A

subcut sumatriptan= 6mg one dose, if respond then 6mg after 1hr if recurs; max 12mg a day

or

sumatriptan intranasal spray (18yrs-65)= 10-20mg into 1 nostril, if recurs can take another after 2hrs (max 40mg a d)

if multiple attacks:
+ high flow 100% oxygen 12-15L per min via non-rebreather face mask for 15-20mins

1103
Q

Drug prophylaxis for cluster headaches that can be initiated by specialist?

A

verapamil

1104
Q

What to do if verapamil is being considered for preventative Tx for cluster headaches?

A

needs ECG monitoring before and during Tx

1105
Q

Typical clusters in cluster headaches?

A

clusters lasting several weeks, with clusters themselves typically once a yr

1106
Q

Are cluster headaches severe?

A

known to be one of the most painful conditions

1107
Q

RFs for cluster headaches?

A

men (3:1)
smokers
alcohol may trigger attack

1108
Q

Features of cluster headaches?

A

intense sharp, stabbing pain around one eye:
- pain typical occurs once or twice a day, each episode lasting 15 mins - 2 hours
- the patient is restless and agitated during an attack due to the severity

  • clusters typically last 4-12 weeks
  • accompanied by redness, lacrimation, lid swelling
  • nasal stuffiness
  • miosis and ptosis in a minority
1109
Q

Ix for cluster headaches?

A
  • clinical
  • MRI with gadolinium contrast= rule out underlying brain lesions
1110
Q

Overview of cluster headache Mx?

A

acute:
- 100% oxygen (80% response rate within 15 minutes)
- subcutaneous triptan (75% response rate within 15 minutes)

prophylaxis= verapamil

1111
Q

Trigeminal autonomic cephalgia?

A

term used to group number of conditions: cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT)

1112
Q

paroxysmal hemicrania responds very well to

A

indomethacin

1113
Q

Patient who initially loses, briefly regains and then loses again consciousness after a low-impact head injury. The brief regain in consciousness is termed the ‘lucid interval’. What condition may this be?

A

extradural haematoma

1114
Q

In extradural haematoma, when will the lucid interval be lost?

A

due to expanding haematoma and brain herniation

haematoma expands the uncus of the temporal lobe herniates around the tentorium cerebelli and the patient develops a fixed and dilated pupil due to the compression of the parasympathetic fibers of the third cranial nerve.

1115
Q

What may happen to pts pupils if they have an extradural haematoma and why?

A

fixed and dilated pupil due to the compression of the parasympathetic fibers of the third cranial nerve.

happens whenhaematoma expands the uncus of the temporal lobe herniates around the tentorium cerebelli

1116
Q

On CT head= biconvex (or lentiform), hyperdense collection around the surface of the brain. They are limited by the suture lines of the skull. Condition?

A

extradural haematoma

1117
Q

Extradural haematoma Mx?

A

no neurological deficit, cautious clinical and radiological observation is appropriate.

The definitive treatment is craniotomy and evacuation of the haematoma.

1118
Q

Most common cause of extradural haematoma?

A

‘low-impact’ trauma (e.g. a blow to the head or a fall). The collection is often in the temporal region since the thin skull at the pterion overlies the middle meningeal artery and is therefore vulnerable to injury.

1119
Q

Trauma to pterion?

A

think extradural haematoma
(pterion overlies middle meningeal artery)

1120
Q

FIbromyalgia?

A

syndrome of widespread pain throughout the body with tender points at specific anatomical sites

cause is unknown

1121
Q

Gender and age fibromyalgia is most common?

A

women 5x more
30-50yrs

1122
Q

Features of fibromyalgia?

A
  • chronic pain= multiple site, sometimes ‘pain all over’
  • cognitive impairment= fibro fog
  • sleep disturbance, headaches, dizziness
1123
Q

‘pain all over’

A

fibromyalgia

1124
Q

Diagnosis of fibromyalgia?

A

clinical:
American College of Rheumatology classification criteria= 9 pairs of tender points on the body, if pt is enter in at least 11/18 then diagnosis likely

1125
Q

Mx of fibromyalgia?

A
  • psychosocial and MDT approach
  • explanation
  • aerobic exercise
  • CBT
  • meds= pregabalin, duloxetine, amitriptyline
1126
Q

Summarise temporal arteritis?

A

Typically patient > 60 years old

Usually rapid onset (e.g. < 1 month) of unilateral headache

Jaw claudication (65%)

Tender, palpable temporal artery

Raised ESR

1127
Q

Headache differentials= single acute episode?

A

meningitis
encephalitis
subarachnoid haemorrhage
head injury
sinusitis
glaucoma (acute closed-angle)
tropical illness e.g. Malaria

1128
Q

Headache differentials= chronic?

A

chronically raised ICP
Paget’s disease
psychological

1129
Q

ICHD stands for?

A

international classification of headache disorder

1130
Q

Medication overuse headache defined by ICHD?

A

Headache occurring on 15 or more days per month in a person with a pre-existing primary headache disorder, which develops as a consequence of regular overuse of one or more drugs that can be taken for acute and/or symptomatic treatment of headache, for more than 3 months. It usually, but not always, resolves after the overused medication is stopped.

1131
Q

How many meds do you need to take that may cause medication overuse headache?

A

Ergotamines, triptans, opioids, or combination analgesics are taken on 10 days or more per month.

Simple analgesics such as paracetamol, NSAIDs, or aspirin (either alone or in any combination) are taken on 15 days or more per month.

usually for >3m

1132
Q

Type of headache disorder in medication overuse headache?

A

chronic

pre-exisiting headache is usually migraine (60-80%) or rarely tension type

generally of the same phenotype as the primary headache

1133
Q

Cx of medication overuse headache?

A

stress, anxiety, depression, sleep disturbance, increased risk of transition from episodic to chronic migraine if untreated

1134
Q

Mx for medication overuse headache?

A

stop overused medication(s) abruptly (or gradual if strong opioid) for at least 1m, headache may worsen initially and may be other initial withdrawl symptoms

keep headache diary

review 4-8w after withdrawl

advice to prevent relapse= prophylactic meds for underlying primary headache disorder, restrict future use of acute meds

1135
Q

When to refer to neuro/specialist advice in medication overuse headaches?

A
  • uncertain or atypical
  • uncertain how to manage
  • previous drug withdrawl attempts unsuccessful
  • person is overusing strong opioids, barbiturates or tranquilizers, or signif comorbidities needing specialist Mx
1136
Q

How long until headache improves after stopping meds for medication overuse headache?

A

usually improves 1-2w after but recovery may continue for 2-3m

1137
Q

Advice on acute meds once recovered from medication overuse headache (finished withdrawl)?

A

if needed 2m following withdrawl, restrict to no more than 2d a w to reduce to risk of recurrence

1138
Q

What drugs are more at risk for medication overuse headache?

A

opioids and triptans

1139
Q

How quick to withdraw meds in medication overuse headache?

A

simple analgesics and triptans= abrupt (may initially worsen headache)

opioid= gradually

1140
Q

Withdrawl symptoms in medication overuse headache?

A

V, hypotension, tachycardia, restlessness, sleep disturbance, anxiety

1141
Q

Subdural haemorrhage: blood is not within the substance of the brain and therefore is called what?

A

extra-axial or extrinsic lesion

1142
Q

Subdural haemorrhage uni or bilateral?

A

can be either

1143
Q

Acute subdural haematoma?

A

Symptoms usually develop within 48 hours of injury, characterised by rapid neurological deterioration

1144
Q

Subacute subdural haematoma?

A

Symptoms manifest within days to weeks post-injury, with a more gradual progression.

1145
Q

Chronic subdural haematoma?

A

Common in the elderly, developing over weeks to months. Patients may not recall a specific head injury.

1146
Q

What is common in chronic SDH?

A

Patients frequently exhibit a lucid interval followed by a gradual decline in consciousness.

1147
Q

Altered Mental Status: Ranging from mild confusion to deep coma. Fluctuations in the level of consciousness are common in what type of haematoma?

A

subdural

1148
Q

Headache in subdural haematoma?

A

often localised to one side, worsening over time

1149
Q

What may occur in subdural haemorrhage, esp in acute or expanding haematomas?

A

seizures

1150
Q

Possible physical exam findings in subdural haematoma?

A

Papilloedema: Indicates raised intracranial pressure.

Pupil Changes: Unilateral dilated pupil, especially on the side of the haematoma, indicating compression of the third cranial nerve.

Gait Abnormalities: Including ataxia or weakness in one leg.

Hemiparesis or Hemiplegia: Reflecting the mass effect and midline shift.

1151
Q

Possible behavioural and cognitive changes in subdural haematoma?

A

Memory Loss: Especially in chronic SDH.

Personality Changes: Irritability, apathy, or depression.

Cognitive Impairment: Difficulty with attention, problem-solving, and other executive functions.

1152
Q

3 associated features of subdural haematoma?

A

Nausea and Vomiting: Secondary to increased intracranial pressure.

Drowsiness: Progressing to stupor and coma in severe cases.

Signs of Increased Intracranial Pressure: Such as bradycardia, hypertension, and respiratory irregularities (Cushing’s triad).

1153
Q

Bradycardia, hypertension and resp abnormalities?

A

cushings triad= raised ICP

1154
Q

Summary of acute subdural haematoma?

A

collection of fresh blood

mostly commonly caused by high-impact trauma (extradural more low impact)

often other underlying brain injuries due to trauma

presentation ranges from incidential finding in trauma to severe coma and coning due to herniation

1155
Q

Ix for acute subdural haematoma?

A

head CT= hyperdense crescent collection not limited by suture lines; large ones will push on the brain (mass effect) and cause midline shift or herniation

1156
Q

Mx of acute subdural haematomas?

A

small or incidental= observation

surgery= monitoring ICP and decompressive craniectomy

1157
Q

Coning?

A

serious medical emergency that occurs when the cerebellar tonsils move through the foramen magnum and compress the medulla oblongata

Coning can lead to death when the brain stem stops working. The brain stem controls vital functions like consciousness, awareness, breathing, and heart rate and blood pressure regulation.

Intractable headache
Head tilt
Neck stiffness
Decreased level of consciousness
Flaccid paralysis
Dilated pupils
Drowsiness
Difficulty concentrating
High blood pressure or blood pressure that’s too low
Loss of reflexes or increased reflexes
Seizures

1158
Q

Summarise chronic subdural haemorrhage?

A

collection of blood in subdural space that has been present for w-m

rupture of small bridging veins rupture and cause slow bleeding

elderly and alcoholics more at risk as have brain atrophy so fragile or taut veins

Presentation is typically a several week to month progressive history of either confusion, reduced consciousness or neurological deficit.

1159
Q

What type of haemorrhage can shaken baby syndrome cause?

A

subdural

infants have fragile bridging veins that can rupture

1160
Q

Ix for chronic subdural haematoma?

A

CT= crescentic in shape, not restricted by suture lines and compress the brain (‘mass effect’). Hypodense (dark) compared to the substance of the brain.

1161
Q

Mx of chronic subdural haematoma?

A

incidental or small with no neuro deficit= conservative with the hope it will dissolve with time

if confused, neuro deficit or severe imaging findings= decompression with burr holes

1162
Q

Giant cell arteritis (GCA)?

A

chronic vasculitis characterised by granulomatous inflam in walls of medium and large arteries

typically >50yrs

1163
Q

What does GCA stand for?

A

giant cell arteritis

1164
Q

Cx of GCA?

A
  • vision loss
  • large artery Cx (aortic aneurysms, aortic dissection, large artery stenosis)
  • CVD eg. stroke
1165
Q

How to prevent Cx of GCA?

A

Tx with corticosteroids

1166
Q

Can pt with GCA get relapses?

A

common, occur in 50% of cases

1167
Q

When to suspect GCA?

A

pt is 50yrs + with:
- new onset headache, unilateral in temporal area and/or
- temporal artery abnormality eg. tenderness, thickening or nodularity

1168
Q

Is GCA serious?

A

medical emergency

1169
Q

S&S of GCA?

A
  • new onset headache, unilateral, temporal area
  • vision loss or diplopia
  • scalp tenderness
  • intermittent jaw claudication
  • fever, fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, depression
  • features of polymyalgia rheumatica
  • neuro features eg. stroke
  • bruits, BP diff between arms or intermittent limb claudication
1170
Q

What condition is associated with GCAA?

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

1171
Q

Pt with new visual loss or diplopia?

A

urgent (same day) assessment; may have high dose corticosteroids whilst awaiting opthalmology transfer

?GCA

1172
Q

Suspected GCA?

A
  • same day urgent assessment by opthalmology if new vision loss/diplopia
  • other refer to secondary care using local fast track GCA pathway= rheumatologist review same day or within 3d
  • strongly suspected= immediately give high dose corticosteroids
  • can do FBC, ESR, CRP but don’t delay referral
1173
Q

Prognostic factors and cormorbidities relevant to Tx of GCA?

A

infection, diabetes, HTN, glaucoma, peptic ulcer, bone fracture risk

consider preventative measures= bone and/or GI protection

1174
Q

Tx for GCA?

A
  • visual symptoms= 60-100mg oral pred for up to 3d
  • no visual symptoms= 40-60mg oral pred per day

continue until GCA symptoms and inflam markers resolve

once in clinical remission, tapering dose down; Tx duration usually 1-2yrs

1175
Q

Why regular review in GCA?

A

to monitor for disease relapse and steroid-related adverse effects

1176
Q

Relapse of GCA?

A

Depending on the clinical situation an increase in corticosteroid or addition of adjunctive treatment may be indicated.

Relapse with new-onset visual disturbance requires urgent (same day) assessment by ophthalmology.

1177
Q

Headache in GCA?

A

most common symptom; may not be present; temporal in location but may vary

may have tenderness, thickening or nodularity of temporal artery; sometimes overlying skin is red and pulsation may be reduced or absent

1178
Q

Vision disturbance in GCA?

A

loss of vision, diplopia or changes in colour vision

may be transient or permanent

1179
Q

What fundoscopic findings that are not specific to GCA but may be present?

A

pallor and oedema of optic disc, ‘cotton wool’ patches and small haemorrhages in retina (due to vision loss)

1180
Q

Intermittent jaw claudication in GCA?

A

pain in jaw muscles (masseter after mins of chewing)

intermitted claudication may affect tongue or muscles involved in swallowing

1181
Q

Jaw symptoms in GCA vs MG?

A

GCA=pain after mins of chewing

MG= fatigue when chewing

1182
Q

Features of polymyalgia rheymatica?

A

proximal muscle pain, stiffness and tenderness

in 40% pts with GCA

1183
Q

Neuro and resp/ENT features in GCA?

A

Neuro (30%)= mono/polyneuropathy of arms or legs; upper cranial nerve palsies

Resp/ENT occasionally= audio vestibular symptoms, hoarseness, cough, sore throat

1184
Q

Differential diagnosis of GCA?

A
  • herpes zoster
  • migraine/cluster headaches
  • acute angle closure glaucoma
  • retinal TIA and embolic visual deficits
  • temporomandibular joint pain, sinus disease and ear problems
  • cervical spondylosis, upper cervical spine disease
  • ankylosing spondylitis
  • malignancy eg. myeloma, cranial
  • connective tissue disease eg. SLE
  • vasculitis= grandulomatosis with polyangiitis, Churg-Strauss syndrome, polyarteritis nodosa
1185
Q

Suspected GCA, what MUST you give immediately to prevent vision loss?

A

oral pred

60-100mg up to 3d if already vision loss (prevent permanent)

no vision loss= 40-60mg per d

1186
Q

Another name for GCA?

A

temporal arteritis

1187
Q

Main features in GCA?

A
  • typically >60yrs
  • rapid onset <1m
  • headache
  • jaw claudication
  • vision loss, diplopia
  • tender palpable temporal artery
  • 50% will have PMR
  • lethargy, low grade fever, night sweats, depression, anorexia
1188
Q

Why is vision testing in GCA key and why?

A
  • anterior ischemic optic neuropathy accounts for the majority of ocular complications. It results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery (a branch of the ophthalmic artery) → ischaemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins
  • may result in temporary visual loss - amaurosis fugax
  • permanent visual loss is the most feared complication of temporal arteritis and may develop suddenly
  • diplopia may also result from the involvement of any part of the oculomotor system (e.g. cranial nerves)
1189
Q

Ix for GCA?

A

-temporal artery biopsy= skip lesions

  • raised inflam markers (ESR >50, CRP may be high)
  • creatine kinease and EMG normal
1190
Q

Summarise Tx for GCA?

A
  • urgent high dose corticosteroids before temporal artery biopsy
  • urgent opthalmology review (same day)= visual damage often irreversible
  • bisphosphonates (bone protection as on steroids)
  • may need GI protection
1191
Q

In GCA, if there is evolving vision loss what should you give?

A

= if evolving visual loss give IV methylpred before starting high dose oral pred

1192
Q

Tension-type headache?

A

most common primary headache disorder, not associated with another underlying condition

1193
Q

ICDH categorises tension headaches according to what?

A

frequency of attacks

1194
Q

Types of tension headaches?

A
  • infrequent episodic= <1d of headache per month (usually self-limiting)
  • frequent episodic= at least 10 episodes of headache occuring on <15d per month, for more than 3m
  • chronic= frequent episodic attacks, with 15d+ of headaches per m, for more than 3m, in absence of medication overuse
1195
Q

Cause/mechanism of tension headaches?

A

peripheral pain mechanisms may play role in episodic TH and central pain mechanisms & heightened sensitivity to pain more important in chronic

1196
Q

Cx of tension headaches?

A

frequent episodes can impact QOL icl work, home, school

1197
Q

Features of tension headaches?

A
  • recurrent episodes of headache lasting 30mins-7d not associated with N/V
  • may be associated with no more than one of photophobia or phonophobia and..
  • at least 2 of: bilateral, pressing, tightening, non-pulsating; mild or moderate intensity; not aggravated by routine physical activity (walking or climbing stairs)
  • neuro exam normal and no other cause found
1198
Q

Mx of episodic tension headache?

A
  • reassurance
  • risk of medication overuse headache with acute Tx
  • simple analgesia= paracetmamol, NSAIDs, aspirin but avoid opioids
  • triggers= stress, neck pain, sleep disorders
1199
Q

Mx of frequent episodic or chronic tension type headache?

A
  • acupuncture may help
  • physio, exercise, CBT and/or relaxation techniques
  • trial amitriptyline drug prophylaxis
  • headache diary
1200
Q

What drug could be considered prophylactic for tension headaches (frequent episodic or chronic)?

A

amitriptyline

10mg every night, increase by 10-25 every 1-2w up to max dose 150mg
trial for 2-3m
if good response for min 6m, consider gradually reducing

1201
Q

When to refer to neuro or specialist advice for tension headaches?

A
  • red flags
  • serious underlying cause suspected
  • uncertain
  • persist despite Tx
1202
Q

Tight band around head type of headache?

A

tension headache

1203
Q

Tension vs migraine?

A

M= typically unilateral

T= bilateral

1204
Q

CP of tension headache?

A

often described as a ‘tight band’ around the head or a pressure sensation.

tends to be of a lower intensity than migraine

not associated with aura, nausea/vomiting or aggravated by routine physical activity

may be related to stress

may co-exist with migraine

1205
Q

Radiculopathy?

A

neuro state in which conduction is limited or blocked along a spinal nerve or its roots

different to radicular pain but commonly occur together

1206
Q

radicular pain?

A

caused by compression of nerve root due to cervical disc herniation or degenerative spondylotic changes, can occur without compression (eg. inflam)

1207
Q

Radiculopathy vs radicular pain?

A

radiculopathy= conduction limited or blocked along spinal nerve or roots

radicular pain= usually due to compression of nerve root eg. due to cervical disc herniation or degenerative spondylotic changes but can occur due to inflam of the nerve

1208
Q

Cervical radiculopathy?

A

pain and weakness and/or numbness in 1 or both of upper extremities, which corresponds to dermatome of the involved cervical nerve root

1209
Q

Cervical radiculopathy pain?

A

often occurs alongside neck pain secondary to compression or irritation of nerve roots in cervical spine

1210
Q

Where can pt get pain in cervical radiculopathy?

A

neck
shoulders
upper back
chest

1211
Q

Most common causes of cervical radiculopathy?

A

degenerative changes eg. cervical disc herniation and spindylosis

1212
Q

cervical radiculopathy most common in what age group?

A

50-54yrs

1213
Q

Around 88% of pts with cervical radiculopathy will improve when?

A

within 4 weeks with non-operative Mx

most will improve regardless of Tx

1214
Q

What tests can be done to help identify cervical radiculopathy?

A

1) The Spurling test.

2) Arm squeeze test.

3) Axial traction — a combination of a positive Spurling’s test, axial traction test, and arm squeeze test increases the likelihood of cervical radiculopathy.

4) Upper limb neurodynamic tests — a combination of four neurodynamic tests and an arm squeeze test can rule out cervical radiculopathy.

1215
Q

Diagnosis of cervical radiculopathy?

A

clinical

don’t usually need cervical x-ray or imaging/Ix

1216
Q

cervical radiculopathy: Mx if pt has neck pain for less than 4-6w and no objective neuro signs eg. ?cervical radiculopathy

A
  • reassurance and advice
  • oral analgesia
  • consider= amitriptyline, duloxetine, pregabalin or gabapentin
  • consider referral for physio
1217
Q

cervical radiculopathy: Mx if pt has neck pain 4-6w or more or objective neuro signs?

A

refer for MRI and consider invasive procedures eg. interlaminar cerical epidural injections, transforaminal injections or spinal surgery

1218
Q

cervical radiculopathy: what to consider examining for if pt presents with neck pain?

A

Kernig’s sign (painful/resisted extension of leg bent at hip and knee) and Brudzinski’s sign (reflective flexion of the knees when the person is on his/her back and the neck is bent forwards) to demonstrate nuchal rigidity if meningitis is suspected

1219
Q

When may MRI be indicated in pts with cervical radiculopathy?

A

complex cervical radiculopathy eg. high suspicion of myelopathy or abscess, persistent or progressive neuro findings, failure to improve after 4-6w of conservative Tx

1220
Q

Symptoms of cervical radiculopathy?

A
  • pain in neck, shoulder +/or arm that approximates to a dermatome
  • pain may wake pt up at night
  • sensory= shooting pains, numbness, hyperaesthesia

sensory>motor

  • motor= muscle weakness, spasm
1221
Q

Most common nerve root affected in cervical radiculopathy?

A

C7 then C6

retro-orbital and temporal pain suggest referral from upper levels (C1 to C3) and can mimic GCA

1222
Q

Signs of cervical radiculopathy?

A
  • postural asymmetry= head to one side or flexed, as decompresses nerve root
  • neck movements= restricted, sharp pain may radiate to arms (esp on extension or bending or turning to affected side)
  • neuro problems= upper limb weakness, paraesthesia, dermatomal sensory or motor deficit, diminished tendon reflexes at appropriate level
1223
Q

Atypical signs of cervical radiculopathy?

A

deltoid weakness, scapular winging, weakness of intrinsic muscles of the hand, chest or deep breast pain, headaches

1224
Q

cervical radiculopathy: if postural asymmetry is long-standing, what may be present?

A

muscle weakness

1225
Q

cervical radiculopathy: nerve root symptoms should normally arise from what?

A

single nerve root, if there is involvement of more than one it suggests a more widespread neuro disorder

1226
Q

Common cervical radiculopathies…

C5:
- muscle weakness?
- reflex changes?
- sensory changes?

A

muscle weakness= shoulder abduction and flexion, elbow flexion

reflex changes= biceps

sensory changes= lateral arm

1227
Q

Common cervical radiculopathies…

C6:
- muscle weakness?
- reflex changes?
- sensory changes?

A

muscle weakness= elbow flexion, wrist extension

reflex changes= biceps, supinator

sensory changes= lateral forearm, thumb, index finger

1228
Q

Common cervical radiculopathies…

C7:
- muscle weakness?
- reflex changes?
- sensory changes?

A

muscle weakness= elbow extension, writst flexion, finger extension

reflex changes= triceps

sensory changes= middle finger

1229
Q

Common cervical radiculopathies…

C8:
- muscle weakness?
- reflex changes?
- sensory changes?

A

muscle weakness= finger flexion

reflex changes= none

sensory changes= medial side lower forearm, ring and little fingers

1230
Q

Common cervical radiculopathies…

T1:
- muscle weakness?
- reflex changes?
- sensory changes?

A

muscle weakness= finger abduction and adduction

reflex changes= none

sensory changes= medial side upper forearm, lower arm

1231
Q

Retro-orbital and temporal pain referral from where?

A

C1 to C3 cervical radiculopathy but can mimic GCA

1232
Q

Red flags in cervical radiculopathy?

A
  • malignancy, infection or inflam= B symptoms; lymphadenopathy, excruciating pain, tenderness over vertebral body, N&V, visual loss, erythema
  • Cervical myelopathy
  • headaches, facial pain, ataxia, vertigo, before age 20 or after 55yrs, altered cognitive state
  • Hx of ca, TB, arthritis, immunosupression, drug abuse, AIDs
  • Hx of violet trauma (minor trauma may fracture spine in pts with osteoporosis
  • RFs for oestoporosis
1233
Q

Red flags of cervical radiculopathy in pts under 20yrs and over 50yrs?

A

under 20:
Altered hair distribution.
Birthmarks.
Congenital abnormalities.
Family history.
Infections related to substance misuse.
Skin tags — these are associated with congenital abnormalities, such as thyroglossal duct cysts or spinal dysraphism.

Over 50:
History of cancer.
Vascular disease.

1234
Q

Mx of cervical radiculopathy if been present for less than 4-6w and no objective neuro signs?

A
  • reassure
  • encourage activity and return to normal lifestyle eg. work asap
  • do not drive if range of motion of neck is restricted
  • firm pillow to support neck; do not use cervical collars as may prolong symptoms (may prolong symptoms)
  • oral analgesia= NSAIDs, paracetamol, codeine; consider amitriptyline, duloxetine, pregabalin or gabapentin for neuropathic pain
  • consider referral for physio= strengthening and stretching exercises
  • follow up review
1235
Q

Mx of cervical radiculopathy if been present for more than 4-6w or objective neuro signs?

A
  • refer for MRI and to consider invasive procedures, eg. interlaminar cervical epidural injections, transforaminal injections, or spinal surgery.
  • ?surgery
1236
Q

Indication for surgery in cervical radiculopathy?

A

unremitting radicular pain despite 6–12 weeks of conservative treatments, symptoms are disabling, or there is progressive motor weakness, and where MRI shows nerve root compression.

1237
Q

Cervical myelopathy vs radiculopathy?

A

Cervical myelopathy= caused by compression of the spinal cord, this condition can affect the entire spinal cord and can cause weakness, difficulty walking, and problems moving small objects.

Cervical radiculopathy= caused by compression or irritation of a nerve in the neck, this condition is often called a “pinched nerve”. Symptoms include pain that radiates into the shoulder, as well as muscle weakness and numbness that travels down the arm and into the hand

1238
Q

Cervical spondylosis?

A

degenerative condition affecting the cervical spine

basically osteoarthritis of the cervical vertebral bodies

1239
Q

If cervical spondylosis causes the spinal canal to be narrowed what can happen?

A

can compress on spinal cord resulting in neuro dysfunction

1240
Q

How common do pts with cervical spondylosis have myelopathy?

A

5-10% of pts

1241
Q

Features of cervical spondylitic myelopathy?

A

a variety of motor weakness, sensory loss and bladder/bowel dysfunction may be seen

neck pain

wide-based, ataxic or spastic gait

upper motor neuron weakness in the lower legs - increased reflexes, increased tone and upgoing plantars

bladder dysfunction e.g. urgency, retention

1242
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

immune mediated demyelination of peripheral nervous system often triggered by an infection

1243
Q

What infection most commonly causes Guillain-Barre?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

1244
Q

Initial symptoms of Guillain-Barre?

A

65% have back/leg pain in initial stages of illness

1245
Q

Characteristic features of Guillain-Barre?

A

progressive ascending symmetrical weakness of all the limbs; legs are affected first

  • reflexes reduced or absent
  • sensory symptoms (distal paraesthesia), very few sensory signs.
1246
Q

progressive ascending symmetrical weakness of all the limbs; legs are affected first; following bout of Campylobacter jejuni infection (eg. gastroenteritis)?

A

Guillain-Barre

1247
Q

Features of Guillain-Barre except from the weakness, absent/reduced reflexes and mild distal paraestheia?

A
  • may be Hx of gastroenteritis
  • Resp muscle weakness
  • autonomic invl= urinary retention, diarrhoea
  • cranial nerve involvement= diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness common
1248
Q

Guillain-Barre autonomic involvement?

A

urinary retention
diarrhoea

1249
Q

Less common findings in Guillain-Barre?

A

papilloedema= 2 to reduced CSF resorption

1250
Q

Diagnosis for Guillain-Barre?

A
  • clinical= Brighton criteria and supported by…
  • LP
  • Nerve conduction studies may be done
1251
Q

What does LP show in Guillain-Barre?

A

rise in protein with normal WCC (albuminocytologic dissociation) - in 66%

1252
Q

What do nerve conduction studies show in Guillain-Barre?

A

decreased motor nerve conduction velocity (due to demyelination)

prolonged distal motor latency

increased F wave latency

1253
Q

What NS does Guillain-Barre affect?

A

peripheral

1254
Q

What infections are associated with Guillain-Barre?

A

Campylobacter jejuni, cytomegalovirus (CMV) and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

1255
Q

Pathophysiology of Guillain-Barre?

A

Due to a process called molecular mimicry.

The B cells of the immune system create antibodies against the antigens on the triggering pathogen.

These antibodies also match proteins on the peripheral neurones. They may target proteins on the myelin sheath or the nerve axon itself.

1256
Q

Timeline of Guillain-Barre presentation?

A

typically within 4w of the triggering infection

begin in feet and ascend up

peak within 2-4w

recovery period that can last m-yrs

1257
Q

Mx of Guillain-Barre?

A
  • IV immunoglobulins (IVIG) 1st line
  • Plasmapheresis alternative to IVIG
  • supportive
  • VTE prophylaxis (PE leading cause of death)
1258
Q

Severe cases of Guillain-Barre may develop what?

A

resp failure= intubation, ventilation and admission to ICU

1259
Q

Prognosis of Guillain-Barre?

A

recovery can take months to yrs

pts can continue regaining function 5yrs after the acute illness.

Most patients eventually make either a full recovery or are left with minor symptoms.

Some are left with significant disability.

Mortality is around 5%, mainly due to respiratory or cardiovascular complications.

1260
Q

Peripheral neuropathy can be divided into what?

A

conditions which predominately cause motor or sensory loss

1261
Q

Peripheral neuropathy: conditions that predominately cause motor loss?

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

porphyria

lead poisoning

hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) - Charcot-Marie-Tooth

chronic inflammatory demyelinating
polyneuropathy (CIDP)

diphtheria

1262
Q

Peripheral neuropathy: conditions that predominately cause sensory loss?

A

diabetes
uraemia
leprosy
alcoholism
vitamin B12 deficiency
amyloidosis

1263
Q

Alcoholic neuropathy?

A

secondary to both direct toxic effects and reduced absorption of B vitamins

sensory symptoms typically present prior to motor symptoms

1264
Q

Peripheral neuropathy caused by vit B12 def?

A

subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord

dorsal column usually affected first (joint position, vibration) prior to distal paraesthesia

1265
Q

Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord?

A

due to vit B12 def resulting in impairment of the dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts and spinocerebellar tracts

1266
Q

What can cause subacute degeneration of the spinal cord?

A

B12 def

Recreational nitrous oxide inhalation may also result in vitamin B12 deficiency → subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

1267
Q

Features of subacute degeneration of the spinal cord?

A
  • dorsal column involvement
  • lateral corticospinal tract involvement
  • spinocerebellar tract involvement
1268
Q

Features of subacute degeneration of the spinal cord: dorsal column involvement?

A

distal tingling/burning/sensory loss is symmetrical and tends to affect the legs more than the arms

impaired proprioception and vibration sense

1269
Q

Features of subacute degeneration of the spinal cord: lateral corticospinal tract involvement?

A

muscle weakness, hyperreflexia, and spasticity
upper motor neuron signs typically develop in the legs first

brisk knee reflexes

absent ankle jerks

extensor plantars

1270
Q

Features of subacute degeneration of the spinal cord: spinocerebellar tract involvement?

A

sensory ataxia → gait abnormalities

positive Romberg’s sign

1271
Q

UMN travel where from where?

A

from brain to spinal cord/brainstem

1272
Q

Signs of UMN lesion?

A
  • hypertonia
  • hyperreflexia (brisk reflexes)
  • positive Babinski’s skign
1273
Q

Causes of UMN lesions?

A

any damage to brain/brain stem/white matter of spinal cord eg. stroke, infection, tumour

1274
Q

LMNs travel from where to where?

A

from brainstem/spinal cord to skeletal muscles

1275
Q

Signs of LMN lesions?

A
  • hypotonia
  • decreased or absent tendon reflexes
  • muscle wasting
  • fasiculations
1276
Q

Causes of LMN lesions?

A

any damage to axons leaving spinal cord or anterior horn of spinal cord eg. peripheral neuropathy, spinal cord injury

1277
Q

Ascending (sensory) spinal tracts carry sensory info where?

A

from periphery, up spinal cord and to the brain

1278
Q

Ascending (sensory) spinal tracts?

A

1) Dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway

2) Spinothalamic tract (part of anterolateral system)

3) Spinocerebellar tracts

1279
Q

Ascending (sensory) spinal tracts: dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway…

function?

A

Fine touch (tactile discrimination).
Vibration sense.
Proprioception (sense of body position).

1280
Q

Ascending (sensory) spinal tracts: dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway…

location?

A

posterior (dorsal) column of spinal cord

1281
Q

Ascending (sensory) spinal tracts: dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway…

pathway?

A

Fasciculus gracilis: Carries information from the lower body (below T6).

Fasciculus cuneatus: Carries information from the upper body (above T6).

Fibers cross in the medulla and ascend to the thalamus before reaching the somatosensory cortex.

1282
Q

Ascending (sensory) spinal tracts: spinothalamic tract (part of anterolateral system)…

function?

A

pain
temp
crude touch

1283
Q

Ascending (sensory) spinal tracts: spinothalamic tract (part of anterolateral system)…

location?

A

anterolateral aspect of the spinal cord

1284
Q

Ascending (sensory) spinal tracts: spinothalamic tract (part of anterolateral system)…

pathway?

A

Sensory fibers synapse in the dorsal horn.

Second-order neurons cross within the spinal cord (anterior white commissure) and ascend to the thalamus, then the sensory cortex.

1285
Q

Ascending (sensory) spinal tracts: spinocerebellar tracts…

function?

A

proprioception for muscle coordination

1286
Q

Ascending (sensory) spinal tracts: spinocerebellar tracts…

location?

A

lateral portion of spinal cord

1287
Q

Ascending (sensory) spinal tracts: spinocerebellar tracts…

pathway?

A

Posterior spinocerebellar tract: Transmits information from the lower body to the cerebellum (ipsilateral).

Anterior spinocerebellar tract: Transmits information from the lower body, crossing in the spinal cord and cerebellum (mostly ipsilateral overall).

1288
Q

Descending (motor) tracts carry motor signals where?

A

from brain to muscles

1289
Q

Descending (motor) tracts?

A

Pyramidal tracts (direct pathways):
1) cortiospinal= lateral and anterior
2) corticobulbar

Extrapyramidal (indirect):
1) rubrospinal
2) reticulospinal
3) vestibulospinal
4) tectospinal

1290
Q

What are the extrapyramidal spinal tracts?

A

involved in involuntary, automatic and reflexive motor control

includes= rubrospinal, reticulospinal, vestibulospinal and tectospinal

1291
Q

What are pyramidal spinal tracts (descending)?

A

involved in voluntary, precise and skilled movements

includes= corticospinal (lateral and anterior) and corticobulbar tracts

1292
Q

Descending (motor) tracts- Pyramidal:

Corticospinal tracts:
- Function?
- Subdivisions?

A

Function: Control voluntary movements, especially fine motor skills.

Subdivisions:

Lateral Corticospinal Tract::
- Pathway: Originates in the motor cortex → decussates (crosses) at the medullary pyramids → descends in the contralateral spinal cord.
- Function: Controls movements of the distal limbs (e.g., hands, fingers).

Anterior Corticospinal Tract:
- Pathway: Originates in the motor cortex → descends uncrossed until the spinal cord level, where some fibers decussate.
- Function: Controls axial (trunk) and proximal muscles.

1293
Q

Descending (motor) tracts- Pyramidal:

Corticobulbar tract:
- Function?
- Pathway?
- Controls?

A

Function: Controls voluntary movements of the face, head, and neck by influencing cranial nerve nuclei.

Pathway: Originates in the motor cortex → travels through the brainstem → synapses with cranial nerve motor nuclei.

Controls muscles for speaking, swallowing, and facial expressions.

1294
Q

Descending (motor) tracts- Extrapyramidal:

Rubrospinal tract:
- Function?
- Pathway?
- Role?

A

Function: Facilitates flexor muscle tone and inhibits extensors.

Pathway: Originates in the red nucleus (midbrain) → crosses immediately → descends contralaterally to the spinal cord.

Role: Fine motor control (less significant in humans).

1295
Q

Descending (motor) tracts- Extrapyramidal:

Reticulospinal tract:
- Function?
- Pathway?
- Origin?

A

Function: Regulate posture, locomotion, and reflexes.

Pathway:
1) Medial (Pontine) Reticulospinal Tract: Facilitates extensor reflexes and muscle tone.
2) Lateral (Medullary) Reticulospinal Tract: Inhibits extensor reflexes, reducing muscle tone.

Origin: Reticular formation of the brainstem.

1296
Q

Descending (motor) tracts- Extrapyramidal:

Vestibulospinal tract:
- Function?
- Pathway?
- Origin?

A

Function: Maintain balance and posture.

Pathway:
1) Lateral Vestibulospinal Tract: Descends ipsilaterally to control extensor muscles in the limbs.
2) Medial Vestibulospinal Tract: Descends bilaterally to control head and neck muscles.

Origin: Vestibular nuclei in the brainstem.

1297
Q

Descending (motor) tracts- Extrapyramidal:

Tectospinal tract:
- Function?
- Pathway?
- role?

A

Function: Coordinates head and neck movements in response to visual and auditory stimuli.

Pathway: Originates in the superior colliculus (midbrain) → crosses immediately → descends contralaterally in the spinal cord.

Role: Reflexive turning of the head.

1298
Q

Lateral corticospinal tract:

  • decussation
  • target muscles
A

Medullary pyramids

Distal limbs

1299
Q

Anterior corticospinal tract:

  • decussation
  • target muscles
A

at spinal cord level

axial/trunk muscles

1300
Q

Corticobulbar:

  • decussation
  • target muscles
A

brainstem (varies)

cranial nerves

1301
Q

Reticulospinal:

  • decussation
  • target muscles
A

none or bilateral

proximal muscles

1302
Q

Rubrospinal:

  • decussation
  • target muscles
A

midbrain (red nucleus)

upper limb flexors

1303
Q

Vestibulospinal:

  • decussation
  • target muscles
A

none (lateral) or bilateral (medial)

axial/proximal muscles

1304
Q

Tectospinal:

  • decussation
  • target muscles
A

midbrain (superior colliculus)

neck muscles

1305
Q

Dorsal column-medial lemniscus:

  • decussation
  • pathway location
  • target
A

Medulla (internal arcuate fibers)

Posterior (dorsal) column

Somatosensory cortex (via thalamus)

1306
Q

Dorsal column-medial lemniscus= fasciculus gracilis:

  • decussation
  • pathway location
  • target
A

Medulla

Medial dorsal column

Lower body (below T6)

1307
Q

Dorsal column-medial lemniscus= fasciculus cuneatus:

  • decussation
  • pathway location
  • target
A

Medulla

Lateral dorsal column

Upper body (above T6)

1308
Q

Spinothalamic tract:

  • decussation
  • pathway location
  • target
A

Spinal cord (anterior white commissure)

Anterolateral column

Somatosensory cortex (via thalamus)

1309
Q

Spinocerebellar tracts:

  • decussation
  • pathway location
  • target
A

Varies (mostly ipsilateral)

Lateral column

Cerebellum

1310
Q

Spinocerebellar tracts- posterior:

  • decussation
  • pathway location
  • target
A

None

Lateral column (posterior)

Cerebellum (ipsilateral)

1311
Q

Spinocerebellar tracts- anterior:

  • decussation
  • pathway location
  • target
A

Spinal cord and cerebellum

Lateral column (anterior)

Cerebellum (mostly ipsilateral)

1312
Q

Summarise Dorsal column-medial lemniscus tract?

A

Transmits highly precise sensory information (fine touch, vibration, proprioception).

Crosses in the medulla, travels via the medial lemniscus, and terminates in the somatosensory cortex.

1313
Q

Summarise spinothalamic tract?

A

Part of the anterolateral system, responsible for pain, temperature, and crude touch.

Crosses in the spinal cord at the level of entry.

1314
Q

Summarise the spinocerebellar tracts?

A

Transmit unconscious proprioceptive input for coordination.

Primarily ipsilateral, except for some fibers in the anterior spinocerebellar tract that cross twice.

1315
Q

Summarise pyramidal tracts (descending)?

A

Control voluntary, skilled movements.

Decussation occurs in the medulla (corticospinal) or brainstem (corticobulbar).

1316
Q

Summarise extrapyramidal tracts (descending)?

A

Control involuntary and reflexive movements like posture and balance.

Originate in brainstem nuclei (red nucleus, reticular formation, vestibular nuclei, and superior colliculus).

Decussation varies, with some remaining ipsilateral (e.g., lateral vestibulospinal).

1317
Q

What does decussation mean?

A

In sensory pathways, such as the dorsal column-medial lemniscus and spinothalamic tracts, decussation ensures that sensory input from one side of the body is processed by the opposite side of the brain.

In motor pathways, such as the corticospinal tract, decussation ensures that motor commands from one hemisphere of the brain control muscles on the opposite side of the body.

1318
Q

Examples of decussation?

A

Medullary Pyramids (Motor): The corticospinal tract crosses at the pyramids in the medulla, which is why a stroke in one hemisphere affects voluntary movements on the opposite side.

Spinal Cord (Sensory): The spinothalamic tract crosses at the level of entry into the spinal cord, carrying pain and temperature signals to the opposite side of the brain.

Brainstem (Sensory): The fibers of the dorsal column-medial lemniscus cross at the medulla via the internal arcuate fibers.

1319
Q

Give an example of the clinical significance of decussation?

A

The location of decussation determines whether a lesion in the CNS causes ipsilateral (same side) or contralateral (opposite side) effects.

For example:
A lesion above the corticospinal tract decussation in the medulla leads to contralateral weakness.
A lesion below the decussation causes ipsilateral weakness.

1320
Q

Third nerve palsy features?

A

eye is deviated ‘down and out’

ptosis

pupil may be dilated (sometimes called a ‘surgical’ third nerve palsy)

1321
Q

Causes of third nerve palsy?

A

diabetes mellitus

vasculitis e.g. temporal arteritis, SLE

false localizing sign* due to uncal herniation through tentorium if raised ICP

posterior communicating artery aneurysm= pupil dilated, often associated pain

cavernous sinus thrombosis

Weber’s syndrome: ipsilateral third nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia -caused by midbrain strokes

other possible causes: amyloid, multiple sclerosis

1322
Q

False localising sign?

A

Third nerve palsy (usually 6th nerve but can be used for variety of neuro presentation) due to uncal herniation through tentorium if raised ICP

1323
Q

Aphasia vs dysarthria?

A

Aphasia occurs due to brain damage that affects the ability to express and understand speech.

Dysarthria, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the muscles necessary for speech. It does not affect the ability to understand language.

1324
Q

4 types of aphasia?

A
  • Wernicke’s (receptive)
  • Broca’s (expressive)
  • Conduction aphasia
  • Global aphasia
1325
Q

Wernicke’s (receptive) aphasia is due to what?

A

Due to a lesion of the superior temporal gyrus. It is typically supplied by the inferior division of the left MCA

1326
Q

Wernicke’s (receptive aphasia)?

A

Comprehension is impaired.

This area ‘forms’ the speech before ‘sending it’ to Broca’s area. Lesions result in sentences that make no sense, word substitution and neologisms but speech remains fluent - ‘word salad’

1327
Q

Broca’s (expressive) aphasia is due to what?

A

Due to a lesion of the inferior frontal gyrus. It is typically supplied by the superior division of the left MCA

1328
Q

Broca’s (expressive) aphasia?

A

Comprehension is normal.

Speech is non-fluent, laboured, and halting. Repetition is impaired

1329
Q

Conduction aphasia?

A

Speech is fluent but repetition is poor. Aware of the errors they are making

Comprehension is normal

1330
Q

Conduction aphasia is due to what?

A

Classically due to a stroke affecting the arcuate fasiculus - the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area

1331
Q

Connection between Broca’s and Wernicke’s area?

A

arcuate fasiculus

1332
Q

Global aphasia?

A

Large lesion affecting all 3 of the above areas (wernicke, broca and conduction) resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia

May still be able to communicate using gestures

1333
Q

What lobes are Broca’s and Wernicke’s in?

A

Wernicke’s area is located in the temporal lobe, while Broca’s area is located in the frontal lobe

1334
Q

Speech non fluent:
- comprehension relatively intact?
- comprehension impaired?

A

intact= Broca’s aphasia

impaired= global aphasia

1335
Q

Speech fluent:
- comprehension relatively intact?
- comprehension impaired?

A

intact= conduction aphasia

impaired= Wernicke’s aphasia