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JetBlue > SPV Q BANK > Flashcards

SPV Q BANK Flashcards

1
Q

Max gear extended speed

A

265kt

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2
Q

Max flap speeds

A 
Flaps 1, 230
Flaps 2, 215
Flaps 3, 200
Flaps 4 & 5, 180
Flaps full, 165kt
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3
Q

Engine starter cycle duty

Ground vs flight

A

90 sec ground/10 sec off

120 sec flight/10 sec off

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4
Q

ATTCS limitation

A

Must be on for takeoff

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5
Q

Engine warm up and cool down period

A

2 mins

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6
Q

Min alt for autopilot on a “standard” precision/precision like apch?

A

50ft below DH/DA/DDA

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7
Q

Min alt for autopilot use on visual apch with no IAP

A

500ft

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8
Q

Min autopilot engagement alt for takeoff?

A

Accel alt and out of TO mode

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9
Q

Min autopilot engagement for go around

A

400ft AGL

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10
Q

Brake temp limitation

A

Can’t take off with it in amber

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11
Q

When must we select anti Ice on ground?

A

OAT 10c or less and icing conditions exist

Also 1,700ft ceiling for takeoff

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12
Q

Memory items:

Cockpit/cabin smoke or fumes

A

O2 masks on
EMER
then 100%
Crew communications establish

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13
Q

Jammed control column-pitch

A

Elevator disconnect handle pull
Working pitch control identify
Assign PF

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14
Q

Trim runaway

A

AP/TRIM disconnect button press and hold

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15
Q

Cabin alt HI

A

O2 masks on, 100%

Crew communications establish

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16
Q

Jammed control wheel- roll

A

Aileron disconnect handle pull
Working roll control identify
Assign PF

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17
Q

Nose wheel steering runaway

A

STEER DISC SW…press

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18
Q

When doing the DVDR test, how long must the button be held down for a successful test?

A

> 3sec with no EICAS fail message

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19
Q

What conditions have to be met for the CVR data to be erased?

A

On the ground parking brake set

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20
Q

What would indicate a failure of the DVDR test?

A

CVR AFT (FWD) FAIL on eicas

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21
Q

What happens when you rotate the OVHD PNL knob to off?

A

All the lights are bright

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22
Q

What is the function of the MAIN PNL light knob?

A

Sets brightness level of the guidance panel and instrument panel background lighting

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23
Q

What lights or systems ARE NOT checked when the ANNUNCIATORS TEST button is pressed?

A 
Warning lights
Caution lights
Parking brake 
GPU pushbutton
Fire test lights
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24
Q

What is the purpose of the ANNUNCIATORS TEST button?

A

To verify lamp integrity of all striped bars and caption indications in all main and overhead panels and control pedestal pushbuttons

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25
Q

Will the dome light work with the battery switches off?

A

No

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26
Q

With EMER LT switch in OFF can the emergency lights be turned on from the FWD or AFT ATTENDANT panel?

A

Yes.

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27
Q

What would cause the emergency lights to come on automatically?

A

Loss of DC Bus 1 or loss of electrical power

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28
Q

When do the no smoking or FSTN BELTS signs come on automatically?

A

Whenever the masks are commanded to deploy

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29
Q

What is the LG WRN INHIB button used for?

A

Silenced gear warnings when you have a dual radio altimeter failure

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30
Q

What conditions have to be met to drain the potable water?

A

Aircraft is airborne
Landing gear up
Drain masts heated

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31
Q

How can you confirm that the water tank is completely empty?

A

Complete drainage can be confirmed at the flight attendant panel

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32
Q

What units are manipulated with the CCD?

A

The MFD, PFD, and EICAS

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33
Q

Cockpit door panel shows white dash, black, white ON. Locked or no?

A

No

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34
Q

What does it mean when the door panel ON Light is flashing?

A

Either door is commanded locked but it isn’t or..

Someone is requesting entry

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35
Q

What happens if someone requests access to the cockpit door and you DONT press INHIB?

A

30 sec then the door unlocks

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36
Q

What does the guarded CABIN IFE button control?

A

Controls power supply to the IFE rack

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37
Q

What does the guarded IFE RACK button control?

A

Controls power to the live TV system, XM satellite radio system and wireless aircraft data link
Also controls PA buffer, rack fan and flow switch

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38
Q

What systems are NOT turned off by pressing the IFE RACK button?

A

Power to the smoke detector and ventilation systems

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39
Q

What does the IFE CONNECTIVITY panel control?

A

The live TV Ka-Band connectivity system which is the inflight broadband and internet capability

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40
Q

What is the status of the IFE CONNECTIVITY panel?
POWER- white stripe
ANTENNA- black

A

The system is off

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41
Q

If the radar was off and you select STBY, what happens?

A

Radar can warm up

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42
Q

What does FSBY OVRD on the radar panel mean?

A

Radar forced into standby mode regardless of logic

If you both select it then radar will turn on even on the ground

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43
Q

What does GMAP mode do? (Radar)

A

Uses radar to map terrain

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44
Q

What is SECT mode? (Radar)

A

Sweep reduced from 120 to 60 deg

Rate increased from 12 to 24 sweeps per min

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45
Q

Radar: What does TGT do?

A

System alerts pilots of potentially hazardous targets directly in front of them but out of view

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46
Q

Radar: what does RCT do?

A

Highlights radar shadows in cyan

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47
Q

Radar: what does ACT do?

A

System automatically adjusts tilt in relation to current alt and selected range.

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48
Q

Radar: what does TURB do?

A

Shows areas of moderate to extreme turbulence displayed in soft white
Except CAT

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49
Q

Pressurization: when would you need to use LFE CTRL?

A

Both FMSs inop OR

Landing at airport not in FMS database

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50
Q

Will the system pressurize automatically in LFE CTRL mode?

A

Yes

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51
Q

Pressurization: what does the LFE CTRL knob do?

A

Manual input of field elevation

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52
Q

Pressurization: in flight what does DUMP button do?

A

AUTO: packs & recirc fans off, outflow valve modulates to allow for rise in cabin pressure to 12,400’ at 2,000fpm and natural leak will bring it higher
MAN: packs and recirc fans turn off

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53
Q

Pressurization: in level flight at 11,000ft how high will the Cain raise if you press the dump button?

A

To 11,000ft

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54
Q

Pressurization: how high would cabin raise with dump button selected if at FL350

A

FL 350

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55
Q

On ground, SET. What is the bleed prioritization for starting #2 eng?

A

APU bleed

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56
Q

On ground with APU and both engines operating, which pneumatic source supplies bleed air to the packs?

A

Engines

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57
Q

When in flight what is the bleed source priority?

A

On side, cross side, APU

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58
Q

In flight where does air come from for pack 1?

A

Engine 1 bleed

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59
Q

In flight where does air come from for pack 1 if engine 1 isn’t available?

A

Engine 2 bleed

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60
Q

In flight what happens if you turn off bleed 1? Would pack 1 turn off?

A

Closes bleed valve, crossfeed opens and bleed 2 feeds pack 1

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61
Q

If we are in icing conditions with bleed 1 inop, what happens?

A

Pack 1will turn off to ensure adequate airflow to deice system

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62
Q

What does an amber bar across the top of BLEED 1 Pb indicate?

A

Bleed leak

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63
Q

What happens when you press the RECIRC button on the pneumatic panel?

A

Recirc fans turn off

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64
Q

When are packs 1&2 Automatically turned off?

A

DUMP button
Thrust levers MAX
During TO with REF ECS OFF And APU off

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65
Q

If you select REF ECS OFF and turn off the APU, will the pack valves open on takeoff?

A

No. Unpressurized takeoff will take place

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66
Q

REF ECS OFF and APU on for takeoff, will packs valves open for takeoff?

A

Yes

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67
Q

During takeoff you encounter windshear. After selecting MAX POWER what happens to the packs?

A

They turn off

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68
Q

When MAX POWER is selected, what happens to the packs and recirc fans?

A

Commanded off

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69
Q

What would be an indication of an APU bleed leak?

A

Amber bar illuminated on APU BLEED pb

Also associated EICAS message

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70
Q

How can you give cabin temp control to the FA?

A

Rotate PAX CABIN knob to the detent: ATTND

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71
Q

What conditions command the recirc fans to turn off automatically?

A

DUMP PB
Smoke detected in recirculation bay
When associated pack is turned off

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72
Q

What 2 conditions command the yaw damper on automatically?

A

1) YD defaults to ON at system startup

2) it is automatically turned on when AP is engaged

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73
Q

What is the function of the AT button in flight?

A

Engages and disengages AT

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74
Q

How do you cancel the AT warning?

A

Push the AT disc button again

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75
Q

Can the AP disconnect aural warning be silenced by pressing the AP button on the panel?

A

No

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76
Q

How do you select FD off?

A

Press FD Button

This forces system into speed T

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77
Q

What does the green arrow mean on the AFCS panel?

A

Indicates source side

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78
Q

What are the default vertical and lateral modes?

A

ROLL and FPA

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79
Q

With AT engaged what speed mode would be expected when in VS?

A

Speed T

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80
Q

Is bank limiting function available in all lateral modes?

A

No only HDG

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81
Q

Can WX Radar be displayed on the PFD map when green needles are selected?

A

No must be magenta needles

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82
Q

MINIMUMS knob: RA allows for audio callouts based on RADAR altimeter. What approaches are affected using the RA selection?

A

CAT 1, II, III

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83
Q

What happens when you rotate the minimums knob to 0?

A

Turns the minimums display OFF and audio callouts are inhibited

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84
Q

What AT mode is shown:

white TO

A

TO mode is armed

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85
Q

What does TO shown in green mean?

A

TO is active AT mode

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86
Q

What vertical guidance does TO mode provide?

A

FD guidance V2 - V2+10 after liftoff

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87
Q

During takeoff what does HOLD mean?

A

HOLD is active AT mode and Serbia are de energized till 400’

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88
Q

What airspeed do you see TRACK on takeoff?

A

100kts

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89
Q

What is TRACK mode?

A

Heading is kept at what heading you had at moment of engagement

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90
Q

Besides takeoff when do you see TRACK mode?

A

On a go around after pressing TOGA

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91
Q

What does GA mode provide?

A

8 degrees then
Vref + 20
1 eng: Vac

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92
Q

What is the threat of changing the altitude when plane is in ASEL

A

Could go to FPA and continue climb or descent

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93
Q

In green FLCH will FMS altitude constraints be honored?

A

No

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94
Q

In magenta FLCH will FMS altitude constraints be honored?

A

Yes

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95
Q

When in magenta FLCH what displays on the HUD?

A

VFLCH

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96
Q

What is vnav PTH?

A

Aircraft intercepts and tracks an FMS generated vertical path to meet vertical constraints in FMS flight plan.

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97
Q

Can you use PTH in HDG

A

No

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98
Q

When you select HEG what is the default vertical mode

A

FPA

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99
Q

Is PTH a vertical mode or descent mode or both?

A

Descent

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100
Q

On an ILS once cleared and selecting APP button, what do you expect to see in the FMA?

A

APPR 1/LOC/GS in white

101
Q

On an ILS once cleared and intercepted, what do you expect to see in the FMA?

A

APPR 1/LOC GS in green

102
Q

When cleared for an RNAV apch you selected APP button and what should you see on FMA:

A

GP in white

103
Q

When on RNAV apch what do you see in HUD with this GP captured?

A

VGP

104
Q

What does HUD a3 mean?

A

HUD is armed for CAT II & III

105
Q

When HUD A3 is active what do you expect to see in standby fields?

A

RLOUT and FLARE

106
Q

What are the two VNAV descent modes?

A

FLCH

PTH

107
Q

What does TO represent in the vertical mode column?

A

Airspeed will be V2+10 or V2 - V2+10 SE

108
Q

What is green FLCH

A

Airplane will use pitch to achieve desired airspeed

109
Q

What is speed on elevator mode?

A

Airplane uses a fixed thrust setting

110
Q

What is speed on thrust mode?

A

ATs Use thrust to achieve desired speed

111
Q

What is GP based on?

A

Coded FMS descent angle

112
Q

What does LIM mean?

A

You requested a speed that can’t be achieved because already at idle

113
Q

What is the symbol in the hud with a line extending down or up above the wing perpendicular to it?

A

Speed error tape
Tape above wing: speed greater than selected
Tape below wing: speed slower than selected

114
Q

What is the crowbar symbol?

A

AOA limit aka stick shaker will happen here

115
Q

What does Amber course needle mean?

A

You selected a cross side navigation source

116
Q

What is a green needle?

A

VOR or localizer is selected

117
Q

What is the green chevron that goes up and down to the left of the green wing?

A

It indicates you are accelerating

118
Q

What is the line that looks like it has eyebrows?

A

That’s the PLI. AOA is approaching stick shaker

119
Q

What happens when PLI reaches aircraft reference symbol?

A

Stick shaker

120
Q

You taxi in and park. 2 engines running. You select GPU. What is AC BUS 2s source of power?

A

IDG 2

121
Q

You taxi in and park. 2 engines running. You select GPU. You shut down engine 2. What is AC BUS 2s source of power?

A

GPU via AC BUS TIE

122
Q

In cruise you receive IDG 1 OFF BUS caution message. Where is AC BUS 1 receiving power now?

A

AC BUS TIE….IDG 2

123
Q

IDG 1 failed. You start the APU. Where is AC BUS 1 getting its power?

A

APU

124
Q

You see a IDG 1 OIL message. What indication do you expect to see on the panel?

A

Amber DISC illumination of IDG 1

125
Q

Following a QRH procedure you disconnect the IDG. Can you reconnect it later?

A

No

126
Q

What does white AVAIL mean?

A

When AC GPU is connected but NOT powering the AC BUS TIE

127
Q

If the QRH instructs you to deselect the APU GEN switch, what would this action do?

A

Opens APU generator contractor isolating it from the AC BUS TIE

128
Q

During OET to the gate with #2 engine off and APU off, what is AC BUS 1s power source?

A

IDG 1

129
Q

During OET to the gate with #2 engine off and APU off, what is AC BUS 2s power source?

A

IDG 1 Via the AC BUS TIE

130
Q

In flight what powers AC BUS 1

A

IDG 1

131
Q

If AC bus 1 isn’t available what powers AC BUS 1?

A

IDG 2 via the AC BUS TIE

132
Q

What does IN USE mean?

A

The GPU is powering the AC BUS TIE

133
Q

During cruise you are instructed by QRH to take the AC BUS TIE selector sw to 1 OPEN. What did that do?

A

Isolated AC BUS 1 from the AC BUS TIE (opens BTC 1)

134
Q

What is the priority of the AC BUS TIE?

A

APU, GPU, IDG

135
Q

If AC BUS TIE SW is in 1 OPEN and IDG 1 is working normally, will we lose anything?

A

Nope. Unless IDG 1 is unavailable

136
Q

What happens if the TRU switch is moved to OFF?

A

Isolated respective TRU from its DC bus

137
Q

If you select TRU 1 OFF would DCBUS 1 still get power?

A

Yes via the DC tie Contactor

138
Q

What happens when you switch the DC BUS TIE to OFF?

A

Opens all DC bus tie contactors and limits systems capability to tie DC busses automatically

139
Q

What busses are powered no matter what?

A

Hot battery busses 1 & 2

140
Q

Why is there an auto for BATT 2

A

AUTO allows BATT 2 to supply power to either the DC essential 2 bus or APU start bus

141
Q

How does thenAITO portion of IDG 1 OR IDG 2 rotary knob work?

A

It allows the IDG contactor to close, connecting the IDG to the respecting AC BUS automatically according to system logic

142
Q

What is the OFF function of the IDG?

A

OFF opens the

Contactor isolating the IDG from the respective AC bus

143
Q

Describe the operation of the ESSENTIAL TRU when in AUTO

A

Allows automatic connection of the TRU ESS to the ESS BUS 3

144
Q

What is the difference between OFF and AUTO on the batt 2 selector?

A

OFF only HBB 2 is connected

AUTO connects BATT 2 to either DC ESS BUS 2 or APU START BUS

145
Q

What happens when you pull the fire EXT handle?

A

Closes bleed valve
Hydraulic shutoff valve
Fuel SOV

Slowly generator comes offline

146
Q

Will AC power be removed immediately if APU is switched OFF?

A

Yes, if another source is available

147
Q

If no other power, turning OFF the APU will cause electrical power and pneumatics to…

A

Power 1 min

Air shuts off immediately

148
Q

What happens if you switch APU off then back on inside it’s 1 min cool down?

A

Electrics will come back online

149
Q

Can the AC be left unattended with APU running?

A

No

150
Q

Why can’t we leave the APU unattended?

A

The APU fire bottle doesn’t discharge automatically

151
Q

Can you do a preflight walkaround with APU running?

A

Yes, you’re in the aircraft footprint

152
Q

What happens when you press red guarded APU EMER STOP pb?

A

APU FUEL SOV closes
APU stops with no cooldown
White stripe in bottom of PB

153
Q

With no fire what happens if you press APU Fire EXT Pb?

A

SOV closes and agent will discharge

154
Q

Can the APU FADEC command automatic shutdown?

A

Yes within 10 seconds if daily detected

155
Q

When would FIRE EXTINGUISHER APU light illuminate red?

A

When EMER STOP PB has been pressed and an APU Fire is detected

OR

60 sec after an APU Fire is detected and no pilot action has occurred

156
Q

Cargo smoke detected in flight. What happens if I press FWD CARGO SMOKE PB?

A

One press discharges the high rate bottle followed by low rate 60 sec later

157
Q

Cargo smoke NOT detected in flight. What happens if I press the CARGO SMOKE PB?

A

One push arms the high rate bottle.

Second push discharges the high rate bottle, 60 sec, then low rate bottle

158
Q

What happens to the rudder system when in DIRECT mode?

A

Lose high level functions:

Airspeed gain scheduling
Yaw damp…

159
Q

What happens when the Spoilers are in DIRECT MODE?

A

Lose high level functions

Speed brakes
Ground spoilers

160
Q

When will speed brakes automatically retract?

A

Less than 180kt
Flaps 2 selected
PLs advanced on GA

161
Q

Can speedbrakes be deployed on the ground?

A

No

162
Q

What flap position is gated?

A

4

163
Q

Under normal conditions what flaps are available for landing?

A

5 and FULL

164
Q

Under normal conditions what flap settings are available for TO?

A

1, 2, 3, 4

165
Q

What indications do you get if flaps are 5 and gear is up?

A

“LANDING GEAR LANDING GEAR”

166
Q

How do you cancel the “LANDING GEAR” alert?

A

Put down the gear

167
Q

What happens when you press the SYS 1 or SYS 2 TRIM CUTOUT PBs?

A

Disables channels 1 or 2

168
Q

What happens if you hold half the trim switch for over 5 sec

A

It locks out that switch

169
Q

What is the pitch trim priority?

A

Backup trim
Captains
FOs
Autopilot

170
Q

Why is trim actuation limited to 3 sec?

A

To prevent runaway trim situations all trim actuation is limited to 3 sec

171
Q

What happens when you pull the ELEVATOR DISCONNECT handle?

A

Disconnects the elevator system
Each pilot has their inside elevator
PITCH DISCONNECT EICAS message

172
Q

What happens to the artificial feel when you disconnect the ailerons?

A

Capt has artificial feel, FO doesn’t

173
Q

Can you reset the aileron or elevator disconnect handles in flight?

A

No

174
Q

How many positions are there for the control wheel communications switch?

A

3
PTT
HOT
OFF

175
Q

What does the HOT position of the control wheel communications switch do?

A

Hot intercom communication

176
Q

What is the function of the PTT on the control communications switch?

A

Push to transmit switch

177
Q

What is the primary purpose of the AP/TRIM disconnect button?

A
  1. To disengage the autopilot
  2. To silence the “autopilot autopilot” sound
  3. Disables all trim channels as long as button is held depressed
178
Q

How can you disable the trim channels?

A

Press and hold the red AP/TRIM DISC switch

179
Q

Will the autopilot disconnect if you press the pitch trim switch?

A

Yes

180
Q

Where is The chronograph displayed?

A

Upper right hand corner of the compass rose on the PFD

181
Q

Under normal condition is ADS 3 an AUTO function or a MANUAL function?

A

ADS 3 is a AUTO function

182
Q

When you see a white stripe on the REVERSIONARY PANEL on the IRS button, what does that mean?

A

The IRS has reverted?

183
Q

In the event of a failure would the IRS revert automatically if the IRS button has a white line in it?

A

No it would be performed manually

184
Q

How many ADSs do we have?

A

3

185
Q

How many IRSs do we have?

A

2

186
Q

On the reversionary panel, What would happen if you were to turn the display knob to PFD?

A

It would force the MFD to be a PFD

187
Q

On the reversionary panel what would happen if you turn the display knob to EICAS?

A

It would force the associated MFD to be an EICAS

188
Q

On the reversionary panel, What is the function of AUTO?

A

AUTO will let automatic reversion of the MFD in case of a display malfunction

189
Q

On the standby attitude indicator (the little one) is the CAGE function available during initialization mode?

A

No

Wings level stabilized flight only

190
Q

What approaches are on the standby attitude indicator (IESS)?

A

Cat 1 ILS

191
Q

What would be an indication on the standby attitude indicator IESS of a GS failure during an ILS?

A

Red X where GS should be

192
Q

What does the ADS probe button do when pushed in?

A

ADS probe heat

Heats the probes prior to engine start

193
Q

Prior to seating the FLT ATT for take off how can I check to make sure I’m not stepping on their PA briefing?

A

Press PA button and listen

194
Q

The MIC/MASK Switch is normally left in the auto position, what does auto allow?

A

Turns on mask mic automatically when the oxygen mask is removed from its cabinet or tested

195
Q

Can you make a PA with MIC selected OFF?

A

Yes, the PA button

196
Q

When would the BKUP VOL switch (PUSH OUT) be used?

A

In the event of dual audio busses fail or ACP failure

197
Q

What is the function of the ID button?

A

Activated a filter that eliminates voice VOR and ADF audio so the identification can be heard

198
Q

What is the significance of the green chevron near and slightly above the wing of the aircraft reference symbol?

A

It indicates that you are accelerating

199
Q

What is the significance of the PLI?

A

Indicates that the AOA is approaching stick shaker

200
Q

What will happen when the PLI meets the aircraft reference symbol?

A

Stick shaker

201
Q

Unpowered aircraft with no GPU. Which electric fuel pumps are available for APU start?

A

DC PUMP

202
Q

In flight with #1 ejector pump failure, will fuel pressure be lost on the left side?

A

Nope. AC pump 1 will come on

203
Q

What situations command AC pump one to turn on automatically?

A

Ejector pump failure
Engine start
X feed
(AC pump 2 comes on for APU starts)

204
Q

With GPU powering the plane which pump will be used for APU start?

A

AC pump 2

205
Q

What happens to the AC pumps when cross-feed LOW 2 is selected?

A

AC pump 1 ON

X FEED valve OPEN

206
Q

With no GPU booked up, what pump provides fuel for APU start?

A

DC pump

207
Q

In AUTO what will cause the PTU to operate?

A

Low pressure in system 2:

Eng 2 failure or EDP failure

208
Q

What is the PTUs primary purpose?

A

Provides normal gear retraction/ ext if there’s failures

209
Q

In flight when does hydraulic ELEC PUMP 2 automatically run?

A

During landing:
Flaps >0
If low pressure is detected

210
Q

On the ground when does hydraulic ELEC pump 2 automatically run?

A

1 eng started and parking brake released

On takeoff flaps >0 and thrust levers advanced OR

GS >50

211
Q

During taxi, will the failure of hyd ELEC PUMP 3A command ELEC PUMP 3B to come on automatically?

A

No. In flight only when low pressure is detected

212
Q

How could you manually isolate an EDP from the hydraulic system?

A

Push SYS 1/2 PUMP SHUTOFF button

Pulling associated T Handle

213
Q

When would SYS 1/2 ELEC PUMP operate automatically in flight?

A

EDP failure or flaps not at 0

214
Q

Will the windshield wipers operate on a dry windshield?

A

No

215
Q

Windshield wipers: What is the function of the TIMER position?

A

Intermittent operation

216
Q

If both windshield wipers are selected to LOW or HI, which side do they sync to?

A

Captain side

217
Q

During initial power up would you expect the windshield heat system to be active?

A

Yes, for approximately 2 mind during PBIT test

218
Q

After PBIT test do windshield heaters stay active?

A

No. They need 2 sources of AC power not counting the GPU

219
Q

In flight with only 1 source AC power what happens to the FO side windshield heat?

A

It will shed.

Unless captains is broken then it won’t.

220
Q

After landing in icing conditions will anti ice be provided to the engines for your taxi to the gate?

A

No

221
Q

On ground what happens when you select A/I?

A

Engine A/I only

222
Q

When you set MCDU REF A/I ALL when will A/I be provided to the engines? To the wings?

A

Engines: as soon as they’re started
Wings: >40kt

223
Q

With MCDU REF AI OFF, when is AI available on takeoff?

A

1700ft or 2 mins after takeoff

224
Q

In flight what happens when you select ice protection mode to ON?

A

Activated wing AI and Engine AI regardless of conditions

225
Q

What happens if the ice protection WING button is pushed out/ has a white line across it?

A

Deactivated wing AI

226
Q

In flight when do wing and engine AI systems turn off automatically

A

After 5 mins of no ice

227
Q

When will windshield heat come on?

A

During the 2 min PBIT test

As soon as 2 sources of AC exist (not GPU)

228
Q

What is required to operate ENG and WING AI protection in auto mode?

A

All buttons are pushed in

On the ground, REF AI LSK??

otherwise it’s automatic in flight

229
Q

Decision to reject at 50 kts. Will auto brakes activate?

A

No must be 60kts

230
Q

With thrust levers above idle are you able to arm RTO?

A

No must be idle or below

231
Q

Decision to reject made above 60kts. Thrust levers moved to idle. What kind of braking will be commanded in RTO?

A

Max brake application up to anti skid protection

232
Q

During a reject, what pilot action commands activation of RTO braking?

A

Thrust levers idle or below

233
Q

What does the EMERGENCY/PRKG BRAKE light mean?

A

Parking brake is actuated

Sufficient pressure exists to maintain pressure

234
Q

What is the red button next to the gear handle that says “DN LOCK REL”?

A

Mechanically releases landing gear lock

235
Q

How is the parking brake released?

A

Press the little button on the end of the handle

236
Q

With gear lever in up position would the gear go down if you place the override switch in the down position?

A

Yes

237
Q

Using the alternate gear extension switch, how is the gear extended?

A

Using the switch just bypasses the Landing gear lever

238
Q

While taxiing to the gate, the FO selects “stop 2” but the engine doesn’t stop. What might be wrong?

A

Thrust lever not at idle

239
Q

In flight what happens if ignition is turned off?

A

Nothing

240
Q

What will cause automatic deployment of pax O2 masks?

A

14,000ft cabin alt

241
Q

What happens if you rotate the MASK DEPLOY knob to OVRD?

A

It will deploy the masks

No smoking and fasten belts will also come on

242
Q

What does the GND PROX GS INHIB button do?

A

Manually cancels glideslope alerts

243
Q

What resets the GND PROX GS INHIB?

A

Climbing above 2000ft RA

OR Descending below 30’ RA

244
Q

What does the LG WATN INHIB button do?

A

Cancels gear warnings when you have a dual radio altimeter failure

245
Q

TO CONFIG tests…

A

Trim in the green
Flaps set and match MCDU
PRK BRK off
Spoilers retracted

246
Q

What is a white bar in the EICAS FULL button?

A

Auto declutter inhibited

247
Q

When does AUTO DECLUTTER occur for the EICAS?

A

30 sec after gear/flap/ slay retraction if everything is normal

Or when button is pushed

248
Q

When would you use the GND PROX OVRD switch?

A

When landing something other than flaps 5 or FULL

JetBlue (17 decks)

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