STDs Flashcards

1
Q

When exposed to STIs, women are more likely to become ___ and less likely to be ____

A

When exposed to STIs, women are more likely to become infected and less likely to be symptomatic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

__ is the most common sexually transmitted disease in the United States

A

Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted disease in the United States

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

HSV-2 accounts for ___ of the genital herpes infections. HSV-1 accounts for ___ and is the common cause of ___; silent infection is common in this disease. The diagnosis is made by viral culture and subtyping. HSV enters the nerve and remains latent/active in the nerve cell body. It may cause ___ and ___, which may lead to urinary retention

A

HSV-2 accounts for 90% of the genital herpes infections. HSV-1 accounts for the remainder and is the common cause of cold sores; silent infection is common in this disease. The diagnosis is made by viral culture and subtyping. HSV enters the nerve and remains latent in the nerve cell body. It may cause aseptic meningitis and autonomic dysfunction, which may lead to urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chancroid is caused by ____ and results in a ___,___ covered by an exudate. ____ occurs and may become suppurative.

A

Chancroid is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi and results in a painful, nonindurated ulcer covered by an exudate. Inguinal adenopathy occurs and may become suppurative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

____ of syphilis is single, painless, indurated, and clean. It is associated with nontender/tender inguinal lymphadenopathy.

A

. Chancre of syphilis is single, painless, indurated, and clean. It is associated with nontender inguinal lymphadenopathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Latent syphilis is ___ with no evidence of disease. Early latent syphilis occurs in __. Late latent syphilis occurs___

A

Latent syphilis is seropositive with no evidence of disease. Early latent syphilis occurs in less than 1 year. Late latent syphilis occurs beyond 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Primary syphilis is the ___.

Secondary syphilis is manifested by __ and constitutional signs and symptoms that are often associated with a ___.

Tertiary syphilis is a ___ involving the (3)

A

Primary syphilis is the acute infection.

Secondary syphilis is manifested by mucocutaneous and constitutional signs and symptoms that are often associated with a maculopapular rash.

Tertiary syphilis is a systemic disease involving the cardiovascular, skeletal, and central nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

t/F

  1. Treponemal tests for syphilis are generally positive for life and do not indicate treatment response.
  2. RPR, Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL), and the toluidine red unheated serum test (TRUST) are nontreponemal tests and correlate with disease activity. They are still positive after treatment.
  3. Nontreponemal tests (RPR or VDRL) are used to monitor disease activity.
A

TRUE: Treponemal tests for syphilis are generally positive for life and do not indicate treatment response.

FALSE: RPR, Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL), and the toluidine red unheated serum test (TRUST) are nontreponemal tests and correlate with disease activity. They usually become negative after treatment.

tRUE: Nontreponemal tests (RPR or VDRL) are used to monitor disease activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The ___ reaction occurs when patients with syphilis are treated with penicillin, resulting in the release of toxic products when the treponemes are killed. The symptoms include: (5)

A

The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction occurs when patients with syphilis are treated with penicillin, resulting in the release of toxic products when the treponemes are killed. The symptoms include headache, myalgia, fever, tachycardia, and increased respiratory rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

LGV presents as a ___ and ___. LGV is marked by tender inguinal and/or femoral lymphadenopathy, typically ___

A

LGV presents as a single painless ulcer and painful inguinal adenopathy. LGV is marked by tender inguinal and/or femoral lymphadenopathy, typically unilateral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

___ are used for diagnosing chlamydial infection

A

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assays are used for diagnosing chlamydial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A strawberry rash on the vulva or strawberry cervix is seen in ____

A

A strawberry rash on the vulva or strawberry cervix is seen in trichomoniasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

More than 99% of cervical cancers and 84% of anal cancers are associated with ___ and ___. The most common serotype associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis is ____

A

More than 99% of cervical cancers and 84% of anal cancers are associated with HPV 16 or 18. The most common serotype associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis is HPV 16.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Biopsies of genital warts are routinely/not routinely indicated

A

Biopsies of genital warts are not routinely indicated but should be performed when the wart is atypical, pigmented, indurated, or fixed and ulcerated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HPV vaccine is recommended for females age ___ years and may also be given to males of the same age range.

A

HPV vaccine is recommended for females age__ years and may also be given to males of the same age range.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F Antiviral therapy for HIV does not necessarily make the patient infectious.

A

FALSE : Antiviral therapy for HIV does not necessarily make the patient noninfectious.

17
Q

True/false Men who are circumcised are at lower risk for HIV infection.

A

TRUE: Men who are circumcised are at lower risk for HIV infection.

18
Q

There are two types of HIV viruses: HIV-1 and HIV-2.

There are very few cases of ___ in the developed world, and it is less easily transmitted and less virulent than ___

A

There are two types of HIV viruses: HIV-1 and HIV-2. There are very few cases of HIV-2 in the developed world, and it is less easily transmitted and less virulent than HIV-1.

19
Q

HIV is a retrovirus that infects: (2)

A

HIV is a retrovirus that infects T cells and dendritic cells.

20
Q

Overt AIDS is marked by a__

A

Overt AIDS is marked by a low CD4+ T-cell count.

21
Q

TF: Plasma HIV RNA load is the most accurate predictor of disease progression.

A

true Plasma HIV RNA load is the most accurate predictor of disease progression.

22
Q

The diagnosis of HIV is made by screening for __ and __ If this is positive, confirmation is made by using __. After treatment, the ___ of plasma HIV RNA predicts long-term outcome.

A

The diagnosis of HIV is made by screening for anti-HIV-1 and antiHIV-2 antibodies. If this is positive, confirmation is made by using Western blot analysis. After treatment, the nadir of plasma HIV RNA predicts long-term outcome.

23
Q

T/F HIV testing is recommended for anyone diagnosed with a STI or at risk for STIs.

A

HIV testing is recommended for anyone diagnosed with a STI or at risk for STIs.

24
Q

The most common intrascrotal pathologic process in AIDS patients is ___.

A

The most common intrascrotal pathologic process in AIDS patients is testicular atrophy.

25
Q

T/F Voiding dysfunction is common in patients with advanced HIV infection.

A

true Voiding dysfunction is common in patients with advanced HIV infection.

26
Q

. Urinary calculi have been associated with, most notably, protease inhibitors such as ___ These stones are soluble at an ___

A

. Urinary calculi have been associated with, most notably, protease inhibitors such as indinavir. These stones are soluble at an acidic pH

27
Q

HIV-associated nephropathy is a glomerular disease that often presents as ___

A

HIV-associated nephropathy is a glomerular disease that often presents as proteinuria.

28
Q

___ is essential for all forms of Kaposi sarcoma.

A

Human herpesvirus 8 is essential for all forms of Kaposi sarcoma.

29
Q

HIV protease inhibitors are also potent antiangiogenic molecules and are useful in treating ___. However, localized lesions may be treated by irradiation, laser, cryotherapy, or intralesional injections of antineoplastic drugs. Corticosteroids should/should not be used to treat the lesions.

A

HIV protease inhibitors are also potent antiangiogenic molecules and are useful in treating Kaposi sarcoma. However, localized lesions may be treated by irradiation, laser, cryotherapy, or intralesional injections of antineoplastic drugs. Corticosteroids should not be used to treat the lesions.

30
Q

Patients with HIV are at particular increased risk for Kaposi sarcoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Kaposi sarcoma presents as a ___ , reflecting the presence of __ ___ ___ and ___

A

Patients with HIV are at particular increased risk for Kaposi sarcoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Kaposi sarcoma presents as a raised, firm, indurated purplish plaque, reflecting the presence of abundant blood vessels, extravasated erythrocytes, and siderophages.

31
Q

Current treatment of uncomplicated gonococcal infections of the cervix, urethra, and rectum

A

Current treatment of uncomplicated gonococcal infections of the cervix, urethra, and rectum are ceftriaxone 250 mg IM single-dose PLUS azithromycin, 1 g orally in single dose or doxycycline, 100 mg orally twice per day for 7 days.

32
Q

___ noted in granuloma inguinale are intracellular inclusions of the bacteria within the cytoplasm of macrophages and appear deep purple when stained with a (3)

A

Donovan bodies noted in granuloma inguinale are intracellular inclusions of the bacteria within the cytoplasm of macrophages and appear deep purple when stained with a Wright, Giemsa, or Leishman stain

33
Q

Characteristic findings for bacterial vaginosis on microscopic exam are __ which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria.

A

Characteristic findings for bacterial vaginosis on microscopic exam are clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria.

34
Q

PDE5 inhibitors depend on___ for clearance, and all protease inhibitors and NNRTIs are inhibitors of CYP3A to some extent. This can lead to a significant increase in the serum dose of PDE5 inhibitors, and therefore they should be started at the lowest possible dose in patients on these antiretroviral medications.

A

PDE5 inhibitors depend on CYP3A for clearance, and all protease inhibitors and NNRTIs are inhibitors of CYP3A to some extent. This can lead to a significant increase in the serum dose of PDE5 inhibitors, and therefore they should be started at the lowest possible dose in patients on these antiretroviral medications.

35
Q

The major health risk to untreated Chlamydia infection in men is: a. epididymitis. b. Reiter syndrome. c. orchitis. d. chronic prostatitis/chronic pelvic pain syndrome. e. transmission to a female partner resulting in pelvic inflammatory disease

A

e. Transmission to a female partner resulting in pelvic inflammatory disease. Up to 75% of women with chlamydial infection can be asymptomatic. Ascending chlamydial infection can result in scarring of the fallopian tubes, pelvic inflammatory disease, risk for ectopic pregnancy, pelvic pain, and infertility. The risk of untreated chlamydial infection producing pelvic inflammatory disease is estimated to be between 9.5% and 27% of cases.

36
Q

In addition to treatment for chlamydia, what other medication is recommended as a first-line treatment for gonorrhea?

a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Levofloxacin
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Cefixime
e. Penicillin VK

A

c. Ceftriaxone. As of 2007, quinolones are no longer recommended in the United States for treatment of gonorrhea and associated conditions such as pelvic inflammatory disease. As of August 2012, because of high resistance, cefixime is no longer recommended as first-line therapy to treat gonorrhea. Current treatment of uncomplicated gonococcal infections of the cervix, urethra, and rectum is ceftriaxone, 250 mg IM, single-dose PLUS azithromycin, 1 g orally in single dose.

37
Q

___ is the treatment of choice for all of the stages of syphilis. Treatment varies by dose and duration of therapy.

A

Benzathine penicillin is the treatment of choice for all of the stages of syphilis. Treatment varies by dose and duration of therapy. Not considered appropriate treatments are combinations of benzathine and procaine penicillin (Bicillin C-R), or oral penicillin.

38
Q

Polymorphisms of which gene are associated with development of HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) in African American patients? a. Tyrosine kinase b. Antichymotrypsin-1 c. Apolipoprotein-1 d. Tumor necrosis alpha e. Interleukin-10

A

c. Apolipoprotein-1. African Americans carrying two variants of the APOL-1 gene are at very high risk for HIVAN. These genes encode a secreted lipid binding protein called apolipoprotein-1 (apoL1). The variants G1 and G2 are common in African chromosomes but absent in European chromosomes; these variants lyse trypanosomes, including Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense, which causes African sleeping sickness. Thus, these loci are thought to be selected out in this population. The presence of these two genes together increases the risk 29-fold, resulting in a 50% risk of developing HIVAN in untreated individuals as compared with a 12% baseline risk. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

39
Q

What type of genitourinary (GU) cancer is not increased in frequency in patients with HIV? a. Prostate cancer b. Kidney cancer c. Penile cancer d. Testis cancer e. Kaposi sarcoma

A
  1. What type of genitourinary (GU) cancer is not increased in frequency in patients with HIV? a. Prostate cancer b. Kidney cancer c. Penile cancer d. Testis cancer e. Kaposi sarcoma