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Surg 101--Chapter 7 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is microbiology?

A

The study of microscopic animals and plants.

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2
Q

In the OR, we are particularly concerned with preventing infections caused by bacteria and viruses transmitted by _____.

A

instruments, equipment, and personnel

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3
Q

What is medical microbiology?

A

The study of infectious diseases caused by microorganisms.

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4
Q

What is pathology?

A

The study of disease mechanisms, diagnosis, and treatment.

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5
Q

What is the Linnean system?

A

One of the earliest classification systems developed to identify and study living things.

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6
Q

Who developed the Linnean system?

A

Carol Linnaeus

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7
Q

How many categories are used to classify organisms.

A

Seven

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8
Q

What are the classification categories used in biology?

A
  1. Genus
  2. Family
  3. Order
  4. Class
  5. Phylum
  6. Kingdom
  7. Domain

Damn, Kevin’s Poor Crew Only Feels Good

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9
Q

What are the 6 important microbes in human disease?

A
  1. Bacteria
  2. Viruses
  3. Prions
  4. Fungi
  5. Protozoa
  6. Rickettsia

Rich People Probably Feel Very Bad

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10
Q

When was cell theory developed?

A

In the 1600’s, shortly before the development of the light microscope.

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11
Q

Developed the light microscope and observed “little animals” under magnification.

A

Anton Von Leeuwenhoek

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12
Q

Developed the first smallpox vaccination.

A

Edward Jenner

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13
Q

Discovered the association between hand washing and a decrease in puerperal infection.

A

Ignaz Semmelweis

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14
Q

Disproved the theory of spontaneous generation and developed germ theory of infection.

A

Louis Pasteur

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15
Q

First practiced surgery using antiseptic practices.

A

Joseph Lister

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16
Q

Offered the first proof of the germ theory using Bacillus anthracis.

A

Robert Koch

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17
Q

Developed the acid-fast stain.

A

Paul Ehrlich

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18
Q

Developed the gram stain.

A

Christian Gram

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19
Q

Developed the first rabies vaccine.

A

Louis Pastuer

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20
Q

Discovered the virus.

A

Dimitri Iosifovich Ivanovski

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21
Q

Proved that Mosquitos carry yellow fever.

A

Walter Reed

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22
Q

Discovered a cure for Syphilis.

A

Paul Ehrlich

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23
Q

Discovered penicillin.

A

Alexander Fleming

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24
Q

What is cell theory?

A
  1. The cell is the fundamental unit of all living things.
  2. All living things are composed of cells.
  3. All cells are derived from other cells.
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25
Q

What forms the basis of modern biology?

A

Cell theory

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26
Q

What is the basic unit of a living organism?

A

The cell

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27
Q

What two types are cellular organisms divided into?

A

Prokaryotes and eukaryotes

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28
Q

The basic type of cell.

A

Eukaryotes

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29
Q

The inside of the cell contains _____?

A

Cytoplasm

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30
Q

The largest organelle.

A

Nucleus

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31
Q

What is surrounded by a membrane and contains the cell’s DNA, which enables the cell to replicate.

A

Nucleus

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32
Q

The DNA is contained within the cell’s _____.

A

Chromatin

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33
Q

What is a protein substance that contains the genetic code for the cell?

A

Chromatin

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34
Q

What is the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Facilitates the movement of protein out of the nucleus.

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35
Q

What is the nucleolis?

A

Located inside the nucleus, has proteins and RNA necessary for cell reproduction.

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36
Q

What is the Golgi apparatus?

A

Extension of the endomembrane, composed of layered sacs which store and modify large molecules and transport them inside the cell.

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37
Q

What are mitochondria?

A

Responsible mainly for synthesizing ATP to provide energy for the cell.

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38
Q

A group of single-celled microbes, includes only bacteria and Archea.

A

Prokaryotes

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39
Q

Prokaryote that causes disease.

A

Bacteria

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40
Q

What is the primary structural difference between a prokaryote and a eukaryote?

A

The absence of a distinct nucleus in the prokaryote.

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41
Q

What is the only true organelle of the prokaryote?

A

Ribosome

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42
Q

What do ribosomes do?

A

Synthesize protein

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43
Q

What is osmosis?

A

The movement of liquid through a semipermeable membrane according to differences in the concentration of substances on either side.

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44
Q

A process in which the cell engulfs large particles from outside the cell.

A

Endocytosis

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45
Q

Process in which the cell takes in water and small particles by surrounding them with a membrane-covered blister or vesicles.

A

Pinocytosis

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46
Q

Process in which large particles (such as microbes) are engulfed and digested by the cell.

A

Phagocytosis

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47
Q

During _____ the particle is surrounded by a membrane that fuses with another cell organelle called the _____.

A

Phagocytosis

Lysosome

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48
Q

The contents of the Lysosome are released from the cell through _____.

A

Exocytosis

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49
Q

Certain microbes cause disease when conditions are favorable for them. When conditions are favorable to the host, disease is more likely to be resisted. These variable conditions include:

A
  • The number of microbes in the body (the dose)
  • The physiological environment in the body
  • The location of entry into the body (the portal of entry)
  • The strength of the body’s immune system, which determines the body’s ability to recognize and destroy harmful organisms
  • The disease-producing potential of the bacteria
  • The number of pathogenic microorganisms that penetrate the body
  • The pathogen’s ability to adhere to the target tissue and secrete enzymes that destroy the target cells
  • The pathogen’s ability to evade the body’s defense system by chemical or physical means or by mutation
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50
Q

What is symbiosis?

A

Two different species live together.

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51
Q

What is commensalism?

A

Neither organism is harmed.

One organism uses another to meet its physiological needs but causes no harm to the host?

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52
Q

What is mutualism?

A

The association benefits both organisms.

Both organisms benefit from the relationship.

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53
Q

What is parasitism?

A

One organism is harmed and the other benefits.

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54
Q

For identification of a particular microbe, a minimum number of colonies or individual microbes often is required to have a representative sample for study.

A

Bacterial culturing

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55
Q

Bacteria are routinely tested for their sensitivity to antimicrobials. This is done by inoculating a culture plate with the microbe and placing small paper discs impregnated with various antibacterial agents on the sample.

A

Culture and sensitivity

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56
Q

A procedure used to prepare a microbial specimen for examination under a microscope.

A

Staining

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57
Q

Staining takes place after the microbe has been _____.

A

applied to the slide

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58
Q

Routinely performed to differentiate bacteria into two primary classifications.

A

Gram staining

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59
Q

The bacterial cell wall contains a layer of _____ and _____.

A

sugars and amino acids

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60
Q

In some bacteria, the cell wall is very _____, whereas in others it is _____.

A

thin

thick

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61
Q

Gram staining reveals the thicker wall, and these bacteria are said to be _____.

A

gram positive

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62
Q

The bacteria with the thinner wall do not absorb the stain and are categorized as _____.

A

gram negative

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63
Q

What two dyes are used in gram staining?

A

Crystal violet and safranin

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64
Q

Under the microscope, gram-positive bacteria appear _____, and gram-negative bacteria are _____.

A

dark purple

pink

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65
Q

The acid-fast staining technique is used primarily for identification of _____.

A

Mycobacteria organisms, especially Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

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66
Q

What is a common acid-fast staining technique?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen test

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67
Q

This test uses the stain carbofuschin or methylene blue, which colors the cell wall pink, leaving a blue background.

A

Ziehl-Neelsen test

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68
Q

True or False: identification of the shape of bacteria is insufficient to establish the exact species.

A

True

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69
Q

What are the two main types of microscopes?

A

Optical microscope and scanning microscope

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70
Q

Which microscope uses a series of lenses to focus light on the object being viewed and an example is the electron microscope.

A

Optical microscope

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71
Q

Which microscope uses a physical probe that tracks the contours and surfaces of the object and creates an image based on the findings?

A

Scanning microscope

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72
Q

Part of the microscope that connects the eyepiece to the objective lense.

A

Tube

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73
Q

Part of the microscope that connects the viewing tube to the base and balances the microscope. Also used for carrying the microscope.

A

Arm

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74
Q

The set of lenses located at the bottom of the tube.

A

Objective lens

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75
Q

Common magnification levels of the objective lenses.

A

10x, 40x, and 100x

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76
Q

What is the normal magnification of the eyepiece?

A

10x

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77
Q

Provides fine and coarse focus by moving the serial lenses vertically.

A

Focus adjustment knobs

78
Q

A vertical adjustment that prevents direct contact between the objective lens and the specimen.

A

Rack stop

79
Q

A round fitting for the objective lenses. Revolves to place one of the objective lenses directly over the subject being viewed.

A

Nosepiece

80
Q

The flat area just under the objective lenses where the specimen slide is placed. Can be moved with knobs.

A

Stage

81
Q

Provides intense, evenly distributed light to view the specimen.

A

Illuminator (light source)

82
Q

Located under the stage and contains two sets of lenses that focus light on the subject.

A

Condenser

83
Q

Bacteria that cause infection are called _____.

A

pyogenic

84
Q

Pyogenic bacteria include:

A
  • streptococcal
  • staphylococcal
  • meningococcal
  • pneumococcal
  • gonococcal
  • coliform bacilli
85
Q

Represents the largest variety of infectious microorganisms and cause the greatest number of post-op infections and other HAI’s.

A

Bacteria

86
Q

Rod-shaped bacteria

A

bacilli

87
Q

Curved or spiral-shaped bacteria

A

spirochetes

88
Q

Spherical bacteria

A

cocci

89
Q

Bacteria that require oxygen to live and grow

A

strict aerobes

90
Q

Bacteria that cannot live in the presence of oxygen

A

strict anaerobes

91
Q

Anaerobes are important in the process of infection, because they can _____.

A

proliferate in deep traumatic or surgical wounds

92
Q

Can live with or without axygen

A

facultative bacteria

93
Q

What is normal blood pH?

A

7.35 - 7.45

94
Q

What is desiccation?

A

Destroying bacteria by drying them

95
Q

How do bacterial cells reproduce?

A

asexual fission

96
Q

What is a vegetative reproduction form that some bacteria are capable of producing?

A

endospore

97
Q

What are the four phases of bacterial growth?

A
  • Lag phase
  • Log (Exponential) phase
  • Stationary phase
  • Death phase
98
Q

Phase in which bacteria do not divide, but are preparing for cell division.

A

Lag phase

99
Q

Phase of active and rapid cell division

A

Log (exponential) phase

100
Q

Phase in which bacteria have used up available nutrition; cell division stops.

A

Stationary phase

101
Q

Phase in which bacteria can no longer survive and the colony dies out.

A

Death phase

102
Q

Chemicals contained within the bacterial cell wall.

A

Endotoxins

103
Q

Proteins produced as a result of bacterial metabolism.

A

Exotoxin

104
Q

Responsible for about 1/3 of all bacterial infections in human beings.

A

Gram-positive cocci

105
Q

Gram-positive cocci:

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Staphylococcus epidermis
  • Streptococcus pyogenes
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
106
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

A
  • Most widespread cause of SSI
  • 30%-70% of people are skin carriers
  • Also causes endocarditis and osteomyelitis
107
Q

Staphylococcus epidermis

A

-Usually spread by catheters, prosthetic valves, and orthopedic implants

108
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

A
  • Causes many HAI’s
  • Burn patients are particularly vulnerable
  • SSI is most commonly caused by direct transmission from a contaminated surface
109
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A
  • Primary cause of pneumonia and otitis media

- Spread mainly through respiratory tract

110
Q

Gram-negative rods and cocci (aerobic):

A
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Bordetella pertussis
  • Enteric bacteria
  • Escherichia coli (E coli)
  • Salmonella enterica
  • Salmonella typhi
111
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Found in the normal gastrointestinal tract

112
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

STD

113
Q

Neisseria meningitidis

A

Bacterial meningitis is a highly contagious infection of the meninges which covers the brain and spinal cord

114
Q

Bordetella pertussis

A

Causes whooping cough

115
Q

Enteric bacteria

A

Gram-negative rods, facultative anaerobes

116
Q

Escherichia coli (E coli)

A

Resident bacteria of the gastrointestinal tract

117
Q

Salmonella enterica

A

Common cause of food poisoning

118
Q

Salmonella typhi

A

Causes typhoid

119
Q

Spore-forming bacteria:

A
  • Clostridium perfringens
  • Clostridium tetani
  • Clostridium difficile
120
Q

Clostridium perfringens

A

Anaerobic bacteria that causes rapid tissue death in deep wounds deprived of oxygen

121
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Causative bacteria of tetanus

122
Q

Clostridium difficile

A

Spore-forming bacterium that cause severe diarrhea

123
Q

Nonliving infectious agent that ranges in size from 10 to 300 nm.

A

a virus

124
Q

A complete virus particle is called a _____.

A

virion

125
Q

Classified by a number of complex systems and categories, such as by morphology, chemical composition, and method of replication.

A

viruses

126
Q

Consists of a double or single strand of either DNA or RNA.

A

virion

127
Q

The genetic material of a virion is surrounded by a protein coating called a _____.

A

capsid

128
Q

The cycle of replication and lysis of the host cell is called _____.

A

lysogenesis

129
Q

A virus that invades bacterial cells is called a _____.

A

bacteriophage

130
Q

Mechanisms that create and sustain viral disease is certain stains include:

A
  • The ability to enter a healthy cell
  • The ability to develop
  • The ability to resist the host’s defense mechanisms
  • Cell transformation
  • The ability to synthesize substances not normally produced by the host cell
  • The ability to initiate structural changes in the host cell
131
Q

What are the primary modes of transmission of the HIV virus in the general public?

A

Sexual contact and use of contaminated needles

132
Q

Occupation risk of HIV to health care workers is highest in _____.

A

needlestick and other sharps injuries

133
Q

A disease of the liver that is caused by one of five significant viruses.

A

Viral hepatitis

134
Q

Hepatitis that are blood-borne pathogens:

A

B, C, D

135
Q

Hepatitis that are transmitted through contaminated food or water:

A

A, E

136
Q

Hepatitis that is rarely fatal, and one infection results in permanent immunity to the disease

A

A

137
Q

Hepatitis that causes chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, massive liver necrosis, and death.

A

B

138
Q

Hepatitis B is _____ times more infective than HIV.

A

100

139
Q

Hepatitis that is transmitted by blood transfusions and blood products.

A

C

140
Q

Hepatitis that is associated with HBV as a coinfection.

A

D

141
Q

Hepatitis that causes serious acute liver disease and is transmitted by contaminated water.

A

E

142
Q

Potentially cancer producing virus that occurs in about 15% of the population.

A

HPV

143
Q

How many different types of HPV exist?

A

Approx. 40

144
Q

Infection that is likely to develop into cervical cancer in women and noninvasive penile and anal cancer in men.

A

Chronic HPV

145
Q

What is one of the best methods of preventing cervical cancer in women?

A

PAP test

146
Q

A proteinaceous infectious particle, unique pathogenic substance, an is a protein particle that contains no nucleic acid.

A

Prion

147
Q

Resistant to all forms of disinfection and sterilization normally used in the medical setting.

A

prion

148
Q

Cannot be cultured in a lab, and the immune system does not react to them.

A

prion

149
Q

What is the most important prion that affects human?

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

150
Q

A rare transmissible disease of the nervous system that is progressive and always fatal.

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

151
Q

More that _____ species of fungi exist, but only _____ are pathogenic.

A

70,000

300

152
Q

Fungi are eukaryotes and are divided into what two groups?

A

molds and yeasts

153
Q

Yeast are _____.

A

unicellular

154
Q

Molds are _____.

A

multicellular

155
Q

What is the most significant protozoal disease disease of the CNS and a major killer of children in Africa and Asia.

A

malaria

156
Q

Not every contact with a pathogen results in infection. Certain conditions must be in effect for this to happen. What are they?

A
  • The microbe must have an entry and and exit site
  • Microbes must be present in sufficient numbers
  • The environment must be well suited to the pathogen
  • The host must be unable to overcome the harmful mechanisms of the pathogen
157
Q

Microorganisms are transferred from a host through _____ or an _____.

A

direct contact

intermediate source

158
Q

Nonliving source of infection.

A

fomite

159
Q

Living source of infection

A

vector

160
Q

Completely free of all microorganisms

A

sterile

161
Q

Common fomites in the hospital…

A
  • instruments
  • medical devices
  • bed linens
  • wound dressings
  • contaminated urinary catheters
162
Q

Airborne transmission also occurs via _____.

A

droplet nuclei

163
Q

A pathogen is ingested in food or through fecal-oral transmission.

A

oral transmission

164
Q

In the health care setting, _____ is very important to the prevention of oral disease transmission.

A

handwashing

165
Q

Almost always results from an outside source, usually the urethral orifice.

A

urogenital infection

166
Q

Most common cause of urinary tract infection in women.

A

E. coli

167
Q

Can result in local, regional, or systemic infection.

A

Skin penetration

168
Q

Spread when the mucous membrane of an infected person comes in contact with the mucous membrane of an uninfected person, usually during sex.

A

STD

169
Q

The treatment of a patient with drugs to eradicate or minimize the effects of disease caused by microorganisms is called _____.

A

antimicrobial therapy

170
Q

Used to treat bacterial and fungal infections.

A

antibiotics

171
Q

Antibiotics are classified according to the way they _____.

A

destroy bacteria

172
Q

The main mechanisms of antibacterial agents are:

A
  • Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
  • Interference with genetic replication
  • Inhibition of metabolic pathways in the microbe
173
Q

The spread of am HAI from one person to another is called _____.

A

cross-contamination

174
Q

Introduction of an infection into a part of the body from another part of the body is called _____.

A

self-infection or autoinfection

175
Q

The most common HAI

A

UTI (usually in catheterized patients)

176
Q

Second most frequent HAI

A

SSI

177
Q

About _____ to _____ of SSI are confined to the incision, and the remaining spread to distant or adjacent sites.

A

60% to 70%

178
Q

Splitting apart of deep and superficial wound edges.

A

Wound dehiscence

179
Q

Protrusion of visceral contents outside the body through the ruptured incision

A

evisceration

180
Q

Surgical wounds are classified according to the risk of _____ and _____ at the time of the surgery

A

contamination and infection

181
Q

An accumulation of pus, drainage dead cells, and serum

A

suppurative

182
Q

As suture materials degrade in the presence of bacteria, the wound may split open, a condition known as _____.

A

dehiscence

183
Q

If the symptoms do not resolve, the wound may be incised again and pus and necrotic, devitalized tissue removed in a procedure called _____

A

incision and draining (I & D)

184
Q

VRSA first diagnosed

A

1997

185
Q

The body’s ability to accept substances that are part of the body (self) and eliminate those that are not (nonself)

A

immunity

186
Q

Two general types of immunity

A

innate immunity

acquired immunity

187
Q

Also called nonspecific immunity, exists from the time of birth

A

innate immunity

188
Q

Conferred through exposure to a specific substance or microbe called an antigen.

A

acquired immunity

189
Q

Specific proteins that trigger the immune system to launch its defenses.

A

antibodies

190
Q

The body’s innate immune response to injury.

A

inflammatory response

191
Q

Four classic signs of infection:

A
  • Heat
  • Redness
  • Swelling
  • Pain

Surg Tech 101 (12 decks)

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