strep and staph Flashcards

1
Q

is streptococcus gram positive or negative

A

negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the shape of streptococcus

A

cocci. in pairs or chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

is streptococcus catalase negative or positive

A

negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how is streptococcus classified

A

extent of rbc haemolysis

alpha haemolytic = partial
beta haemolytic = complete
gamme haemolytic = no haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how does alpha haemolytic streptococcus appear on blood agar

A

greenish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how to differentiate streptococcus penumoniae from other alpha haemolytic

A

optochin test. s pneumonia optochin sensitive the rest are optochin resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which streptococcus causes caries

A

s. mutans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what gram negative bacteria can cause infective endocarditis

A

alpha haemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how does beta haemolytic streptococcus appear on blood agar

A

completely clear, translucent agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what group of strep are s pyogenes and s agalactiae from

A

both beta haemolytic. s pyogenes group a, s agalactiae group b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what group is viridans streptococcus in

A

alpha haemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does s pneumoniae cause

A

community acquired pneumonia, meningitis, respiratory tract infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is characteristic of s pneumoniae on agar plate

A

draughtman’s colonies: depressed centre with elevated rim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how to treat s pneumoniae

A

penicillin, vancomycin if penicillin allergic, cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what bacteria causes impetigo

A

group a (s pyogenes) beta haemolytic streptococcus and staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what causes characteristic erythematous rash in scarlet fever

A

erythrogenic toxins eg streptolysin, leukocidin produced by s pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

who does s agalactiae affect

A

infected mother passes to baby during birth, causing neonatal meningitis, pneumonia, septicemia (prophylaxis with penicillin, amoxycillin)

18
Q

what kind of streptococcus is group d beta haemolytic

A

enterococcus

19
Q

is staphylococci gram positive or negative

20
Q

what is the shape of staphylococci

A

cocci, in clusters like grapes

21
Q

is staphylococci aerobic

A

facultative anaerobe

22
Q

what is coagulase test used for

A

differentiate staph aureus from other commensal staphylococci. staph aureus is coagulase positive

23
Q

is s aureus sporing

24
Q

how does s aureus infect cells

A

extracellular proteins eg enzymes, toxins

25
what does s aureus enterotoxin result in
vomiting and diarrhea, rapid onset (no need for antibiotics)
26
which bacteria causes toxic shock syndrome
s aureus, produce toxin TST
27
what bacteria has super antigen that stimulates enhanced t cell response
s aureus
28
what do s aureus epidermolytic toxins causes
scalded skin syndrome
29
what does localised s aureus infection cause
sappurative necrosis
30
how to treat s aureus
do not use penicillin and amoxicillin. treat with cloxacillin. MRSA resistant to Cloxacillin, treated with Vancomycin if patient has penicillin allergy, give macrolides instead eg erythromycin, clarithromycin
31
patient prescribed clindamycin for s aureus. experiences diarrhea. what happened
clostridium difficile associated diarrhea as good flora in gut cleared allowing cd to proliferate
32
is coagulase negative staphylococci pathogenic
normal commensal bacteria, low pathogenicity. but may be able to cause low grade infections in immunocompromised
33
example of coagulase negative staphylococci
s epidermis, s saprophyticus
34
infection with honey crusted lesion caused by
s aureus, which can have golden appearance on agar plate. infection is impetigo
35
what can cause intertrigo
sticky redness where skin rub together. most commonly caused by candida, can be caused by strep/staph
36
tender track seen along forearm. cause?
lymphangitis. beta hemolytic strep or staph aureus invaded lymphatic vessel
37
bilateral tender erythematous sections on face ie erysipelas caused by
group a strep
38
what causes gas gangrene
mainly clostridium perfringens, but also staph and strep
39
what bacteria class causes necrotising fasciitis
streptococci (strep mitis, beta haemolytic group a strep)
40
what causes prosthetic joint infection
coagulase negative staph
41
what causes septic arthritis
staph aureus
42
what causes osteomyelitis
staph aureus typically. in <1y/o, may be due to coagulase negative staph ie skin commensals