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Pharmacology > Student Generated Final Exam Questions > Flashcards

Student Generated Final Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

1. Which class of drugs should be used with caution in cats?

A) NSAIDS
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Diuretics
D) A and B

A

1. Which class of drugs should be used with caution in cats?

A) NSAIDS
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Diuretics
D) A and B

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2
Q

2. A dog is presented to you with a large open wound on its shoulder that is showing signs of infection. Which drug should NOT be given to this dog (may cause adverse effects)?

A) Epinephrine
B) Carprofen
C) Cortisol
D) Meloxicam

A

2. A dog is presented to you with a large open wound on its shoulder that is showing signs of infection. Which drug should NOT be given to this dog (may cause adverse effects)?

A) Epinephrine
B) Carprofen
C) Cortisol
D) Meloxicam

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3
Q

3. Which drugs should generally be avoided in a patient with GI ulcers?

A) A PGE derivative such as Misoprostil
B) A NSAID such as Flunixin
C) A glucocorticoid such as Prednisolone
D) B and C

A

3. Which drugs should generally be avoided in a patient with GI ulcers?

A) A PGE derivative such as Misoprostil
B) A NSAID such as Flunixin
C) A glucocorticoid such as Prednisolone
D) B and C

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4
Q

4. You diagnose glaucoma in your Shih Tzu patient “Gladiator.” Which drug(s) would you consider to reduce ocular pressure (i.e. to decrease intraocular fluid)?

A) Travoprost (a PGF2 derivative)
B) Pilocarpine (mAChR Agonist)
C) Betaxolol (β1-AR blocker)
D) All of the above

A

4. You diagnose glaucoma in your Shih Tzu patient “Gladiator.” Which drug(s) would you consider to reduce ocular pressure (i.e. to decrease intraocular fluid)?

A) Travoprost (a PGF2 derivative)
B) Pilocarpine (mAChR Agonist)
C) Betaxolol (β1-AR blocker)
D) All of the above

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5
Q

5. Why is acetaminophen not used as an anti-inflammatory in veterinary medicine?

a. Liver Phase I biotransformation converts it from an active drug to a toxic metabolite.
b. No anti-inflammatory properties at therapeutic range.
c. Eliminated slowly in cats due to cat’s poor phase II biotransformation ability, but quickly in ruminants.
d. All of the above.

A

5. Why is acetaminophen not used as an anti-inflammatory in veterinary medicine?

a. Liver Phase I biotransformation converts it from an active drug to a toxic metabolite.
b. No anti-inflammatory properties at therapeutic range.
c. Eliminated slowly in cats due to cat’s poor phase II biotransformation ability, but quickly in ruminants.
* *d. All of the above.**

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6
Q

6. Spironolactone is a mineralocorticoid antagonist and thus inhibits aldosterone activity. This drug, especially when combined with loop or thiazide diuretics, can help manage symptoms of the following condition:

a. Congestive heart failure.
b. Hyperaldosteronism.
c. Tachyarrhythmias.
d. Acute or chronic renal failure

A

6. Spironolactone is a mineralocorticoid antagonist and thus inhibits aldosterone activity. This drug, especially when combined with loop or thiazide diuretics, can help manage symptoms of the following condition:

  • *a. Congestive heart failure.**
    b. Hyperaldosteronism.
    c. Tachyarrhythmias.
    d. Acute or chronic renal failure
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7
Q

7. Which one of the following statements on nutrient mobilization is correct?

a. B2-Adrenergic receptor stimulation causes an increase in glycogenolysis and a decrease in glucose uptake into tissues (hyperglycemic effect).
b. Glucocorticoids increase lipase activity and fat mobilization leading to increased serum levels of free fatty acids.
c. B3-Adrenergic receptor stimulation causes an increase in triglyceride lipase activity in fat cells and an increase in free fatty acids in blood (lipolytic effect).
d. Glucocorticoids increase liver glucose uptake, gluconeogenesis, and glycogen storage, while decreasing glucose utilization everywhere else in the body.
e. All of the above statements are correct.

A

7. Which one of the following statements on nutrient mobilization is correct?

a. B2-Adrenergic receptor stimulation causes an increase in glycogenolysis and a decrease in glucose uptake into tissues (hyperglycemic effect).
b. Glucocorticoids increase lipase activity and fat mobilization leading to increased serum levels of free fatty acids.
c. B3-Adrenergic receptor stimulation causes an increase in triglyceride lipase activity in fat cells and an increase in free fatty acids in blood (lipolytic effect).
d. Glucocorticoids increase liver glucose uptake, gluconeogenesis, and glycogen storage, while decreasing glucose utilization everywhere else in the body.
* *e. All of the above statements are correct.**

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8
Q

Which of the following statements about Lidocaine is incorrect?

a. Lidocaine is a Class IB antiarrhythmic drug that binds to open and inactivated Na+ channels.
b. Lidocaine inhibits intestinal motility.
c. Lidocaine decreases automaticity, especially in damaged Purkinje fibers.
d. The mechanism of action of Lidocaine in the gastrointestinal tract is unclear.

A

Which of the following statements about Lidocaine is incorrect?

a. Lidocaine is a Class IB antiarrhythmic drug that binds to open and inactivated Na+ channels.
* *b. Lidocaine inhibits intestinal motility.**
c. Lidocaine decreases automaticity, especially in damaged Purkinje fibers.
d. The mechanism of action of Lidocaine in the gastrointestinal tract is unclear.

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9
Q

9. Which of these is NOT a G-protein coupled receptor?

A. Histamine receptors
B. Adrenergic receptors
C. Dopamine receptors
D. Mineralcorticoid receptors

A

9. Which of these is NOT a G-protein coupled receptor?

A. Histamine receptors
B. Adrenergic receptors
C. Dopamine receptors
D. Mineralcorticoid receptors

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10
Q
  • *10. Which of these drugs have sedative effects?
    1. Hydroxyzine
    2. Methylxanthine
    3. Scopolamine
    4. Acetazolamide**

A. A
B. A, B
C. A, C
D. All of the drugs

A
  • *10. Which of these drugs have sedative effects?
    1. Hydroxyzine
    2. Methylxanthine
    3. Scopolamine
    4. Acetazolamide**

A. A
B. A, B
C. A, C
D. All of the drugs

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11
Q

11. You’re called to a dairy farm to examine the family’s best producer, Bessie. Upon examination, you determine that Bessie is having heart problems, ventricular tachyarrhythmia to be exact. You decide that you’d like to prescribe a drug that will depress phase 0 of the action potential and decrease conduction velocity of the heart, but the farmer is worried about accumulation in the milk. Which of the following is your best treatment option?

A. Class II AARD, pH>6.8
B. Class I AARD, pH>6.8
C. Class III AARD, pH<6.8
D. Class I AARD, pH<6.8

A

11. You’re called to a dairy farm to examine the family’s best producer, Bessie. Upon examination, you determine that Bessie is having heart problems, ventricular tachyarrhythmia to be exact. You decide that you’d like to prescribe a drug that will depress phase 0 of the action potential and decrease conduction velocity of the heart, but the farmer is worried about accumulation in the milk. Which of the following is your best treatment option?

A. Class II AARD, pH>6.8
B. Class I AARD, pH>6.8
C. Class III AARD, pH<6.8
D. Class I AARD, pH<6.8

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12
Q

** Many drugs in different classes share the ability to affect similar pharmacological pathways and cause similar affects. Glucocorticoids for instance share their ability to block the formation of prostanoids with ______1__________ by blocking Cyclooxygenase; they also have a similar affect as _______2_________ in causing hyperglycemia. Which one of the following options best completes the above statement?**

A. Blank 1: NSAIDS, Blank 2: B-Adrenergic Agonists
B. Blank 1: Mineralocorticoids, Blank 2: NSAIDS
C. Blank 1: B-Adrenergic Antagonists, Blank 2: NSAIDS
D. Blank 1: NSAIDS, Blank 2: B-Adrenergic Antagonists

A

Many drugs in different classes share the ability to affect similar pharmacological pathways and cause similar affects. Glucocorticoids for instance share their ability to block the formation of prostanoids with ______1__________ by blocking Cyclooxygenase; they also have a similar affect as _______2_________ in causing hyperglycemia. Which one of the following options best completes the above statement?

A. Blank 1: NSAIDS, Blank 2: B-Adrenergic Agonists
B. Blank 1: Mineralocorticoids, Blank 2: NSAIDS
C. Blank 1: B-Adrenergic Antagonists, Blank 2: NSAIDS
D. Blank 1: NSAIDS, Blank 2: B-Adrenergic Antagonists

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13
Q

Which H1-histamine antagonist acts as both an anti-emetic and an 1st generation anti-histamine?

Benadryl (diphenhydramine)
Zofran (Odansetron)
Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
Loratidine (Claritin)

A

Which H1-histamine antagonist acts as both an anti-emetic and an 1st generation anti-histamine?

Benadryl (diphenhydramine)
Zofran (Odansetron)
Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
Loratidine (Claritin)

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14
Q

Lidocaine blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels in which location(s)?

Purkinje Fibers
Ventricles
Enteric Nerves
All of the above

A

Lidocaine blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels in which location(s)?

Purkinje Fibers
Ventricles
Enteric Nerves
All of the above

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15
Q

NSAIDs can inhibit all of the following enzymes directly for pharmacological control of eicosanoid synthesis except:

a. Cyclooxygenases
b. Lipoxygenases
c. Phospholipase A2
d. All of the above are inhibited by NSAIDs

A

NSAIDs can inhibit all of the following enzymes directly for pharmacological control of eicosanoid synthesis except:

a. Cyclooxygenases
b. Lipoxygenases
* *c. Phospholipase A2**
d. All of the above are inhibited by NSAIDs

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16
Q
  • *Which are side effects of Glucocorticoids (vs. the side effects of NSAIDS)**
    a. 1,2,4,5,6
    b. 1,4,6
    c. 2,3,5
    d. none of the below are Glucocorticoid side effects
  • *1. Uterine contractions decreased
    2. Muscle weakness/wasting from hypocalcemia
    3. Hypertension from increased Na+ retention
    4. Intestinal Ulcers
    5. Hyperglycemia
    6. Blood clotting alterations**
A
  • *Which are side effects of Glucocorticoids (vs. the side effects of NSAIDS)**
    a. 1,2,4,5,6
    b. 1,4,6
  • *c. 2,3,5**
    d. none of the below are Glucocorticoid side effects
  • *1. Uterine contractions decreased
    2. Muscle weakness/wasting from hypocalcemia
    3. Hypertension from increased Na+ retention
    4. Intestinal Ulcers
    5. Hyperglycemia
    6. Blood clotting alterations**
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17
Q

Match each clinical indication below with the drug that would be most appropriate to use. Each drug may be used only once.

  1. Non-productive cough
  2. Systemic Anaphylaxis
  3. Atonic Bladder
  4. Ventricular Tachyarrhythmia
  5. Gastric Ulcer

a) Lidocaine
b) Omeprazole
c) Bethanechol
d) Epinephrine
e) Butorphanol

A

Match each clinical indication below with the drug that would be most appropriate to use. Each drug may be used only once.

ANSWER:

  1. Non-productive cough = E) Butorphanol
  2. Systemic Anaphylaxis = D) Epinephrine
  3. Atonic Bladder = C) Bethanechol
  4. Ventricular Tachyarrhythmia = A) Lidocaine
  5. Gastric Ulcer = B) Omeprazole
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18
Q

Which class of drugs is likely to produce side-effects characterized by SLUD syndrome if overdosed?

A) H1-Antihistamines
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Adrenergic Agonists
D) Cholinergic Agonists

A

Which class of drugs is likely to produce side-effects characterized by SLUD syndrome if overdosed?

A) H1-Antihistamines
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Adrenergic Agonists
D) Cholinergic Agonists

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19
Q

Match the drug with its correct action.

  1. Lidocaine
  2. Propanolol
  3. Sotalol
  4. Diltiazem

A. K+ Channel Blocker
B. Na+ Channel Blocker
C. Ca2+ Channel Blocker
D. B-Adrenergic Antagonist

A

Match the drug with its correct action

Lidocaine - Na+ Channel Blocker

Propanolol - B-Adrenergic Antagonist

Sotalol - K+ Channel Blocker

Diltiazem - Ca2+ Channel Blocker

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20
Q

Please match the type of drug with the indicated use. Use each answer only once.

β2-Adrenergic Agonist (Albuterol)
H1-Histamine Antagonist (Loratidine)
ACE inhibitor (Enalapril)
H2-Histamine Antagonist (Famotidine)

*Bronchodilation
Gastric Ulcer Prevention
Allergic Disease
Congestive Heart Failure *

A

Please match the type of drug with the indicated use. Use each answer only once.

β2-Adrenergic Agonist (Albuterol) - *Bronchodilation *
H1-Histamine Antagonist (Loratidine) - Allergic Disease
ACE inhibitor (Enalapril) - Congestive Heart Failure
H2-Histamine Antagonist (Famotidine) - *Gastric Ulcer Prevention *

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21
Q

Why do non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) have a low volume of distribution (Vd)?

a. They are acidic (ionized).
b. They bind extensively to plasma proteins.
c. They accumulate in inflamed areas.
d. All of the above

A

Why do non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) have a low volume of distribution (Vd)?

a. They are acidic (ionized).
b. They bind extensively to plasma proteins.
c. They accumulate in inflamed areas.
* *d. All of the above**

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22
Q

Triamterene and Spironolactone are _____ that undergo hepatic biotransformation to active metabolites. This activation occurs in _____ of hepatic biotransformation via oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis.

a. calcineurin inhibitors; phase 1
b. diuretics; phase 1
c. calcineurin inhibitors; phase 2
d. diuretics; phase 2

A

Triamterene and Spironolactone are _____ that undergo hepatic biotransformation to active metabolites. This activation occurs in _____ of hepatic biotransformation via oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis.

a. calcineurin inhibitors; phase 1
* *b. diuretics; phase 1**
c. calcineurin inhibitors; phase 2
d. diuretics; phase 2

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23
Q

23. Which of the following antihistamines would be most likely to produce a brain:plasma concentration ratio of < 1?

A. diphenhydramine
B. cetirizine
C. meclizine
D. chlorpheniramine

A

23. Which of the following antihistamines would be most likely to produce a brain:plasma concentration ratio of < 1?

A. diphenhydramine
B. cetirizine
C. meclizine
D. chlorpheniramine

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24
Q

What are the primary actions of glucocorticoid-glucocorticoid receptor (GC-GCR) complexes?

A. Decrease expression of pro-coagulant cytokines, and increase expression of anti-coagulant cytokines
B. Increase contractility in myocardial cells, and decrease Na+/K+/ATPase activity
C. Decrease expression of histamine H2 receptors, and increase production of prostaglandins
D. Decrease expression of pro-inflammatory proteins, and increase expression of anti-inflammatory proteins

A

What are the primary actions of glucocorticoid-glucocorticoid receptor (GC-GCR) complexes?

A. Decrease expression of pro-coagulant cytokines, and increase expression of anti-coagulant cytokines
B. Increase contractility in myocardial cells, and decrease Na+/K+/ATPase activity
C. Decrease expression of histamine H2 receptors, and increase production of prostaglandins
D. Decrease expression of pro-inflammatory proteins, and increase expression of anti-inflammatory proteins

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25
Q

** You have a cat brought in to your practice that has ingested some aspirin. Why should you be more concerned about this situation since you are specifically dealing with a cat?**

a. Cats are smaller and the drug has a greater effect than on a dog
b. Cat has hemoglobin that is more susceptible to break down
c. Decreased glucuronidation in the cat will lead to slower elimination of the drug
d. Both b and c are correct

A

** You have a cat brought in to your practice that has ingested some aspirin. Why should you be more concerned about this situation since you are specifically dealing with a cat?**

a. Cats are smaller and the drug has a greater effect than on a dog
b. Cat has hemoglobin that is more susceptible to break down
c. Decreased glucuronidation in the cat will lead to slower elimination of the drug
* *d. Both b and c are correct**

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26
Q

You have a lactating dog brought to your clinic with heart arrhythmias. You are considering what drug to prescribe. What might be your concern with prescribing a basic drug like propranolol?

a. the drug could be passed to the puppies through the milk
b. the drug would accumulate in the urine if the dog had recently ingested some bicarbonate that same day
c. drug could build up in her system since dogs have poor biliary excretion
d. a and b are correct

A

You have a lactating dog brought to your clinic with heart arrhythmias. You are considering what drug to prescribe. What might be your concern with prescribing a basic drug like propranolol?

  • *a. the drug could be passed to the puppies through the milk**
    b. the drug would accumulate in the urine if the dog had recently ingested some bicarbonate that same day
    c. drug could build up in her system since dogs have poor biliary excretion
    d. a and b are correct
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27
Q

Which of the following drugs are used PRIMARILY as an anti-emetic?

a. Diphenhydramine
b. Xylazine (Alpha2-Adrenergic Agonists)
c. Metaclopramide
d. Apomorphine

A

Which of the following drugs are used PRIMARILY as an anti-emetic?

a. Diphenhydramine
b. Xylazine (Alpha2-Adrenergic Agonists)
* *c. Metaclopramide**
d. Apomorphine

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28
Q

Stimulation of which type of receptor will cause an increase in cAMP?

a. Even numbered muscarinic cholinergic receptors
b. Alpha2 Adrenergic Receptors
c. Beta Adrenergic Receptors
d. Muscarinic Acetylcholine Receptors

A

Stimulation of which type of receptor will cause an increase in cAMP?

a. Even numbered muscarinic cholinergic receptors
b. Alpha2 Adrenergic Receptors
* *c. Beta Adrenergic Receptors**
d. Muscarinic Acetylcholine Receptors

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29
Q

Which of the following does NOT apply to ruminants?

a. As herbivores they tend to metabolize drugs better than carnivores
b. β2 –Adrenergic agonist can be used to slow the process of parturition
c. Erythromycin stimulates stomach and small intestinal motility effectively and safely without adverse effects
d. Young ruminants tend to absorb drugs like monogastrics till there rumen develop

A

Which of the following does NOT apply to ruminants?

a. As herbivores they tend to metabolize drugs better than carnivores
b. β2 –Adrenergic agonist can be used to slow the process of parturition
* *c. Erythromycin stimulates stomach and small intestinal motility effectively and safely without adverse effects**
d. Young ruminants tend to absorb drugs like monogastrics till there rumen develop

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30
Q

Which of the following is matched correct for contraction of the muscle type listed?

     a. β2 –Adrenergic agonist àsmooth muscle
      b. Nicotinic Cholinergic Receptors à skeletal muscle
      c. PGF2α Agonist à skeletal muscle
      d. Muscarinic Cholinergic Receptors à skeletal muscle
A

Which of the following is matched correct for contraction of the muscle type listed?

a. β2 –Adrenergic agonist àsmooth muscle
* *b. Nicotinic Cholinergic Receptors à skeletal muscle**
c. PGF2α Agonist à skeletal muscle
d. Muscarinic Cholinergic Receptors à skeletal muscle

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31
Q

Which one of these drug classes can have effects on glucose metabolism that resemble glucocorticoids?

a. H2-Blockers
b. α-Adrenergic Agonists
c. β2-Adrenergic Agonists
d. α-Adrenergic Antagonists

A

Which one of these drug classes can have effects on glucose metabolism that resemble glucocorticoids?

a. H2-Blockers
b. α-Adrenergic Agonists
* *c. β2-Adrenergic Agonists**
d. α-Adrenergic Antagonists

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32
Q

Some of the newer bronchodilators on the scene are muscarinic receptor blockers, a group which includes atropine. Knowing this, what side effect might you see characteristic of this group of drugs?

a. Mydriasis
b. Decreased heart rate
c. Increased tear production
d. Increased GI motility

A

Some of the newer bronchodilators on the scene are muscarinic receptor blockers, a group which includes atropine. Knowing this, what side effect might you see characteristic of this group of drugs?

  • *a. Mydriasis**
    b. Decreased heart rate
    c. Increased tear production
    d. Increased GI motility
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33
Q

You have a dog that presents with glaucoma, along with being slightly dehydrated. What are your options for treatment of this patient’s glaucoma and what action does the drug(s) take?

A. Pilocarpine- muscarinic cholinergic antagonist
B. Pilocarpine- muscarinic cholinergic agonist
C. Mannitol- osmotic diuretic
D. B & C

A

You have a dog that presents with glaucoma, along with being slightly dehydrated. What are your options for treatment of this patient’s glaucoma and what action does the drug(s) take?

A. Pilocarpine- muscarinic cholinergic antagonist
B. Pilocarpine- muscarinic cholinergic agonist
C. Mannitol- osmotic diuretic
D. B & C

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34
Q

** A dog has been on a long term treatment with Deracoxib, an oral NSAID, and now is presenting with severe gastric ulcers from the treatment. Which of the drugs below will treat the ulcers by reducing gastric acid secretion, as well as increasing cytoprotection by acting as a Prostaglandin E analog?**

A. Cloprostenol
B. Famotidine
C. Misoprostol
D. Either A or C

A

** A dog has been on a long term treatment with Deracoxib, an oral NSAID, and now is presenting with severe gastric ulcers from the treatment. Which of the drugs below will treat the ulcers by reducing gastric acid secretion, as well as increasing cytoprotection by acting as a Prostaglandin E analog?**

A. Cloprostenol
B. Famotidine
C. Misoprostol
D. Either A or C

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35
Q

35. Which process is NOT involved in drug biotransformation?

a. ) Oxidation/ Reduction
b. ) Conjugation
c. ) Hydrolysis
d. ) Lipolysis

A

35. Which process is NOT involved in drug biotransformation?

a. ) Oxidation/ Reduction
b. ) Conjugation
c. ) Hydrolysis
* *d.) Lipolysis**

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36
Q

What factor can be measured clinically to predict the renal drug clearance of a patient?

a. ) Serum creatinine
b. ) Urinary pH
c. ) Arterial blood pressure
d. ) Bile content of feces

A

**What factor can be measured clinically to predict the renal drug clearance of a patient?

a.) Serum creatinine**

b. ) Urinary pH
c. ) Arterial blood pressure
d. ) Bile content of feces

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37
Q

You have a patient with renal failure. Which drug should you avoid giving?

a. Furosemide - Diuretic
b. Enalapril – ACE inhibitor
c. Phenylephrine – Alpha -1 Adrenergic Agonist
d. Propranolol – Class II beta-adrenergic antagonist

A

You have a patient with renal failure. Which drug should you avoid giving?

a. Furosemide - Diuretic
* *b. Enalapril – ACE inhibitor**
c. Phenylephrine – Alpha -1 Adrenergic Agonist
d. Propranolol – Class II beta-adrenergic antagonist

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38
Q

You are presented with a vomiting cat. The owner tells you the cat has just started vomiting, but assures you they are 100% sure the cat could not have gotten into anything toxic. You decide to administer xylazine, an emetic, to stop the vomiting. Shortly after administration, the owner remembers the cat did indeed come into contact with a poisonous plant. Which drug would you use to reverse the effect of the emetic you just gave?

a. Prazosin – Selective alpha1- AR antagonist
b. Propranolol – Class II beta-adrenergic antagonist
c. Apomorphine- Potent Emetic
d. Yohimbine – Selective alpha2-AR antagonist

A

You are presented with a vomiting cat. The owner tells you the cat has just started vomiting, but assures you they are 100% sure the cat could not have gotten into anything toxic. You decide to administer xylazine, an emetic, to stop the vomiting. Shortly after administration, the owner remembers the cat did indeed come into contact with a poisonous plant. Which drug would you use to reverse the effect of the emetic you just gave?

a. Prazosin – Selective alpha1- AR antagonist
b. Propranolol – Class II beta-adrenergic antagonist
c. Apomorphine- Potent Emetic
* *d. Yohimbine – Selective alpha2-AR antagonist**

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39
Q

Which of the following provides GI protection?

A. Prostanoid homologs used as prostanoid receptor agonists
B. H2 Histamine receptor agonists
C. Proton pump inhibitors
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. A and C

A

Which of the following provides GI protection?

A. Prostanoid homologs used as prostanoid receptor agonists
B. H2 Histamine receptor agonists
C. Proton pump inhibitors
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. A and C

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40
Q

Which of the following drugs act on both nicotinic and muscarinic acetylcholine receptors?

A. Pilocarpine
B.Carbachol
C. Nicotine
D. Bethanechol

A

Which of the following drugs act on both nicotinic and muscarinic acetylcholine receptors?

A. Pilocarpine
B. Carbachol
C. Nicotine
D. Bethanechol

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41
Q

Diphenhydramine is an example of an _____ histamine receptor antagonist and is extensively bound to plasma proteins in the body. This means it has a high plasma drug concentration and a _____ volume of distribution (Vd).

A. H1 ; high
B. H1 ; low
C. H2; high
D. H2 ; low

A

Diphenhydramine is an example of an _____ histamine receptor antagonist and is extensively bound to plasma proteins in the body. This means it has a high plasma drug concentration and a _____ volume of distribution (Vd).

A. H1 ; high
B. H1 ; low
C. H2; high
D. H2 ; low

42
Q

Digoxin is a positive inotropic drug with a serum T1/2 of 24 hours in the dog. Which of the following is TRUE:

A. Digoxin will increase cardiac contractility by increasing Ca2+ availability and will reach steady state concentration in 96 hours
B. Digoxin will increase cardiac contractility by increasing Ca2+availability and will reach steady state concentration in 6 hours
C. Digoxin will increase cardiac contractility by blocking K+ channels and will reach steady state concentration in 96 hours
D. Digoxin will increase cardiac contractility by blocking K+ channels and will reach steady state concentration in 6 hours

A

Digoxin is a positive inotropic drug with a serum T1/2 of 24 hours in the dog. Which of the following is TRUE:

A. Digoxin will increase cardiac contractility by increasing Ca2+ availability and will reach steady state concentration in 96 hours
B. Digoxin will increase cardiac contractility by increasing Ca2+availability and will reach steady state concentration in 6 hours
C. Digoxin will increase cardiac contractility by blocking K+ channels and will reach steady state concentration in 96 hours
D. Digoxin will increase cardiac contractility by blocking K+ channels and will reach steady state concentration in 6 hours

43
Q

Which of the following drugs should be given to treat systemic anaphylaxis?

a. Diphenhydramine
b. Epinephrine
c. Cimetidine
d. Cromoglycate

A

Which of the following drugs should be given to treat systemic anaphylaxis?

a. Diphenhydramine
* *b. Epinephrine**
c. Cimetidine
d. Cromoglycate

44
Q

The side effects of H1 antagonists are similar to the therapeutic effects of which muscarinic cholinergic antagonist?

a. Atropine
b. Norepinephrine
c. COX-1 Inhibitors
d. COX-2 inhibitors

A

The side effects of H1 antagonists are similar to the therapeutic effects of which muscarinic cholinergic antagonist?

  • *a. Atropine**
    b. Norepinephrine
    c. COX-1 Inhibitors
    d. COX-2 inhibitors
45
Q

Which receptor (s) can be targeted with drugs to cause mydriasis?

a. Alpha 1 adrenergic R
b. Alpha 2 adrenergic R
c. Muscarinic Cholinergic R
d. A and C

A

Which receptor (s) can be targeted with drugs to cause mydriasis?

a. Alpha 1 adrenergic R
b. Alpha 2 adrenergic R
c. Muscarinic Cholinergic R
* *d. A and C**

46
Q

In what cases would it be appropriate to use the drug spironolactone?

a. To treat hypokalemia and chronic heart failure
b. To treat hypokalemia and hypertension
c. To treat hyperkalemia and chronic heart failure
d. To treat hyperkalemia and hypertension

A

In what cases would it be appropriate to use the drug spironolactone?

  • *a. To treat hypokalemia and chronic heart failure**
    b. To treat hypokalemia and hypertension
    c. To treat hyperkalemia and chronic heart failure
    d. To treat hyperkalemia and hypertension
47
Q

What do the following four drugs have in common?
B-adrenergic receptor agonist (Isoproterenol)
mAChR agonist (Pilocarpine)
Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor - diuretic (Acetazolamide)
Non-specific diuretic (Mannitol)

a. They are all lipid soluble and therefore have large volumes of distribution
b. They are all coupled to cAMP second messenger system
c. They all can be used to help treat glaucoma because of their ability to reduce intraocular pressure
d. They all decrease intracellular Ca+2 levels and thus are effective treatments for cardiac arrhythmias.

A

What do the following four drugs have in common?
B-adrenergic receptor agonist (Isoproterenol)
mAChR agonist (Pilocarpine)
Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor - diuretic (Acetazolamide)
Non-specific diuretic (Mannitol)

a. They are all lipid soluble and therefore have large volumes of distribution
b. They are all coupled to cAMP second messenger system
* *c. They all can be used to help treat glaucoma because of their ability to reduce intraocular pressure**
d. They all decrease intracellular Ca+2 levels and thus are effective treatments for cardiac arrhythmias.

48
Q

A patient is recovering from a surgery during which he received Vecuronium, a neuromuscular blocker. As he wakes up during recovery, the owner looks concerned and panicked about the manner in which his dog is waking up. You inform the owner that his dog…

a. is recovering and that the medication is still wearing off from his larger muscles and that when he does fully wake, he should be in a decreased pain state because you administered the COX2 selective NSAID, Carprofen.
b. is recovering and that the reversal drug administered, Atropine, still needs some time to increase his cardiac output.
c. is recovering and that the CNS effects of the drug are still wearing off because of the drug crossing the blood brain barrier it can take a little more time for liver biotransformation and excretion
d. is experiencing tachycardia, a side effect of this neuromuscular blocker.

A

A patient is recovering from a surgery during which he received Vecuronium, a neuromuscular blocker. As he wakes up during recovery, the owner looks concerned and panicked about the manner in which his dog is waking up. You inform the owner that his dog…

  • *a. is recovering and that the medication is still wearing off from his larger muscles and that when he does fully wake, he should be in a decreased pain state because you administered the COX2 selective NSAID, Carprofen.**
    b. is recovering and that the reversal drug administered, Atropine, still needs some time to increase his cardiac output.
    c. is recovering and that the CNS effects of the drug are still wearing off because of the drug crossing the blood brain barrier it can take a little more time for liver biotransformation and excretion
    d. is experiencing tachycardia, a side effect of this neuromuscular blocker.
49
Q

** Which of the following is false regarding NSAID-induced ulcers?**

a. COX-1 and COX-2 inhibition reduces PGE2 and PGI2 prostanoids, reducing their cytoprotective effects.
b. Misoprostil is a PGE2 analogue that decreases acid and has a short-term cytoprotective effect.
c. H2-histamine antagonists like Famotidine are the most effective treatment for gastric ulcers.
d. Gastric acid pH can be decreased by drugs like Omeprazole.
e. Famotidine efficacy decreases over time due to the body’s response to produce more gastrin.

A

** Which of the following is false regarding NSAID-induced ulcers?**

a. COX-1 and COX-2 inhibition reduces PGE2 and PGI2 prostanoids, reducing their cytoprotective effects.
b. Misoprostil is a PGE2 analogue that decreases acid and has a short-term cytoprotective effect.
* *c. H2-histamine antagonists like Famotidine are the most effective treatment for gastric ulcers.**
d. Gastric acid pH can be decreased by drugs like Omeprazole.
e. Famotidine efficacy decreases over time due to the body’s response to produce more gastrin.

50
Q

** Match the drug with its possible additive effects when paired with furosemide.**

  1. Decrease furosemide efficacy due to decreased GFR
  2. Additive diuretic effects, increase in urine salt concentration
  3. Hypokalemic acidosis
  4. Cardiac arrhythmias
  5. Hearing loss

a. Hydrochlorothiazide
b. NSAIDs
c. Ototoxic drugs (ex. Cisplatin)
d. Digitalis
e. Glucocorticoids

A

** Match the drug with its possible additive effects when paired with furosemide.**

  1. Decrease furosemide efficacy due to decreased GFR - NSAID’s
  2. Additive diuretic effects, increase in urine salt concentration - Hydrochlorothiazide
  3. Hypokalemic acidosis - Glucocorticoids
  4. Cardiac arrhythmias - Digitalis
  5. Hearing loss - Ototoxic drugs (ex. Cisplatin)
51
Q

Which choline ester does NOT have nicotinic activity?

a) Succinylcholine
b) Bethanechol
c) Carbamylcholine
d) Acetylcholine

A

Which choline ester does NOT have nicotinic activity?

a) Succinylcholine
* *b) Bethanechol**
c) Carbamylcholine
d) Acetylcholine

52
Q
  • *Match the characteristics with the correct species**
    a) Cat
    b) Rabbit
    c) Horse
    d) Ruminants

1- The heart is the major shock organ involved in anaphylaxis
2- Use of Clenbuterol as a bronchodilator to help treat heaves
3- Relatively low level of drug glucuronide conjugation
4- Phenylbutazone is not used in this species due to its long half life (38-78 hrs)

A
  • *Match the characteristics with the correct species**
    a) Cat (3)
    b) Rabbit (1)
    c) Horse (2)
    d) Ruminants (4)

1- The heart is the major shock organ involved in anaphylaxis
2- Use of Clenbuterol as a bronchodilator to help treat heaves
3- Relatively low level of drug glucuronide conjugation
4- Phenylbutazone is not used in this species due to its long half life (38-78 hrs)

53
Q

** Match each drug with the action that best describes it. Each answer may be used only once. **

A. H1-Antihistamine
B. dual COX/5-LOX inhibitor
C. muscarinic cholinergic receptor agonist
D. beta-adrenergic antagonist

Propranolol
Diphenhydramine
Pilocarpine
Tepoxalin

A

** Match each drug with the action that best describes it. Each answer may be used only once. **

A. H1-Antihistamine - Diphenhydramine
B. dual COX/5-LOX inhibitor - Tepoxalin
C. muscarinic cholinergic receptor agonist - Pilocarpine
D. beta-adrenergic antagonist - *Propanolol *

54
Q

** Which of the following is NOT an effect of a Class II antiarrhythmic drug?
**
A. Decreased heart rate and cardiac contractility
B. Increased [cAMP]
C. Decreased AV nodal conduction
D. Block reflex bronchodilation

A

** Which of the following is NOT an effect of a Class II antiarrhythmic drug?
**
A. Decreased heart rate and cardiac contractility
B. Increased [cAMP]
C. Decreased AV nodal conduction
D. Block reflex bronchodilation

55
Q

Match each drug name with the type of drug that it is:

Aspirin
Pimobendan (Vetmedin)
Lidocaine
Famotidine

Phophodiesterase Inhibitor
NSAIDs
H2 Hitamine Antagonist
Na Channel Blocker

A

Match each drug name with the type of drug that it is:

Aspirin - NSAID
Pimobendan (Vetmedin) - *Phosphodiesterase Inhibitor *
Lidocaine - *Na Channel Blocker *
Famotidine - *H2 Histamine Antagonist *

56
Q

** Give the name and type of receptor that is antagonized by Maropitant.**

a. ) serotonin receptor, ligand gated ion channel
b. ) bradykinin receptor, G-protein coupled receptor
c. ) neurokinin receptor, G-protein coupled receptor
d. ) nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, kinase linked receptor

A

** Give the name and type of receptor that is antagonized by Maropitant.**

a. ) serotonin receptor, ligand gated ion channel
b. ) bradykinin receptor, G-protein coupled receptor
* *c.) neurokinin receptor, G-protein coupled receptor**
d. ) nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, kinase linked receptor

57
Q

** An H2 antagonist like cimentidine acts on receptors on which of the following cells:**

a. ) mast cells, to inhibit histamine release
b. ) skin neurons, to prevent histamine-mediated depolarization (“flare”)
c. ) gastric parietal cells, reducing acid secretion
d. ) endothelial cells, to inhibit histamine-mediated capillary permeability (“wheal”)

A

** An H2 antagonist like cimentidine acts on receptors on which of the following cells:**

a. ) mast cells, to inhibit histamine release
b. ) skin neurons, to prevent histamine-mediated depolarization (“flare”)
* *c.) gastric parietal cells, reducing acid secretion**
d. ) endothelial cells, to inhibit histamine-mediated capillary permeability (“wheal”)

58
Q

Why is particle size an important factor regarding nebulized drugs?

a. ) smaller particles are not lipid soluble
b. ) only a fraction of the drug is absorbed from the lungs; most is swallowed
c. ) an increase in particle size decreases the therapeutic effect of these drugs
d. ) particles too large may be trapped by alveolar macrophages

A

Why is particle size an important factor regarding nebulized drugs?

a. ) smaller particles are not lipid soluble
* *b.) only a fraction of the drug is absorbed from the lungs; most is swallowed**
c. ) an increase in particle size decreases the therapeutic effect of these drugs
d. ) particles too large may be trapped by alveolar macrophages

59
Q

In regards to the kidney: NSAIDs reduce the production of __________, which is a major controller of kidney perfusion. Reducing this factor will cause hypoperfusion. But, we now know of a drug we can give to increase blood flow to the kidneys called, ______________.

A) Prostaglandins, Epinephrine
B) Prostaglandins, Fenoldapam
C) NF-kappa Beta, Albuterol
D) NF- kappa Beta, Diphenhydramine

A

In regards to the kidney: NSAIDs reduce the production of __________, which is a major controller of kidney perfusion. Reducing this factor will cause hypoperfusion. But, we now know of a drug we can give to increase blood flow to the kidneys called, ______________.

A) Prostaglandins, Epinephrine
B) Prostaglandins, Fenoldapam
C) NF-kappa Beta, Albuterol
D) NF- kappa Beta, Diphenhydramine

60
Q

There are special considerations to keep in mind when treating cats. Which one of these is NOT true in regards to cats?

A) They cannot do glucuronidation
B) Sinus arrest may occur from administration of IV Lidocaine
C) They are unable to metabolize Carprofen
D) Higher molecular weight –> greater chance of biliary excretion

A

** There are special considerations to keep in mind when treating cats. Which one of these is NOT true in regards to cats?**

A) They cannot do glucuronidation
B) Sinus arrest may occur from administration of IV Lidocaine
C) They are unable to metabolize Carprofen
D) Higher molecular weight –> greater chance of biliary excretion

61
Q

Which pair of drugs would NOT work synergistically to produce their desired effect(s)?

a) Hydrochlorothiazide - Enalapril
b) Furosemide – Hydrochlorothiazide
c) Epinephrine - Propranolol
d) Dobutamine - Amlodipine

A

Which pair of drugs would NOT work synergistically to produce their desired effect(s)?

a) Hydrochlorothiazide - Enalapril
b) Furosemide – Hydrochlorothiazide
* *c) Epinephrine - Propranolol**
d) Dobutamine - Amlodipine

62
Q

**Match each drug with its indication for use

Drugs:**

  1. Acetazolamide
  2. Misoprostol
  3. Theophylline
  4. Bethanechol
  • *Indications for use:**
    a. Bronchodilation through inhibition of phosphodiesterase activity
    b. Prevention or treatment of gastric ulcers
    c. Decrease intraocular pressure from glaucoma
    d. Stimulation of urinary bladder or gastrointestinal motility
A

**Match each drug with its indication for use

Drugs:**

  1. Acetazolamide (c)
  2. Misoprostol (b)
  3. Theophylline (a)
  4. Bethanechol (d)
  • *Indications for use:**
    a. Bronchodilation through inhibition of phosphodiesterase activity
    b. Prevention or treatment of gastric ulcers
    c. Decrease intraocular pressure from glaucoma
    d. Stimulation of urinary bladder or gastrointestinal motility
63
Q

Which of the following is a locally-acting emetic agent?

a. Warm water
b. Concentrated sodium chloride solution
c. 3% hydrogen peroxide
d. All of the above

A

Which of the following is a locally-acting emetic agent?

a. Warm water
b. Concentrated sodium chloride solution
c. 3% hydrogen peroxide
* *d. All of the above**

64
Q

The major “shock” organ involved in anaphylaxis in the dog is the ____?

a. Heart
b. Intestines
c. Lungs
d. None of the above

A

The major “shock” organ involved in anaphylaxis in the dog is the ____?

a. Heart
* *b. Intestines**
c. Lungs
d. None of the above

65
Q

When using a dopamine agonist to treat CHF, which dopamine receptor would be the better drug target?

A. D1-like dopamine receptor, because it causes an increase in [cAMP]
B. D2-like dopamine receptor, because it causes an increase in [cAMP]
C. D1-like dopamine receptor, because it causes a decrease in [cAMP]
D. D2-like dopamine receptor, because it causes a decrease in [cAMP]

A

**When using a dopamine agonist to treat CHF, which dopamine receptor would be the better drug target?

A. D1-like dopamine receptor, because it causes an increase in [cAMP]**

B. D2-like dopamine receptor, because it causes an increase in [cAMP]
C. D1-like dopamine receptor, because it causes a decrease in [cAMP]
D. D2-like dopamine receptor, because it causes a decrease in [cAMP]

66
Q

Which of the pairings below INCORRECTLY represents an agonist-antagonist pair at their specific receptor?

A. Xylazine—Yohimbine
B. Cortisol—Mifepristone
C. Bethanechol—Pancuronium
D. Histamine—Hydroxyzine

A

Which of the pairings below INCORRECTLY represents an agonist-antagonist pair at their specific receptor?

A. Xylazine—Yohimbine
B. Cortisol—Mifepristone
C. Bethanechol—Pancuronium
D. Histamine—Hydroxyzine

67
Q

Which drug is a Prostanoid Receptor Agonist used for GI ulcers?

A. Cloprostenol (Estrumate)
B. Misoprostil (Cytotec)
C. Omeprazole (GastroGard)
D. Travoprost (Travatan)

A

Which drug is a Prostanoid Receptor Agonist used for GI ulcers?

A. Cloprostenol (Estrumate)
B. Misoprostil (Cytotec)
C. Omeprazole (GastroGard)
D. Travoprost (Travatan)

68
Q

Match the drug with its associated class

A. Chronic Heart Failure Class I
B. Chronic Heart Failure Class II
C. Chronic Heart Failure Class III
D. Chronic Heart Failure Class IV
E. Antiarrhythmic Drugs Class I
F. Antiarrhythmic Drugs Class II
G. Antiarrhythmic Drugs Class III
H. Antiarrhythmic Drugs Class IV

  1. Positive inotropes OR vasodilators OR Beta-AR blockers
  2. Positive inotropic agents AND vasodilators/Beta-AR blockers
  3. Potassium channel blockers
  4. No drug, just decrease sodium intake
  5. Sodium channel blockers
  6. Calcium channel blockers
  7. Thiazide diuretics
  8. Beta-Adrenergic receptor antagonists
A

Match the drug with its associated class

A. Chronic Heart Failure Class I
B. Chronic Heart Failure Class II
C. Chronic Heart Failure Class III
D. Chronic Heart Failure Class IV
E. Antiarrhythmic Drugs Class I
F. Antiarrhythmic Drugs Class II
G. Antiarrhythmic Drugs Class III
H. Antiarrhythmic Drugs Class IV

  1. Positive inotropes OR vasodilators OR Beta-AR blockers
  2. Positive inotropic agents AND vasodilators/Beta-AR blockers
  3. Potassium channel blockers
  4. No drug, just decrease sodium intake
  5. Sodium channel blockers
  6. Calcium channel blockers
  7. Thiazide diuretics
  8. Beta-Adrenergic receptor antagonists

Answers:
A: 4
B: 7
C: 1
D: 2
E: 5
F: 8
G: 3
H: 6

69
Q

Thanks to Dr. Brown, we now know that Epinephrine is used clinically as a “first line” drug for the treatment of systemic anaphylaxis. What the heck is Epinephrine? and what would be the best route of administration to quickly resolve this possibly life-threatening condition?

a) H1-histamine receptor agonist (“antihistamine”); via intravenous injection.
b) H1-histamine receptor agonist (“antihistamine”); via intramuscular injection.
c) α2-adrenergic receptor agonist; via subcutaneous injection.
d) Catecholamine (NOT a “antihistamine”); via intravenous injection

A

Thanks to Dr. Brown, we now know that Epinephrine is used clinically as a “first line” drug for the treatment of systemic anaphylaxis. What the heck is Epinephrine? and what would be the best route of administration to quickly resolve this possibly life-threatening condition?

a) H1-histamine receptor agonist (“antihistamine”); via intravenous injection.
b) H1-histamine receptor agonist (“antihistamine”); via intramuscular injection.
c) α2-adrenergic receptor agonist; via subcutaneous injection.
* *d) Catecholamine (NOT a “antihistamine”); via intravenous injection**

70
Q

First pass metabolism is an important pharmacological concept that relates to a drug given by _________ route of administration. First pass metabolism has the effect of _________ drug concentrations in the body (when compared to other routes that don’t undergo first pass metabolism).

a) Oral; decreasing
b) Transdermal; increasing
c) Intravenous; increasing
d) Intravenous; decreasing

A

First pass metabolism is an important pharmacological concept that relates to a drug given by _________ route of administration. First pass metabolism has the effect of _________ drug concentrations in the body (when compared to other routes that don’t undergo first pass metabolism).

  • *a) Oral; decreasing**
    b) Transdermal; increasing
    c) Intravenous; increasing
    d) Intravenous; decreasing
71
Q

** Carboxyesterase converts the pro-drug irinotecan to its active form SN-38, which is anti-neoplastic. Based on the SN-38 chemical structure alone, which of the following biotransformation reactions could potentially be used to eliminate the drug from the body? (More than one answer may be marked)**

A. Glucuronidation
B. Sulfate Conjugation
C. Glutathione Conjugation
D. N-Acetylation

A

** Carboxyesterase converts the pro-drug irinotecan to its active form SN-38, which is anti-neoplastic. Based on the SN-38 chemical structure alone, which of the following biotransformation reactions could potentially be used to eliminate the drug from the body? (More than one answer may be marked)**

_A. Glucuronidation
B. Sulfate Conjugation_
C. Glutathione Conjugation
D. N-Acetylation

Answer: A & B, the chemical structure has –OH groups which means that glucuronidation via UGT’s and sulfation via SULT’s are possible for elimination of the drug from the body.

72
Q

Given that the drug above is primarily eliminated via the bile/feces, which of the following enzyme/reaction pairs taking place in the intestine would be active in extending the half-life of SN-38 by rescuing the compound from elimination?

A. UDP-glucuronyltransferases (UDT’s) via Enterohepatic Drug Recycling
B. Beta-glucuronidase via Enterohepatic Drug Recycling
C. Phosphoglucomutase via Glucuronic Acid Conjugation
D. Beta-glucuronidase via Anti-Neoplastic Drug Recycling

A

Given that the drug above is primarily eliminated via the bile/feces, which of the following enzyme/reaction pairs taking place in the intestine would be active in extending the half-life of SN-38 by rescuing the compound from elimination?

A. UDP-glucuronyltransferases (UDT’s) via Enterohepatic Drug Recycling
B. Beta-glucuronidase via Enterohepatic Drug Recycling
C. Phosphoglucomutase via Glucuronic Acid Conjugation
D. Beta-glucuronidase via Anti-Neoplastic Drug Recycling

73
Q

Which types of drugs are most permeable across the GI cell membrane because of their high lipid solubility?

a. Cardiac
 Glycosides
b. Thiazides
c. Carbamates
d. Organophosphates

A

Which types of drugs are most permeable across the GI cell membrane because of their high lipid solubility?

a. Cardiac
 Glycosides
b. Thiazides
c. Carbamates
* *d. Organophosphates**

74
Q

You work at a country clinic and have been called out to a farm to perform a castration. While doing the surgery out in the field, you’ve decided to use xylazine as part of your drug concoction to sedate the horse. Upon finishing the surgery, you notice the animal is not waking up as quickly as you would like and are concerned that the xylazine may have depressed his response. To reverse the xylazine you decide to give

a. Furosemide
b. Yohimbine
c. Dexamethasone
d. Propranolol

A

You work at a country clinic and have been called out to a farm to perform a castration. While doing the surgery out in the field, you’ve decided to use xylazine as part of your drug concoction to sedate the horse. Upon finishing the surgery, you notice the animal is not waking up as quickly as you would like and are concerned that the xylazine may have depressed his response. To reverse the xylazine you decide to give

a. Furosemide
* *b. Yohimbine**
c. Dexamethasone
d. Propranolol

75
Q

** Which drug(s) can aggravate diabetes mellitus?**

A.epinephrine
B. medetomidine
C.prednisone
D. both A and C

A

** Which drug(s) can aggravate diabetes mellitus?**

A. epinephrine
B. medetomidine
C. prednisone
D. both A and C

76
Q

**NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors when used together glomerular filtration rate. NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandins which and Ace inhibitors inhibit Angiotensin II which . **

A. Decrease, which decrease afferent flow, which increase efferent flow
B. Increase, which decrease afferent flow, which increase efferent flow
C. Decrease, which increase afferent flow, which decrease efferent flow
D. Increase, which increase afferent flow, which decrease efferent flow

A

**NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors when used together glomerular filtration rate. NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandins which and Ace inhibitors inhibit Angiotensin II which .

A. Decrease, which decrease afferent flow, which increase efferent flow**
B. Increase, which decrease afferent flow, which increase efferent flow
C. Decrease, which increase afferent flow, which decrease efferent flow
D. Increase, which increase afferent flow, which decrease efferent flow

77
Q

Which of these is not a function of Lidocaine?

  1. It is a class 1B Antiarrhythmic drug
  2. It stimulates intestinal motility
  3. It binds to sodium channels in the resting state
  4. It decreases automaticity in the heart
A

Which of these is not a function of Lidocaine?

  1. It is a class 1B Antiarrhythmic drug
  2. It stimulates intestinal motility
    * *3. It binds to sodium channels in the resting state**
  3. It decreases automaticity in the heart
78
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

  1. Spironolactone has the same effect on sodium retention as Cortisone.
  2. Dexamethasone has very potent sodium retention activity in the kidneys.
  3. Potassium-sparing diuretics inhibit the effects of aldosterone.
  4. Cortisone does not exhibit aldosterone-like activity.
A

Which of the following statements is true?

  1. Spironolactone has the same effect on sodium retention as Cortisone.
  2. Dexamethasone has very potent sodium retention activity in the kidneys.
    * *_3. Potassium-sparing diuretics inhibit the effects of aldosterone. _**
  3. Cortisone does not exhibit aldosterone-like activity.
79
Q

Which of the following conditions IS NOT treated by catecholamines?

A. Acute heart failure
B. Anaphylactic shock
C. Hemostasis
D. Gastrointestinal ulcers

A

Which of the following conditions IS NOT treated by catecholamines?

A. Acute heart failure
B. Anaphylactic shock
C. Hemostasis
D. Gastrointestinal ulcers

80
Q

Which of the following drugs acts as an antagonist at their respective receptor?

A. Bethanecol
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Cortisol
D. Dobutamine (catecholamines)

A

Which of the following drugs acts as an antagonist at their respective receptor?

A. Bethanecol
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Cortisol
D. Dobutamine (catecholamines)

81
Q

Which drug can help decrease intraocular pressure and/or aqueous humor production in patients with glaucoma?

A) Pilocarpine
B)Betoxolol
C) Latanoprost
D) Acetasolamide
E) All of the above

A

Which drug can help decrease intraocular pressure and/or aqueous humor production in patients with glaucoma?

A) Pilocarpine
B) Betoxolol
C) Latanoprost
D) Acetasolamide
E) All of the above

82
Q

Please match the drugs to their appropriate function.

A) Diphenhydramine
B) Propranolol
C) Lidocaine
D) Triamterene

1) It blocks epithelial Na+ channels in principle cells of the late distal tubule and collecting duct of the kidney, but is not aldosterone dependent.
2) It inhibits allergic reactions by blocking H1-histamine receptors
3) It acts on cardiac Na+ channels to decrease automaticity in the heart.
4) It slows heart rate and atrioventricular conduction by a direct action on cardiac neurotransmitter receptors.

A

Please match the drugs to their appropriate function.

A) Diphenhydramine = 2
B) Propranolol = 4
C) Lidocaine = 3
D) Triamterene = 1

1) It blocks epithelial Na+ channels in principle cells of the late distal tubule and collecting duct of the kidney, but is not aldosterone dependent.
2) It inhibits allergic reactions by blocking H1-histamine receptors
3) It acts on cardiac Na+ channels to decrease automaticity in the heart.
4) It slows heart rate and atrioventricular conduction by a direct action on cardiac neurotransmitter receptors.

83
Q

Match each drug with it’s target:

A. Propranolol
B. Misoprostil
C. Isoproterenol
D. Tepoxalin

b-adrenergic receptor agonist (C - Isoproterenol)
COX inhibitor (D - Tepoxalin)
PGE derivative (B - Misoprostil)
b-adrenergic receptor antagonist (A - Propranolol)

A

Match each drug with it’s target:

A. Propranolol - bAdrenergic receptor antagonist
B. Misoprostil - PGE derivative
C. Isoproterenol - Badrenergic receptor agonist
D. Tepoxalin - COX inhibitor

84
Q

Which of the following drugs does NOT produce vasodilation?

Isoproterenol
Lidocaine
Bethanecol
Misoprostil

A

Which of the following drugs does NOT produce vasodilation?

Isoproterenol
Lidocaine
Bethanecol
Misoprostil

85
Q

Which of the following is FALSE in regard to the Beta2 – Adrenergic Agonists?

a. They act to increase the diameter of small and large airways
b. They act to decrease the release of inflammatory mediators
c. Binding to the receptor causes an increase in [cAMP]
d. All beta-AR’s are competitively blocked by phentolamine

A

Which of the following is FALSE in regard to the Beta2 – Adrenergic Agonists?

a. They act to increase the diameter of small and large airways
b. They act to decrease the release of inflammatory mediators
c. Binding to the receptor causes an increase in [cAMP]
* *d. All beta-AR’s are competitively blocked by phentolamine**

86
Q

Lidocaine is a class 1B drug that acts on ____. It is also is extensively bound to plasma proteins, giving it a ____ Vd so it is more _____ removed from the body.

a. sodium channels, small, quickly
b. sodium channels, large, slowly
c. potassium channels, small, quickly
d. potassium channels, large, slowly

A

Lidocaine is a class 1B drug that acts on ____. It is also is extensively bound to plasma proteins, giving it a ____ Vd so it is more _____ removed from the body.

  • *a. sodium channels, small, quickly**
    b. sodium channels, large, slowly
    c. potassium channels, small, quickly
    d. potassium channels, large, slowly
87
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding norepinephrine?

A. Inactivated via non-microsomal oxidation processes (i.e. Monoamine oxidase)
B. Potentiated by Glucocorticoids
C. Increases blood pressure, thus decreasing HR via baroreflex vagal activation
D. Can be used to restore cardiac contractility in the case of cardiac arrest
E. None are false – All statements are true regarding norepinephrine

A

Which of the following is FALSE regarding norepinephrine?

A. Inactivated via non-microsomal oxidation processes (i.e. Monoamine oxidase)
B. Potentiated by Glucocorticoids
C. Increases blood pressure, thus decreasing HR via baroreflex vagal activation
D. Can be used to restore cardiac contractility in the case of cardiac arrest
E. None are false – All statements are true regarding norepinephrine

88
Q

** Which of the following is FALSE regarding NSAIDs?**

A. Concurrent administration of Famotidine or Misoprostil may help prevent gastric ulcers
B. NSAIDs inhibit cyclooxygenase activity
C. NSAIDs cause an increase in body temperature in febrile animals
D. NSAIDs may cause blood clotting alterations or nephropathy

A

** Which of the following is FALSE regarding NSAIDs?**

A. Concurrent administration of Famotidine or Misoprostil may help prevent gastric ulcers
B. NSAIDs inhibit cyclooxygenase activity
C. NSAIDs cause an increase in body temperature in febrile animals
D. NSAIDs may cause blood clotting alterations or nephropathy

89
Q

Which one of the following drugs can be used to treat ventricular tachyarrhythmias and stimulate intestinal motility?

A. Erythromycin
B. Lidocaine
C. Diltiazem
D. Sotalol

A

Which one of the following drugs can be used to treat ventricular tachyarrhythmias and stimulate intestinal motility?

A. Erythromycin
B. Lidocaine
C. Diltiazem
D. Sotalol

90
Q

Which one of the following drugs does not act at β2-adrenergic receptors?

A. Propanolol
B. Clenbuterol
C. Xylazine
D. Ractopamine

A

Which one of the following drugs does not act at β2-adrenergic receptors?

A. Propanolol
B. Clenbuterol
C. Xylazine
D. Ractopamine

91
Q

A dog comes into your clinic with signs of Chronic Congestive Heart Failure (weakness, myocardial ischemia, tachycardia and atrial fibrillation). You decide to administer beta blockers to relax the heart muscle, slow the heartbeat and decrease blood pressure so blood can flow more easily. Which of the following routes of admission would you NOT recommend?

A. Intravenous (IV)
B. Subcutaneous injection
C. Oral medication
D. All of above methods would work equally as well; route is not very important.

A

A dog comes into your clinic with signs of Chronic Congestive Heart Failure (weakness, myocardial ischemia, tachycardia and atrial fibrillation). You decide to administer beta blockers to relax the heart muscle, slow the heartbeat and decrease blood pressure so blood can flow more easily. Which of the following routes of admission would you NOT recommend?

A. Intravenous (IV)
_B. Subcutaneous injection _
C. Oral medication
D. All of above methods would work equally as well; route is not very important.

92
Q

Which of these drugs would not be used to treat congestive heart failure?

a. Enalapril
b. Pimobendan
c. Albuterol
d. Carvedilol

A

Which of these drugs would not be used to treat congestive heart failure?

a. Enalapril
b. Pimobendan
* *c. Albuterol**
d. Carvedilol

93
Q

Which drug class causes vasoconstriction?

a. NSAIDs
b. Anti-histamines
c. Cholinergic agonists
d. Alpha adrenergic receptor agonists

A

Which drug class causes vasoconstriction?

a. NSAIDs
b. Anti-histamines
c. Cholinergic agonists
* *d. Alpha adrenergic receptor agonists**

94
Q

An accidental morphine overdose was given to a patient. Knowing that morphine is a weak base, what can be done to increase its elimination rate?

A. Acidify urine pH; this will keep more weak bases (morphine) in the lumen, allowing a greater amount to be passed in the urine.
B. Alkalinize the urine pH; “like helps like,” more morphine molecules will be ionized, thus being eliminated more quickly.
C. Nothing can be done; morphine isn’t eliminated by the urine.
D. None of the above

A

An accidental morphine overdose was given to a patient. Knowing that morphine is a weak base, what can be done to increase its elimination rate?

A. Acidify urine pH; this will keep more weak bases (morphine) in the lumen, allowing a greater amount to be passed in the urine.
B. Alkalinize the urine pH; “like helps like,” more morphine molecules will be ionized, thus being eliminated more quickly.
C. Nothing can be done; morphine isn’t eliminated by the urine.
D. None of the above

95
Q

Glucocorticoids cause increased glycogenolysis (hyperglycemia) and lipolysis (increased free fatty acid). Which adrenergic receptor(s) mediates similar effects?

a. Alpha 1
b. Beta 1
c. Alpha 1 and 2
d. Beta 2 and 3

A

Glucocorticoids cause increased glycogenolysis (hyperglycemia) and lipolysis (increased free fatty acid). Which adrenergic receptor(s) mediates similar effects?

a. Alpha 1
b. Beta 1
c. Alpha 1 and 2
* *d. Beta 2 and 3**

96
Q

Zylazine is a drug that acts on alpha 2 adrenergic receptors. It is used to produced sedative, muscle relaxant and analgesic effects. It also acts at a specific spot in the body to provide another function, what is that.

a. Acts on the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain to induce vomiting
b. Acts on smooth muscle to cause contraction
c. Acts on sweat gland to induce secretion
d. Acts on the eye, to reduce intraocular pressure

A

**Zylazine is a drug that acts on alpha 2 adrenergic receptors. It is used to produced sedative, muscle relaxant and analgesic effects. It also acts at a specific spot in the body to provide another function, what is that.

a. Acts on the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain to induce vomiting**

b. Acts on smooth muscle to cause contraction
c. Acts on sweat gland to induce secretion
d. Acts on the eye, to reduce intraocular pressure

97
Q

Which of the following drug pairs have opposite effects on cAMP concentration through binding to different receptors?

A. Pilocarpine – Bethanechol
B. Yohimbine – Xylazine
C. Xylazine – Dobutamine
D. Prazosin – Yohimbine

A

Which of the following drug pairs have opposite effects on cAMP concentration through binding to different receptors?

A. Pilocarpine – Bethanechol
B. Yohimbine – Xylazine
C. Xylazine – Dobutamine
D. Prazosin – Yohimbine

98
Q

Match each drug with an indication for its usage.

  1. Lidocaine
  2. Spironolactone
  3. Tropicamide
  4. Epinephrine

A. A hypokalemic patient needs to increase urine volume
B. A patient experiencing systemic anaphylaxis
C. A patient is experiencing ventricular arrhythmia
D. A patient’s pupils need to be briefly dilated for an eye exam

A

Match each drug with an indication for its usage.

  1. Lidocaine (C)
  2. Spironolactone (A)
  3. Tropicamide (D)
  4. Epinephrine (B)

A. A hypokalemic patient needs to increase urine volume
B. A patient experiencing systemic anaphylaxis
C. A patient is experiencing ventricular arrhythmia
D. A patient’s pupils need to be briefly dilated for an eye exam

99
Q

Which drug classes are used to decrease intraocular pressure?
Check all that apply

o Carbonic Anhydrase (CA) inhibitors (Acetylzolamide)
o Choline esterases (carbachol)
o Muscarinic cholinergic agonists (pilocarpine)
o β– blockers (bextaxolol)

A

Which drug classes are used to decrease intraocular pressure?
Check all that apply

o Carbonic Anhydrase (CA) inhibitors (Acetylzolamide)
o Choline esterases (carbachol)
_o Muscarinic cholinergic agonists (pilocarpine)
o β– blockers (bextaxolol)_

100
Q

H1 agonist drugs do which of the following:

A. Increase free intracellular Ca2+
B. Increase capillary permeability
C. Increase cAMP
D. Both A and B
E. All of the above

A

H1 agonist drugs do which of the following:

A. Increase free intracellular Ca2+
B. Increase capillary permeability
C. Increase cAMP
D. Both A and B
E. All of the above

101
Q
A

Pharmacology (7 decks)

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