Study guide Bone (Dark) Flashcards

1
Q

Formation bone

Intramembranous ossification

A
  • for flat bones w/o growth plates
  • ossification center begins in fibrous connective tissue membrane
  • osteoid is secreted into fibrous membrane
  • entrapped osteoblasts become osteocytes
  • form woven bone and periosteum
  • final layer of compact bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Endochondral ossification

A
  • Long bones with growth plates
  • predominantly increase length
  • growth plate function requires angiogenesis (good blood supply)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fractures

OLD ACID

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fracture healing

A
  • hematoma
  • fibrocartilagenous callus
  • bony callus
  • remodeling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Salter fractures

A
  • Type 1: straight
  • Type 2: above
  • Type 3: below
  • Type 4: thru
  • Type 5: crush
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Craniomandibular osteopathy

A
  • significant bone growth around mandible and temporomandibular joint
  • westies, scotties
  • autosomal recessive
  • starts 3-7 mo till 11-13 mo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta

A
  • defect in matric synthesis
  • characterized by excessive bone fragility
    • fractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Osteopetrosis

A
  • failure of bone remoding
    • defecit in osteoclast function
  • increased bone density
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Chondrodysplasia

A
  • multifactorial
  • achondroplasia
  • disproportionate dwarfism
  • dachsunds, corgis, bassets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Osteoperosis

A
  • Bone loss-resportion > formation
  • Disuse, malnutrition, corticosteroids
  • susceptible to fractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Osteopenia

A
  • Decreased numbers of thin trabeculae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Scurvy

A
  • Only in species lacking L-gulonolactone oxidase
    • humans, guinea pigs
  • Lack of vit c => dec lysine and proline hydroxylation in collagen => impaired collagen synthesis => weakened vessel walls and physeal cartilage deformity => periarticular hemorrhage and osteochondrodysplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fibrous osteodystrophy

A
  • Primary hyperparathyroidism
    • due to functional parathyroid adenomas or parathyroid hyperplasia
  • Secondary hyperparathyroidism
    • nutritional (Ca:P imbalance in feed)
    • renal (Kidney disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rickets

A
  • Defect in endochondral ossification
  • only in young animals
  • deficiency of vitamin D or phosphorus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hypertrophic osteopathy

A
  • periostal proliferation
  • due to intrathoracic mass
  • joints not involved
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hypertrophic osteodystrophy

A
  • double physeal line
  • young dogs
  • acute inflammation in primary spongiosa
  • necrosis of osteoblasts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Eosinophilic panosteitis

A
  • large breed dogs presents with shifting leg lameness
  • resolves on own
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Legg-Perthes disease

A
  • avascular necrosis of femoral head
  • small breed dogs
  • occurs prior to physeal closure (4-11 mo)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Osteomyelitis

A
  • very serious disease
  • possible causes
    • sx
    • penetrating wound
    • fractures
    • hematogenous spread
  • tx difficult: low blood supply
  • can be acute or chronic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Osteoma

A

benign tumor of bone (not common)

21
Q

Osteosarc

A
  • malignant bone tumor
  • patologic fractures common
  • metastasis common
  • poor prognosis
  • towards knee, away from elbow
  • doesn’t cross joints
22
Q

multilobular tumor of bone

A

…..?

23
Q

Chondroma

A
  • not as aggressive
  • hard to diagnose b/c it’s soft tissue opacity on rads
24
Q

chondrosarcoma

A

…..?

25
Q

Osteochondromatosis

A
  • Benign
  • Proliferative of growth plate cartilage
  • grow with skeleton
  • multiple bony masses
  • head and chest often affected
26
Q

Mulitple myeloma

A
  • neoplasm of plasma cells
  • common in bones
  • will see Bence-Jones proteins in urine
27
Q

Synovium rxn to injury

A
  • hypertrophy
    • primary response to injury
  • pannus
    • granulation tissue on articular surface
    • can damage underlying cartilage
    • can progress to ankylosis (fusion of joint)
28
Q

Articular cartilage response to injury

A
  • fibrillation
    • forms vertical clefts in cartilage
  • eburnation
    • polishing of exposed subcondral bone
  • osteopytosis
    • boney protuberance
    • bone trying to stabilize joint
  • joint mice
    • osteophytes that break loose into joint
29
Q

Inflammatory arthritis

A
  • acute
    • penetrating wounds
    • septicemia
  • chronic
    • immune-mediated
      • sharpei fever
      • CAE virus in goats
      • untreated acute arthritis
30
Q

Osteoarthritis

A
  • Degenerative joint disease
  • typically an aging dz
  • lesions
    • fibrillation
    • cartilage erosion
    • osteophytosis
    • eburnation
    • synovial hyperplasia
  • decreased proteoglycan synthesis + inc metabolloenzyme synthesis which degrade proteoglycans
    • less proteoglycans in joint fluid means fluid less viscous
31
Q

Osteocondrosis Dissecans (OCD)

A
  • Osteochondrosis
  • Tends to be an area of thickened cartilage
  • OCD when flap breaks off
  • humoral head common place in dogs, horses, pigs
32
Q

Neoplasia

A
  • Synovial cell sarcoma
  • tend to be on joints and long bones
  • diff between osteosarc and synovial cell is involvement of joint
33
Q

IVDD

A
  • Disc structure
    • outer annulus fibrosis
    • Inner nucleus pulposis
  • Degeneration
    • Annulus fibrosis cracks, tears, ruptures
    • release nucleus pulposus
  • Type I - sudden, more common chondrodysplastic breeds
  • Type II - gradual
34
Q

Dural ossification

A
  • ossifying pacymenigitis
  • generally incidental
35
Q

HIp dysplasia

A
  • degenerative, non-inflammatory
  • generally large breed dogs
  • deformation of the joint
    • sublux of femoral head
36
Q

Elbow dysplasia

A
  • degenerative, non-inflammatory
  • generally large breed dogs, especially GSD
  • ununited anconeal process
  • fragmented medial coronoid process
  • OCD of elbow
37
Q

Normal muscle fibers

A
  • myofibers - single muscle cells
  • peripheral nuclei
  • striations
  • high blood supply
  • fiber types
    • Type I: slow twitch, large number of mitochondria, postural and sustained activity
    • Type II: fast twitch, fewer mitochondria, rapid activity
38
Q

Classification of muscle injuries

A
  • Distribution
    • focal-one area
    • multi-focal-lots of areas
  • Timeline
    • monophasic-all muscle injuries look like same time frame
    • polyphasic-some muscle injury acute, some chronic
      • indicates ongoing exposure
39
Q

Muscle response to injury

A
  • Hypertorphy
  • Atrophy
  • Degeneration
  • Necrosis - calcification
  • Regeneration
  • Fibrosis
40
Q

Low PCV and normal CK think

A

hemoglobin

41
Q

normal PCV and elevated CK think

A

moyglobin

-toxic to kidneys

42
Q

Muscle damage

Circulation

A
  • Downer cattle
  • equine anesthesia
43
Q

Muscle damage

myositis

A
  • bacterial: clostridium, abscesses
  • Parasitic: toxoplasma gondii, trichella spiralis, sarcocystis spp
  • Autoimmune: systemic lupus erythematosus, polymyositis, purpura hemorrhagica
44
Q

Muscle damage

Congenital

A
  • Malignant hyperthermia-pigs
  • muscular dystropy
  • equine rhabdomyolysis: sporadic, polysaccharide storage myopathy
  • hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)
  • Fainting goats
  • Splayleg piglets
45
Q

Muscle damage

exertional myopathies

A
  • capture myopathy in exotics
  • Disuse-cast
46
Q

Muscle damage

nutritional

A
  • malnutrition - atrophy
  • vitamin E/selenium deficiency - white muscle dz
47
Q

Muscle damage

toxins

A
  • monensin
48
Q

Muscle damage

dennervation

A
  • Brachial plexus avulsion
  • laryngeal hemiplagia